Exam 3 - Chapter 9: Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

2

The endocrine system consists of highly integrated and widely distributed groups of organs called _____.

A

glands

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2
Q

2

Glands create a state of _____ among the various organs of the body.

A
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3
Q

2

Signaling by secreted molecules can be classified into what three types?

A
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4
Q

3

Hormones act on target cells that are _____ from their ________.

A
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5
Q

3

Endocrine hormone is frequently carried by ___ from its site of release to its ______.

A
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6
Q

5

Production of several hormones from endocrine glands is stimulated by ________ released from the _______.

A
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7
Q

5

The endocrine hormone inhibits production of the _____, a process known as _____.

A
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8
Q

7

What are the 7 major endocrine glands?

A
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9
Q

9

Endocrine diseases can be classified as diseases of ___________ and their resulting biochemical and clinical consequences. Or, they can be classified as diseases associated with the development of _______ that may be _____ or may be associated with _________.

A
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10
Q

11

The pituitary gland is a ____ shaped structure at the base of the brain, within the ________.

A
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11
Q

11

The pituitary gland function is controlled by the ______.

A
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12
Q

11

The pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus by a _____ containing _____ extending from the hypothalamus and a __________.

A
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13
Q

11

Along with the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland has a central role in regulating what?

A
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14
Q

12

What is the name of the attachment between the hypothalamus and the pituitary?

A
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15
Q

13

What are the 6 hormones associated with the anterior pituitary?

A
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16
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of growth hormone?

A
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17
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of prolactin?

A
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18
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A
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19
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of adenocroticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

A
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20
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

A
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21
Q

13

What is the chemical class and effect of luteinizing hormone?

A
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22
Q

14

What are the 2 hormones associated with the posterior pituitary lobe?

A
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23
Q

14

What is the chemical class and effect of antidiuretic hormone?

A
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24
Q

14

What is the chemical class and effect of oxytocin?

A
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25
Q

15

What is the hormone associated with the intermediate zone of the pituitary?

A
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26
Q

14

What is the chemical class and effect of melanocyte stimulating hormone?

A
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27
Q

14

The posterior pituitary does not produce hormones, but rather it ________.

A
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28
Q

15

______ cells in the hypothalamus release ______ or ______ into the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. These hormones are stored or released into the blood via the _______.

A
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29
Q

17

Are pituitary adenomas benign or malignant?

A
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30
Q

17

What age group are pituitary adenomas most common in?

A
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31
Q

17

What is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism?

A
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32
Q

Pituitary adenomas are classified on the basis of _______ by the tumor cells.

A
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33
Q

17

Large pituitary adenomas, particularly _____ ones, may cause _______.

A
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34
Q

18

What is the seconnd most common functioning pituitary adenoma?

A
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35
Q

18

What hormone is associated with somatotroph adenoma?

A
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36
Q

18

What are the two disorders associated with somatotroph adenoma? When does each occur in relation to epiphyseal plate closure?

A
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37
Q

18

What is the most common pituitary adenoma?

A
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38
Q

18

What age and gender are most commonly affected by lactotroph adenomas?

A
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39
Q

18

What hormone is involved in lactotroph adenoma?

A
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40
Q

18

What are three disorders associated with lactotroph adenoma? Which genders are affected by each?

A
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41
Q

18

What hormone is associated with thyrotroph adenoma?

A
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42
Q

18

What is the associated disorder with thyrotroph adenoma?

A
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43
Q

18

What is the hormone associated with cotricotrph adenoma?

A
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44
Q

18

What disease is associated with corticotroph adenoma?

A
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45
Q

18

What two hormones are associated with gonadotroph adenoma?

A
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46
Q

18

What are the effects associated with gonadotroph adenoma?

A
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47
Q

20

When does gigantism occur?

A
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48
Q

20

At what ages do the epiphyseal growth plates close in boys vs. girls?

A
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49
Q

20

In gigantism, the growth is usually _____ with long arms and long legs.

A
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50
Q

20

What is superimposed with gigantism if increased GH levels persist beyond epiphyseal closure?

A
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51
Q

20

In gigantism, failure of enlarged organs, especially the _____, may occur.

A
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52
Q

21

With acromegaly, there is growth noted in ____, ____, _____ and ______ of the face, hands, and feet.

A
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53
Q

21

What are the three oral manifestations of acromegaly?

A
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54
Q

21

What are the two treatment options for acromegaly?

A
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55
Q

24

What is there excess production of in corticotroph adenoma?

A
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56
Q

24

Corticotroph adenoma leads to _________ and the development of _________.

A
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57
Q

25

Cushing disease is due to the excess production of _____ by __________ or _________.

A
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58
Q

25

Cushing Syndrome is excess levels of _____ due to ______, ________, or ________.

A
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59
Q

26

What are 8 signs and symptoms of Cushing Disease/Syndrome?

A
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60
Q

28

The anterior pituitary gland receives arterial supply from the ________, which is a branch of the ______. This vessels first forms a capillary network around the _______. Blood from this network is then transported to a secondary capillary plexus surrounding the anterior pituitary. Known as the ______. this structure allows the hypothalamys to communicate with the anterior pituitary via the release of ______ into the blood.

A
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61
Q

28

The infundibulum and posterior pituitary gland receive a rich blood supply from ______. The three major vessels are the _______.

A
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62
Q

29

What percent of the anterior pituitary is destroyed in anterior pituitary gland hormone disorders?

A
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63
Q

29

What is decreased in anterior pituitary gland hormone disorders?

A
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64
Q

29

What is the associated disorder of anterior pituitary gland hormone disorders?

A
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65
Q

29

What is decreased in posterior pituitary gland hormone disorders?

A
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66
Q

29

What is the associated disorder of posterior pituitary gland hormone disorders?

A
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67
Q

30

What is another name for Sheehan Syndrome?

A
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68
Q

30

What is Sheehan Syndrome due to?

A
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69
Q

30

During pregnancy, the anterior pituitary enlarges to _____. This physiologic expansion of the gland is not accompanied by _________. Hence, there is relative ______. Any further loss of blood supply caused by _______ or _____ may precipitate infarction of the anterior lobe.

A
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70
Q

31

What are four symptoms of Sheehan syndrome?

A
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71
Q

31

When may the Diagnosis for Sheehan syndrome be made?

A
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72
Q

31

What is the treatment for Sheehan Syndrome?

A
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73
Q

33

Diabetes insipidus is characterized by ________ due to the inability of the ______ to ________.

A
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73
Q

33

What are 5 conditions that diabetes insipidus can be seen in?

A
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74
Q

34

What are four symptoms associated with diabetes insipidus?

A
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75
Q

34

What is the treatment for Diabetes Insipidus?

A
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76
Q

36

The thyroid gland consists of _____ connected by a _____.

A
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77
Q

36

Where is the thyroid gland located relative to the larynx?

A
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78
Q

37

From what two main structures does the thyroid gland originate from?

A
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79
Q

37

Early in gestation, the thyroid gland begins its descent anterior to the pharynx as a _______. It then continues to descend anterior of the hyoid bone and the cartilages of the larynx. By the _____ week, it reaches its destination ______to the upper trachea

A
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80
Q

38

Where does the thyroid gland begin formation?

A
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81
Q

39

The thyroid gland is divided by thin fibrous septae into _____ composed of _____ follicles.

A
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82
Q

39

The follicles that compose the thyroid gland lobules are lined by ___ or _______ epithelium and filled with _______.

A
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83
Q

40

In response to hypothalamic factors, TSH is released from the ______ into the ______.

A
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84
Q

40

TSH binds to its receptors on thyroid ________.

A
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85
Q

40

Thyroid follicular epithelial cells convert ______ into ______ and ________.

A
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86
Q

43

What is the disease that is an autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland?

A
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87
Q

43

What is there excess of in Graves disease?

A
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88
Q

43

What is the name for a hyperfunctioning benign tumor of the thyroid gland?

A
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89
Q

44-

What are six hyperthyroidism clinical features?

A
  1. increase in basal metabolic rate
  2. cardiac manifestations
  3. overactivity of the sympathetic NS
  4. ocular changes
  5. skeletal system effects
  6. thyroid storm
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90
Q

44

What are 4 things seen with the increase in basal metabolic rate in hyperthyroidism?

A
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91
Q

44

What is the earliest and most consistent sign of hyperthyroidism?

A
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92
Q

44

What are 4 examples of the cardiac manifestations associated with hyperthyroidism?

A
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93
Q

45

What are four examples of overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system seen in hyperthyroidism?

A
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94
Q

45

What are two ocular changes seen with hyperthyroidism?

A
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95
Q

45

True thryoid opthalmia associated with ____ occurs only in _______.

A
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96
Q

46

In hyperthyroidism, affects on the skeletal system stimulates _____, increased _______ and reducing _________ causing osteoporisis and increased risk of fractures.

A
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97
Q

46

Thyroid storm is a _______. It is an abrupt onset of _________ that occurs most commonly in patients with Graves disease.

A
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98
Q

50

Graves disease is an _____ disorder.

A
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99
Q

50

Graves disease has a peak incidence in people between _____ years of age.

A
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100
Q

50

What is the ratio of women to men affected with Graves disease?

A
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101
Q

50

Graves disease is chaaracterized by the production of _____ against _______, most importantly the _______.

A
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102
Q

50

Graves disease is the most common cause of __________.

A
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103
Q

51

What is localized, infiltrative dermopathy, aka pretibial myxedema?

A
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103
Q

51

What is the triad of clinical findings seen in Graves disease?

A
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104
Q

54

What lab values are elevated in Graves disease?

A
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105
Q

54

What lab values are decreased in Graves disease?

A
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106
Q

57

What is hypothyroidism in children called?

A
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107
Q

55

What are three sources of treatment for Graves Disease?

A
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108
Q

57

What is hypothyroidism in adults called?

A
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109
Q

57

What is Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A
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110
Q

58

Hypothyroidism is a condition caused by a ______ that interferes with the production of thyroid hormone.

A
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111
Q

58

Hypothyroidism prevlance ____ with age.

A
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112
Q

58

What is the ration of women to men affected by hypothyroidism?

A
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113
Q

59

What are 5 clinical features of creatinism?

A
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114
Q

61

Early symptoms of myxedema include _______, ____, and ______ which mimics depression.

A
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115
Q

61

In myxedema, _____ and _______ are slowed.

A
116
Q

61

Myxedema patients are _____, _____ intolerant, and frequently ______.

A
117
Q

61

Do patients have an increased or decreased cardiac output in myxedema?

A
118
Q

63

Lab values play a vital role in the diagnosis of suspected hypothyroidism because of the _________ of symptoms.

A
119
Q

63

TSH levels are _____ in primary hypothyroidism.

A
120
Q

63

TSH levels are not increased if hypothyroidism takes place at the ________ or _________ levels.

A
121
Q

63

What is the most sensitive screening test for hypothyroidism?

A
122
Q

68

Hashimoto Thyroiditis is caused by what?

A
123
Q

68

Hashimoto Thyroiditis predisposition has a strong ______ component.

A
124
Q

69

Hashimoto Thyroiditis is ______ enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with some degree of hypothyroidism.

A
125
Q

69

What group has a higher prevalence of hashimoto thyroiditis?

A
126
Q

69

The enlargement of the thyroid seen in Hashimoto Thyroiditis is ____ and _____.

A
127
Q

69

People with Hashimoto thyroiditis are at an increased risk of _______ and ______.

A
128
Q

70

What lab values are decreased in Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A
129
Q

70

What lab values are increased in Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A
130
Q

72

What is a goiter?

A
131
Q

72

Goiter may be associated with ______ in thyroid function or with _________ or __________.

A
132
Q

73

What are the two types of goiter?

A
133
Q

75

What are the two neoplasms of the thyroid?

A
134
Q

75

Is thyroid adenoma benign or cancerous?

A
135
Q

75

Is thyroid carcinoma benign or cancerous?

A
136
Q

76

The major concern in persons presenting with thyroid nodules is the possibility of ________.

A
137
Q

76

Benign thyroid neoplasms outnumber malignant neoplasms by a ratio of ______.

A
138
Q

76

Most of the thyroid malignancies are ___, meaning they mostly do not ______.

A
139
Q

76

A history of _______ to the head and neck region is associated with an increased incidence of thyroid malignancy.

A
140
Q

78

Thyroid adenomas are typically ____, ____ masses derived from ________.

A
141
Q

78

With thyroid adenomas are there more functional or nonfunctional adenomas?

A
142
Q

78

Are thyroid adenomas painful or painless masses?

A
143
Q

78

Larger thyroid adenomas may produce difficulty in ______.

A
144
Q

81

What is the 5 year survival rate for thyroid carcinoma?

A
145
Q

78

What is the treatment for thyroid adenomas?

A
146
Q

81

What sex is thyroid carcinoma more common in?

A
147
Q

81

After what age is thyroid carcinoma more common in?

A
148
Q

81

Thyroid carcinoma frequently presents ________.

A
149
Q

81

What is the sign associated with thyroid carcinoma?

A
150
Q

81

What symptom is associated with thyroid carcinoma?

A
151
Q

82

What are the four subtypes of thyroid carcinoma?

A
152
Q

82

What percent of the time is papillary thyroid carcinoma seen?

A
153
Q

82

What percent of the time is follicular carcinoma seen?

A
154
Q

82

What percent of the time is poorly differentiated and anaplastic carcinoma seen?

A
155
Q

82

What percent of the time is medullary carcinoma seen?

A
156
Q

82

From what cells does medullary carcinoma arise from?

A
157
Q

83

Lymphoma of thyroid may occur in the setting of _______.

A
158
Q

83

Is lymphoma of the thyroid curable?

A
159
Q

85

Parathyroid glands are derived from the ________.

A
160
Q

85

Parathyroid glands are located on the _______ and _______ of each thyroid lobes.

A
161
Q

85

How many parathyroid glands are there?

A
162
Q

85

What are the 2 cell types in parathyroid glands?

A
163
Q

85

Oxyphil cells have _______ containing ________.

A
164
Q

87

What is the number 1 function of parathyroid glands?

A
165
Q

87

The activity of the parathyroid gland is controlled by the levels of ________.

A
166
Q

87

Decreased levels of free calcium stimulates the ____ and ____ of the ____ hormone.

A
167
Q

89

What are three associated disorders of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
168
Q

89

What percent of the time is hyperplasia seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
169
Q

89

What percent of the time is adenoma seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
170
Q

89

What percent of the time is carcinoma seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
171
Q

89

What disorder is associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
172
Q

89

What disorder is associated with tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A
173
Q

90

Primary hyperparathyroidism has elevated levels of ____.

A
174
Q

90

What is one of the most common endocrine disorders?

A
175
Q

90

Is primary hyperparathyroidism more common in adults or children?

A
176
Q

90

Is primary hyperparathyroidism more common in women or men?

A
177
Q

90

Primary hyperparathyroidism can be ____ or _____.

A
178
Q

90

What are the four clinical manifestations of primary hyperparathyroidism if it is symptomatic?

A
179
Q

91

In what percent of primary hyperparathyroidism patients are renal stones seen?

A
180
Q

91

What are three issues associated with the bones of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
181
Q

91

What are two abdominal issues with with patients with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
182
Q

91

Peptic ulcers in patients with primary hyperparathyroidism are associated with _____ that ____ after surgical excision.

A
183
Q

91

What causes the moans of primary hyperparathyrodism?

A
184
Q

92

Detection via screenings of what two things would indicate primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
185
Q

92

What is a treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
186
Q

93

Brown tumors are _______ that may appear in severely affected primary hyperparathyroidism patients.

A
187
Q

93

Brown tumors of primary hyperparathyroidism have excessive _____ activity.

A
188
Q

93

What gives the brown appearance of brown tumors?

A
189
Q

93

Brown tumors appear identical to what?

A
190
Q

93

What is the most severe skeletal manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
191
Q

93

Osteitis fibrosa cystica develops from _______ and _____ of long-standing brown tumors.

A
192
Q

95

The endocrine pancreas consists of ____ clusters of cells known as ________.

A
193
Q

95

Iselts of Langerhans contain ___ major and ___ minor types of cells.

A
194
Q

95

What are the four major types of cells of the endocrine pancreas?

A
195
Q

95

What are the two minor cell types of the endocrine pancreas?

A
196
Q

96

Beta cells of the endocrine pancrease produce ____, which regulates _______ in tissues and reduced _____ levels.

A
197
Q

96

Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete _____, which stimulates _____ in the liver and thus _____ blood sugar.

A
198
Q

96

Delta cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete _____, which suppresses ________ release.

A
199
Q

96

PP cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete ______, which exert several ___ effects, such as stimulation of secretion of _______ and inhibition of _____.

A
200
Q

98

D1 cells of the endocrine pancrease secrete _________, a hormone that induces _____ and ______.

A
201
Q

98

Enterochromaffin cells of the endocrine pancreas synthesize _______.

A
202
Q

99

Diabetes mellitus is a group of ______ sharing the common feature of _______.

A
203
Q

99

Diabetes mellitus is caused by defects in _______, ______, or most commonly, _____.

A
204
Q

100

What are five consequences of diabetes mellitus?

A
205
Q

101

In hyaline arteriolosclerosis, there is deposition of _______ and ________ in vascular walls, making them ______.

A
206
Q

101

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis is most evident in the ____, ______, ____, and _______.

A
207
Q

102

Atherosclerosis occurs in most diabetes within ________ years of onset of Diabetes Mellitus, regardless of _____.

A
208
Q

102

5% of nondiabetics _____ years old have ________ atherosclersoso vs. ___ of diabetics.

A
209
Q

102

What is the most common cause of death in diabetics?

A
210
Q

104

What is the most severely damaged organ in diabetics?

A
211
Q

104

What are three conditions seen in people with diabetic nephropathy?

A
212
Q

104

What is the name of the lesion seen in the kidneys of people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus?

A
213
Q

105

Diabetic retinopathy includes retinal _____. ______, and ______.

A
214
Q

105

Diabetic retinopathy involves retinal damage due to ______, which is the ________.

A
215
Q

105

What are two consequences of diabetic retinopathy that contribute to visual impairment.

A
216
Q

105

_____% of patients develop some form of diabetic retinopathy _____ years after diagnosis.

A
217
Q

106

Diabetic neuropathy is _____ neuropathy involving both the _____ and _______ nerves of legs.

A
218
Q

106

Diabetic neuropathy may affect _________ nervous system leading to ____ and _____ dysfunction and impotence.

A
219
Q

107

What are two oral manifestations of diabetes?

A
220
Q

109

The adrenal gland is a ____ endocrine gland consisting of a ___ and a ____, which differ in their development, structure, and function.

A
221
Q

109

What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?

A
222
Q

109

What does the zona glomerulosa synthesize?

A
223
Q

109

What two things does the zona reticularis synthesize?

A
224
Q

109

What does the zona fasciculata synthesize?

A
225
Q

109

The adrenal medulla is composed of ______ cells that synthesize _____, mainly ______.

A
226
Q

110

What are the two mineralocorticoids produced by the zona glomerulosa?

A
227
Q

110

What are the two glucocorticoids produced by the zona fasciculata?

A
228
Q

110

What are the two androgens produced by the zona reticularis?

A
229
Q

110

What are the two catecholamines and the two peptides produced by the medulla of the adrenal gland?

A
230
Q

112

What is the disorder associated with hyper cortisol?

A
231
Q

112

What is the disorder associated with hyper aldosterone?

A
232
Q

112

What is the disorder associated with hyper androgens?

A
233
Q

114

Cushing syndrome is a disorder caused by conditions that produce _________.

A
234
Q

114

What is the ration of women to men affected by Cushing Syndrome?

A
235
Q

115

What is the sequence of four common symptoms seen in people with Cushing Syndrome?

A
236
Q

116

What are 7 common findings of Cushing Syndrome?

A
237
Q

118

What disorder is associated with Hypoadrenocorticism?

A
238
Q

120

Clinical features of Addison disease do not begin to appear until at least ____% of the glandular tissue has been destroyed.

A
239
Q

120

In Addison disease, with gradual destruction of the adrenal cortex, there is insidious onset of what 5 symptoms?

A
240
Q

121

What is bronzing in Addison disease?

A
241
Q

121

In Addison disease, bronzing is more prominent in ____ skin and over ________.

A
242
Q

121

In Addison disease, bronzing is caused by elevated levels of __________, derived from the _________ and is a precursor of both ______ and _________.

A
243
Q

123

What are the oral manifestations seen in Addison disease?

A
244
Q

123

What is the first manifestation of Addison disease?

A
245
Q

125

What are the levels of ACTH in primary hypoadrenocorticism?

A
246
Q

125

What are the ACTH in secondary hypoadrenocorticism?

A
247
Q

126

What is the treatment for Addison Disease?

A
248
Q

126

The physiologic dose of glucocorticoids for Addison disease treatment is approximately ______ mg of hydrocortisone or its equivalent per day in divided doses.

A
249
Q

126

Under stressful conditions, someone with Addison disease may need additional hormone above the physiologic dose. However, this adjustment is not required for dental procedures performed using ____ and lasting ______.

A
250
Q

129

In normal situations, cortisol is critical for function of the body, particularly in dealing with _____.

A
251
Q

129

As cortisol is metabolized and serum levels drop, feedback to the _____ signals it to produce _____, which stimulates the adrenal gland to produce _______.

A
252
Q

130

In Addison disease, therapeutic corticosteroids have what effect? What may be precipitated as a result of this?

A
253
Q

132

To avoid Addisonian crisis, the clinician must be aware of the potential side effects of _________ and must be able to adapt the treatment of the patient accordingly.

A
254
Q

132

For stressful dental and surgical procedures it is often necessary to increase the ______ because of the greater need of cortisol. Consultation with the physician who is managing the corticosteroid therapy is advised.

A
255
Q

133

How are cortisol, aldosterone, ACTH, and CRH levels affected in primary adrenal insufficiency when there is negative feedback?

A
256
Q

133

How are cortisol, aldosterone, ACTH, and CRH levels affected in secondary adrenal insufficiency when there is negative feedback?

A
257
Q

133

How are cortisol, aldosterone, ACTH, and CRH levels affected in tertiary adrenal insufficiency when there is negative feedback?

A
258
Q

134

What is the most common cause of hypoadrenocorticism in Western countries?

A
259
Q

134

What are three examples of infections that can cause hypoadrenocorticism?

A
260
Q

134

What are 4 things that rarely cause hypoadrenocorticism?

A
261
Q

137

The adrenal medulla is composed of ____ cells and their supporting cells known as ______ cells.

A
262
Q

137

The adrenal medulla is a major source of _____ in the body.

A
263
Q

137

_______ cells like chromaffin cells are widely dispersed in an _______ system of clusters and nodules that together with the adrenal medulla make up the ________ system.

A
264
Q

138

What is pheochromocytoma?

A
265
Q

138

What are neuroblastic tumors?

A
266
Q

139

What do pheochromocytomas synthesize and release?

A
267
Q

139

It is important to recognize pheochromocytomas because they are a rare cause of _______.

A
268
Q

141

Traditionally, the features of pheochromocytomas have been summarized by the _______.

A
269
Q

141

The rule of 10s for pheochromocytomas:

  1. 10% of pheochromocytomas are _____.
  2. 10% of sporadic adrenal pheochromocytomas are ______.
  3. 10% of adrenal pheochromocytomas are biologically ______.
  4. 10% of adrenal pheochromocytomas are not associated with _____.
A
270
Q

141

The traditional 10% rule that has now been modified for pheochromocytomas pertains to _______. ___% of individuals with pheochromocytomas and paragangliomas harbor a _______.

A
271
Q

143

What is the dominant feature of pheochromocytoma and in what percent of cases is it seen?

A
272
Q

143

What are two treatment options for pheochromocytomas?

A
273
Q

144

Neuroblastoma is a cancer composed of ________.

A
274
Q

144

Neuroblastomas most commonly arise in and around _____ which have similar origin to ______.

A
275
Q

144

Neuroblastomas are a common malignant tumor in _____. The median age at presentation is _____, with peak ages _____.

A
276
Q

144

Neuroblastomas are slightly more common in what sex?

A
277
Q

146

What are the three types of multiple endocrine neuroplasia syndromes?

A
278
Q

146

Which multiple endocrine neuroplasia syndrome has oral manifestations?

A
279
Q

147

What is another name for MEN1 syndrome?

A
280
Q

147

What is the inheritance pattern for MEN1?

A
281
Q

147

MEN1 is a syndrome characterized by mutations in the _______.

A
282
Q

147

MEN1 Syndrome involves the development of _______.

A
283
Q

147

What are the 3 P’s of MEN1 syndrome?

A
284
Q

150

What is another name for MEN-2A syndrome?

A
285
Q

150

What three things characterize MEN-2A syndrome?

A
286
Q

151

What 5 things do patients with MEN-2B Syndrome develop?

A
287
Q

151

How does medullary carcinoma of the thyroid in MEN-2B compare to that of MEN-2A?

A
288
Q

152

What are the oral manifestations seen in MEN-2B?

A