Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physical Assessment > Exam 3 - Middle of Study Guide > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Middle of Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Define constipation.

A

Decreased frequency of BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ID S/Sx of chronic constipation.

A

Decreased frequency of BM for at least 12 weeks of last 6 mo; Diarrhea alternating with constipation, abdominal pain/discomfort, pain with defecation, presence of bright red blood, stool black/tarry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Causes of constipation.

A

Medications (anticholinergics; CCB; Fe suplements; Opiates), DM, Hypothyroidism, Hypercalcemia, MS, Parkinsonﾒs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define obstipation.

A

severe constipation that prevents passage of both stools and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are typical causes of obstipation?

A

indicates an intestinal obstruction, such as a Volvulus (twisted bowel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define IBS.

A

Functional change in frequency or form of bowel movement without known pathology; possibly from a change in intestinal bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ID S/Sx of IBS

A

3 patterns possible: Diarrhea predominant; constipation predominant; or mixed. Symptoms present for >6 mo and abdominal pain for >3 mo plus at least 2 of the following 3 features - 1)improvement w/ defecation; 2) onset with change in stool frequency; 3) onset with change in stool form and appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two conditions associated with IBS?

A

Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum and colon with ulceration; typically extends proximally from the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

S/Sx of ulcerative colitis.

A

Soft to watery stools containing blood; mild cramping; lower or generalized abdominal pain; anorexia; weakness; fever in severe attacks. May include episcleritis, uveitis, arthritis, erythema nodosum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Persons at risk for ulcerative colitis.

A

Younger people. Increases risk of colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

Chronic transmural inflammation of the bowel wall, in a skip pattern typically involving the terminal ileum and/or proximal colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S/Sx of Crohn’s disease.

A

Small, soft to loose or watery stools, usually with little or no blood; Crampy periumbilical, RLQ (SI), or diffuse (colon) pain, with anorexia, low fever and/or weight loss. Perianal or perirectal abscesses and fistulae; May cause small or large bowel obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Persons at risk for Crohn’s disease.

A

Often young people, beginning in late teens, but also in middle age. More common in Jewish descent. Increases risk of colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ID three primary forms of mechanical obstruction.

A

1) cancer of rectum or sigmoid colon; 2) fecal impaction; 3) Other obstructive lesions (diverticulitis; volvulus; intussusception; hernia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does cancer cause a bowel obstruction?

A

Progressive narrowing of the bowel lumen from adenocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ID S/SX of a bowel obstruction related to cancer.

A

Change in bowel habits; often diarrhea, abdominal pain, bleeding, occult blood in stool. In rectal cancer, tenesmus and pencil-shaped stools. Weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does fecal impaction cause a bowel obstruction?

A

A large, firm, immovable fecal mass, most often in the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ID S/SX of a bowel obstruction related to fecal impaction.

A

Rectal fullness, abdominal pain, and diarrhea around the impaction; common in debilitated, bedridden, and often elderly patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do other causes (not cancer or fecal impaction) cause a bowel obstruction?

A

Narrowing or complete obstruction of the bowel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ID S/SX of a bowel obstruction related to other causes (not cancer or fecal impaction).

A

Colicky abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and intussusception, often “current jelly” stools (red blood & mucus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are common causes of melena?

A

GI bleeding above the Ligament of Triaz; Gastritis, GERD, peptic ulcers; stress ulcers; Esophageal or gastric varices; Mallory-Weiss tear;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are common causes of hematochezia?

A

GI bleeding below the Ligament of Triaz; Colon cancer; hyperplasia; adenomatous polyps; diverticula of colon; ulcerative colitis; Crohn’s; Infectious diarrhea; Proctitis; Ischemic colitis; hemorrhoids; anal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the anatomy of the rectum.

A

Balloons out above anorectal junction; turns posteriorly. Includes Valve of Houston.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the anatomy of the anorectal junction.

A

Dentate line. Boundary between somatic and visceral nerve innervation; not readily palpable, but visible with proctoscope. Boundary between anal canal and rectum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the anatomy of the anus.

A

Includes internal and external anal sphincters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the different positions for digital rectal exam (DRE)?

A

1) Sim’s position (on table in decubitus position with top leg flexed at hip); or 2) Standing position (hips flexed, leaning on table)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Steps of DRE

A

1) Gloves & lubricant; 2) Spread buttocks; 3) Inspect sacrococcygeal & perianal areas; 4) Pt bears down; 5) Inspect anus; 6) Explain urge to have BM or urinate is likely, but won’t happen; 7) Finger on anus; 8) Pt bears down & relaxes; 9) Finger in anal canal; 10) Insert finger slowly, pointing it toward umbilicus during insertion; 11) Palpate rectum by rotating 180 clockwise and counterclockwise; 12) Palpate prostate gland; 13) Palpate seminal vesicles and peritoneal cavity above prostate; 14) Pt bears down; 15) Check sphincter tone and remove finger slowly; 16) Give pt tissue to clear up; 17) Use occult stool card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a pilonidial cyst?

A

Congenital anomaly aggrevated by pressure of sitting; friction of walking; accumulation of sweat. Remember Prof. Williams story about sit-ups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are pilonidial cysts located?

A

Midline, superficial to coccyx and lower sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

S/Sx of a pilonidial cyst.

A

Opening of a sinus tract; may have tuft of hair; surrounded by halo of erythema; often asymptomatic; slight drainage; prone to abscess formation and secondary sinus tract complication. When aggrevated, cyst may become inflamed, swollen, painful, filled with pus/blood, cause fever or malaise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S/Sx of anorectal fistula

A

Inflammatory tract or tube that opens at one end into the rectum/anus and the other onto the skin surface or other viscus. Usually preceded by an abscess. Look for fistulous openings anywhere in skin around anus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

S/Sx of internal hemorrhoids.

A

Enlargements of the normal vascular cushions located above the pectinate line. Not usually palpable. May cause rectal bleeding (bright red blood), especially during defecation. Usually painless. May prolapse through the anal canal and appear as reddish, moist, protruding masses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

S/Sx of external hemorrhoids.

A

Dilated hemorrhoidal veins originating BELOW the pectinate line and covered with skin. Typically asymptomatic unless thrombosed. Thrombosed hemorrhoids cause acute local pain that increases with sitting and defecation. Tender, swollen, bluish, ovoid mass visible at anal margin. More likely to be painful than internal hemorrhoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

S/Sx of hematochezia.

A

Bright red blood in stools, usually a result of GI bleed below the Ligament of Triaz. May be associated with a change in bowel habits, weight loss, diarrhea, rectal urgency, tenesmus, lower abdominal pain, fever, shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

S/Sx of melena.

A

Black, tarry stools with occult blood. Variety of causes. May occur with heartburn, pain after meals, recent ingestion of alcohol, aspirin, or other anti-inflammatory drugs; recent abdominal trauma or surgery; increased ICP; cirrhosis; retching, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

S/Sx of rectal prolapse.

A

Prolapse through anus of rectal mucosa +/- muscular wall; often as a result of straining for a BM. Doughnut or rosette of red tissue. When only mucosa involved, prolapse is relatively small & shows radiating folds. When entire bowel wall is involved, a larger prolapse occurs with concentrically circular folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

S/Sx of anal fissure.

A

Very painful oval ulceration of anal canal; most common in posterior midline; may have swollen “sentinel” skin tag below it. Gentle separation of anal margins may reveal lower dege of the fissure. Local anesthesia may be required because sphincter is spastic and exam is painful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Abnormal findings of DRE indicative of colon polyps.

A

Common; variable size & #, soft, 2 types: Pedunculated (stalk) & sessile (lies on surface); Difficult to detect even when in reach; Proctoscopy & biopsy necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Abnormal findings of DRE indicative of rectal cancer.

A

Firm, nodular, rolled edge of an ulcerated cancer; Signs/Symptoms: Often asymptomatic; Rectal bleeding, change in bowel pattern/stool, weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Rectal cancer risk factors.

A

Inc. age, smoking, FH or personal hx of colon/rectal ca, diet high in fat, no screening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Procedures that may be used in screening for rectal cancer.

A

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT), PE/DRE, Flex sig/Rigid sig/colonoscopy/ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At what age do the risks of colonoscopy outweigh the benefits?

A

75 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Abnormal findings of DRE indicative of prostate cancer.

A

Area of hardness on the prostate during rectal exam; enlarged tumor may feel irregular and may extend beyond confines of the gland. Median sulcus may be obscured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Abnormal findings of DRE indicative of BPH.

A

Nonmalignant enlargement of prostate gland that increases with age; present in 50% of men over 50. May feel normal in size or may be symmetrically enlarged, smooth, and firm though slightly elastic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal findings of DRE indicative of healthy prostate.

A

Rounded, heart-shaped structure approximately 2.5 cm long. Median sulcus felt at base between 2 lateral lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

S/Sx of BPH.

A

Increased urinary urgency, frequency, nocturia, decreased stream, retention; straining. REMEMBER - NUTS: Nocturia, Urine dribbles, tried to void but canﾒt, small stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Prostate.

A

Gland contributing to seminal fluid. Surrounds urethra at neck of urinary bladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Testes

A

Contain interstitial tissue and seminiferous tubules; produces testosterone as a result of hypothalamus stimulation (GRH) of anterior pituitary (FSH & LH). FSH also regulates sperm production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Scrotum

A

Loose, wrinkled pouch divided into two compartments, each containing one testis. Important in temperature regulation of testes. Covering testis within scrotum, except posteriorly, is serous membrane, tunica vaginalis which cloaks anterior 2/3 of testis and can accumulate fluid. On posterolateral surface of each testis is softer, comma-shaped epididymis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Epididymis

A

Tightly coiled spermatic ducts that provide a reservoir for storage, maturation, and transport of sperm from testis to vas deferens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Spermatic cord

A

Within scrotum, vas deferens is closely associated with blood vessels, nerves, and muscle fibers. These structures make up the spermatic cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Vas deferens

A

Cordlike structure that transports sperm from tail of epididymis along a somewhat circular route to the urethra during ejaculation. The vas ascends from the scrotal sac into the pelvic cavity through the external inguinal ring, then loops over the ureter to teh prostate behind the bladder. There it merges with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct, which traverses the prostate and empties into the urethra. Secretions from the vas deferentia, seminal vesicles, and prostate all contribute to seminal fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Penis

A

Shaft - 3 columns of vascular erectile tissue: 1) corpus spongiosum, containing urethra and forming bulb of penis ending in the glans, which has expanded base known as corona; 2 & 3) corpora cavernosa. Foreskin/prepuce covers glans in uncircumcised men, where smegma (secretions of glans) may collect. Urethra opens in external urethral meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

4 Types of Prostatitis

A

Acute bacterial prostatitis; chronic bacterial prostatitis; chronic nonbacterial prostatitis; asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

S/Sx of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Fever, chills, dysuria, perineal & low back pain; +/- signs of sepsis; warm, tender, dilated prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Common ages for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Men in 20’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Causes of acute bacterial prostatitis.

A

80% from Gram (-) bacteria such as E. coli, Enterococcus, Proteus; May be secondary to chlamydia, gonorrhea, herpes, or syphilis in men in 20s and 30s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

S/Sx of chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

Recurrent infection of prostate; pain in perineal, low back, suprapubic, groin, and/or scrotal regions; dysuria, inc. freq., urgency, nocturia; pain on ejaculation; low libido; abd, testicular, epididymal, prostate, and/or DRE tenderness; normal sized or enlarged prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Causes of chronic bacterial prostatitis.

A

Most often E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

S/Sx of chronic nonbacterial prostatitis

A

Recurrent infection of prostate; pain in perineal, low back, suprapubic, groin, and/or scrotal regions; dysuria, inc. freq., urgency, nocturia; pain on ejaculation; low libido; abd, testicular, epididymal, prostate, and/or DRE tenderness; normal sized or enlarged prostate; pelvic pain often exaggerated by stress, diet, vigorous exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Causes of chronic nonbacterial prostatitis.

A

Unclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

S/Sx of noninflammatory chronic pelvic pain syndrome (CPPS)

A

Prostadynia; pelvic pain; voiding symptoms; negative urine cultures; normal prostate DRE; aggrevated/induced by stress

64
Q

Common ages for chronic pelvic pain syndrome

A

Men ages 20-50

65
Q

Commonly used methods for rectal examination/visualization in office/outpatient facilities.

A

FOBT; DRE; possibly sigmoidoscopy (every 5 years after 50)

66
Q

Commonly used methods for rectal examination/visualization in with sedation in a facility.

A

Possibly sigmoidoscopy; colonoscopy (every 10 years after 50)

67
Q

Indications for ordering a PSA test

A

Discussion of risks and benefits of PSA testing and individualized screening decisions beginning at age 50

68
Q

What is PSA?

A

Prostate-specific antigen; a glycoprotein produced by prostate epithelial cells that is a biomarker for early detection of prostate cancer with a variety of limitations.

69
Q

What causes elevated PSA values?

A

Hyperplasia, prostatitis, ejaculation, urine retention, prostate cancer

70
Q

S/SX of condyloma acuminatum.

A

Most common viral STI in US; increased risk of anogenital, head, and neck cancer. Single/multiple papules/plaques, may be raised or cauliflower like (verrucous); HPV subtypes 6, 11 ﾖ weeks to months from exposure ﾖ partner may not have visible warts; Can cause itching and pain; Arise on penis, scrotum, groin, thighs, anus, vagina, labia; May disappear without treatment.

71
Q

Hypospadias

A

Congenital anomaly with displacement of urethral meatus to inferior surface of penis

72
Q

Epispadias

A

Congenital (very rare) anomaly with displacement of urethral meatus to dorsal surface of penis

73
Q

S/SX of genital herpes (herpes simplex type 2).

A

Leading cause of genital ulcer disease (multiple, shallow, tender ulcers that may be vesicular); recurrence is expected. Small scattered or grouped vesicles 1-3mm in size on glans, shaft, vagina; appear as erosion if vesicles break; HSV 2 (double stranded DNA virus) ﾖ 2-7 days after exposure; Primary episode may be asymptomatic; subsequent episodes usually less painful/shorter

74
Q

S/SX of Peyronie’s.

A

Hard, non-tender, palpable plaques located on the dorsal aspect of the penis, just below the skin. CC is a painful and crooked erection.

75
Q

S/SX of syphilitic chancre.

A

Small red papule ? chancre (painless erosion) ﾖ heals within 3-8 wks ﾖ if secondary syphilis develops while present ﾖ suggests co-infection with HIV; Treponema pallidum (spirochete) ﾖ 9-90 days after exposure; Inguinal lymphadenopathy in 7 days ﾖ mobile, non-tender, rubbery

76
Q

S/SX of penile carcinoma.

A

Typically found in uncircumcised men ﾖ a nontender indurated nodule or ulcer-like lesion. Penile lesions that do not resolve quickly are concerning.

77
Q

Phimosis

A

Foreskin fully forward over glans and cannot be retracted

78
Q

Paraphimosis

A

Foreskin trapped behind the glans, becoming edematous and vascular engorgement occurs of distal glans. Medical emergency.

79
Q

Balanitis

A

Inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce ﾖ may be result of infection or a dermatologic cause, poor hygiene in uncircumcised male

80
Q

Balanoposthitis

A

Inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce ﾖ descriptive term and not a diagnosis

81
Q

S/SX of epidermoid cyst.

A

Common finding ﾖ white or yellowish papule resulting from follicles filled with desquamated follicular epithelium

82
Q

S/SX of scrotal edema.

A

Pitting edema may make the scrotal skin taut; seen in HF and nephrotic syndrome

83
Q

S/SX of hydrocele.

A

Mass of fluid within the tunica vaginalis ﾖ discreet and palpable; transilluminates

84
Q

S/SX of scrotal hernia.

A

Usually an indirect inguinal hernia that comes through the external inguinal ring, so examining fingers cannot get above it within the scrotum

85
Q

S/SX of testicular torsion.

A

Surgical emergency. Twisting of the testis involving spermatic cord compromises blood supply

86
Q

S/SX of cryptorchidism.

A

Atrophied testes; may be in inguinal canal or abdomen because they are undescended; scrotum unfilled; increased risk of testicular cancer

87
Q

S/SX of acute orchitis.

A

Red, inflamed, tender, swollen testis ﾖ typically viral infections (mumps & others); unilateral

88
Q

S/SX of acute epididymitis.

A

Inflamed, tender, swollen ﾖ diff to differentiate from the testis ﾖ usually found with Chlamydia infection.

89
Q

S/SX of spermatocele.

A

Located just above testis ﾖ painless and mobile cystic mass ﾖ clinical exam canﾒt determine if sperm-filled or not

90
Q

Testicular nodule

A

Assume cancer until proven otherwise

91
Q

Variocele

A

“Bag of worms” feeling - soft, apart from testes; usually noted on left testis. May be associated w/ infertility

92
Q

Kleinfelter’s syndrome

A

Small testicular size (<2 cm); may follow orchitis

93
Q

What are the 3 types of hernias?

A

Direct inguinal; indirect inguinal; femoral

94
Q

PE findings indicating a direct inguinal hernia.

A

Rarely in the scrotum. The hernia (omentum or part of intestine) bulges anteriorly and pushes the side of the finger forward.

95
Q

Occurrence frequency of direct inguinal hernias.

A

Less common than indirect inguinal hernias; more common than femoral hernias.

96
Q

Age/sex of typical direct inguinal hernia patients.

A

Usually in men older than 40; very rare in women.

97
Q

Point of origin of direct inguinal hernias.

A

Above inguinal ligament, close to the pubic tubercle (near the external inguinal ring); through fascia of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal; medial to the inferior epigastric vessels; Bulge near external inguinal ring

98
Q

PE findings indicating a indirect inguinal hernia.

A

Often into scrotum. Hernia comes down the inguinal canal and touches the fingertip with coughing.

99
Q

Occurrence frequency of indirect inguinal hernias.

A

Most common hernia in all ages.

100
Q

Age/sex of typical indirect inguinal hernia patients.

A

Affects all ages and sexes. Often in children, and may also present in adults.

101
Q

Point of origin of indirect inguinal hernias.

A

Bulge above inguinal ligament, near its midpoint (the internal inguinal ring, which is more lateral than the external inguinal ring). Through deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

102
Q

PE findings indicating a femoral hernia.

A

Never into the scrotum. Inguinal canal is empty.

103
Q

Occurrence frequency of femoral hernias.

A

Least common hernia in groin.

104
Q

Age/sex of typical femoral hernia patients.

A

More common in women.

105
Q

Point of origin of femoral hernias.

A

Below the inguinal ligament. Appears more lateral than an inguinal hernia. Can be difficult to differentiate from lymph nodes.

106
Q

Common causes of penile discharge.

A

Profuse yellow discharge > gonococcal urethritis; scanty white or clear discharge > nongonococcal urethritis. Definitive diagnosis requires Gram stain & culture. If pt complains of discharge or discharge is noted, ask pt to milk the shaft of the penis to obtain a sample for culture.

107
Q

What information should be obtained in for a menstrual hx?

A

Age of menarche; # of days on menses (Usually 5 +/- 2 days); Length & regularity of interval between cycles (Usually 21 ﾖ 35 days); Start date of last menstrual period(LMP); Dates of preceding menses; Intermenstrual bleeding or pain; Color; Volume of flow; Sx associated with menses

108
Q

What information should be obtained in for a basic gynecological hx?

A

Date of last pelvic exam; Last PAP smear & results; Hx of Abnormal PAP; STDs; Gyn procedures

109
Q

What information should be obtained in for a contraceptive hx?

A

Current method (Type; Length of time used; Compliance; Side effects; Satisfaction); Previous methods & why discontinued; Patient education about barrier methods

110
Q

Define amenorrhea.

A

Absence of menses

111
Q

What are common causes of amenorrhea?

A

Secondary amenorrhea (physiologic) - pregnancy, lactation, menopause Secondary amenorrhea (pathologic) - low body weight; hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction

112
Q

Primary vs. Secondary amenorrhea

A

Primary amenorrhea - absence of periods ever initiating. Secondary amenorrhea - Cessation of periods after they have been established.

113
Q

Define dyspareunia.

A

Pain during intercourse

114
Q

What are common causes of dyspareunia?

A

local inflammation, atrophic vaginitis, inadequate lubrication; pelvic disorders; pressure on a normal ovary;

115
Q

Define oligomenorrhea.

A

Infrequent or very light menstruation

116
Q

Define polymenorrhea.

A

Abnormally frequent menstruation

117
Q

Define menorrhagia.

A

Abnormally heavy bleeding during menstruation

118
Q

What are common causes of menorrhagia?

A

Threatened abortion or dysfunctional uterine bleeding (if preceded by amenorrhea)

119
Q

Define metrorrhagia.

A

Abnormal bleeding from uterus.

120
Q

What are common causes of metrorhagia.

A

Pregnancy; cervical/vaginal infection or cancer; cervical or endometrial polyps or hyperplasia, fibroids, bleeding disorders, hormonal contraception or replacement therapy.

121
Q

Define dysmenorrhea.

A

Painful menstruation

122
Q

Primary vs. Secondary Dysmenorrhea

A

Primary - without organic cause; Secondary - with an organic cause

123
Q

What are common causes of dysmenorrhea?

A

Primary - Increased prostaglandin production during luteal phase of the menstrual cycle when estrogen and progesterone levels decline; Secondary - endometriosis; adenomyosis; PID; endometrial polyps

124
Q

Define vaginismus.

A

Painful, spasmodic contraction of the vagina in response to physical contact

125
Q

What are common causes of vaginismus?

A

Physical or psychological

126
Q

What is gravida?

A

of pregnancies

127
Q

What is parity?

A

of deliveries & types

128
Q

What information should be obtained in for an obstetrical hx?

A

Gravidity (# of pregnancies); Parity (# of deliveries [F]ull term; [P]reterm; [A]borions; [L]iving children); Complications (pregnancy, deliver, fetus/neonate)

129
Q

How should pregnancy and birth history be noted?

A

Documentation: G #Births P #Full term #Preterm #Abortions #Living Ex. - G 6 P 3-2-1-4

130
Q

What general questions should be asked when taking a sexual history?

A

of sexual partners; Gender of partner; Sexual preferences; High risk behavior; Prior STDs; Satisfaction with relationship (Frequency, pleasure, orgasm, dyspareunia)

131
Q

What structures/organs are in the female pelvic area?

A

External genitalia - Vulva: Mons veneris, Labia majora, Labia minora, Clitoris, Vestibule & glands (Bartholinﾒs glands), Urethral meatus Internal genitalia - Vagina, Uterus (Cervix, Fundus, Corpus(body)), Fallopian Tubes, Ovaries, hymen

132
Q

What is a PAP smear?

A

Sample of cervical and uterine superficial cells and secretions

133
Q

When should a PAP smear be utilized?

A

Begin at age 21; screen every 3 years if no past abnormal results

134
Q

What does a PAP smear screen?

A

examined microscopically to detect any abnormal cell, precancerous, or cancerous cells

135
Q

What are normal PAP smear results?

A

Negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy. Note: Other organisms such as Candida,Trichomonas, Actinomyces, Herpes, bacterial vaginosis may be reported with this finding.

136
Q

What are abnormal PAP smear results?

A

Epithelial cell abnormalities (squamous cells including atypical squamous cells; glandular cells), other malignant neoplasms

137
Q

PE findings associated with hernias in women.

A

Direct - through fascia of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal; medial to the inferior epigastric vessels Indirect - through deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels; palpate in the labia majora and upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercles. Femoral (more common in women than men) - Below the inguinal ligament. Appears more lateral than an inguinal hernia. Can be difficult to differentiate from lymph nodes.

138
Q

Common causes of vaginitis.

A

Trichomonia; Candida; Bacteria; Gonococcal

139
Q

Characteristics of Trichomonal vaginitis.

A

Yellowish green or gray, possibly frothy discharge that often pools in the vaginal fornix and has a fishy smell (malodorous). Pruritus, pain on urination, and dysparunia. Vestibule and labia minora may be red; vaginal mucosa diffusely red; petechiae in posterior fornix

140
Q

Characteristics of Candidal vaginitis.

A

White, curdy, typically thick discharge; not malodorous; pruritus, vaginal soreness, dysuria; dyspareunia; inflamed vulva; red vaginal mucosa; mucosa may bleed when patches of discharge are removed.

141
Q

Characteristics of Bacterial vaginitis.

A

Gray or whit, thin, homogenous, malodorous discharge coating vaginal walls; not profuse, may be minimal; Vulva and mucosa have normal appearance.

142
Q

Characteristics of Gonococcal vaginitis.

A

Greenish yellow, muco-purulent discharge that adheres to vaginal walls; erythematous vulva; pus in os

143
Q

Characteristics of uterine prolapse.

A

falling or sliding of the uterus from its normal position into the vaginal area

144
Q

Common causes of uterine prolapse.

A

Weakness of the supporting structures of the pelvic floor; often associated with cystocele and rectocele.

145
Q

Characteristics of cystocele.

A

Bulge of the upper 2/3 of the anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder above it.

146
Q

Common causes of cystocele.

A

Weakened supporting tissues

147
Q

Characteristics of rectocele.

A

Herniation of the rectum into the posterior wall of the vagina

148
Q

Common causes of rectocele.

A

Weakness or defect in the endopelvic fascia

149
Q

Characteristics of nabothian cyst.

A

Translucent nodules on cervical surface; also known as retention cysts; not pathologic

150
Q

Common causes of nabothian cyst.

A

Metaplasia blocks secretion of columnar epithelium, resulting in benign nabothian cysts.

151
Q

Characteristics of cervical polyps.

A

Usually arises from endocervical canal, becoming visible when it protrudes through the os. Bright red, soft, and fragile.

152
Q

Common causes of cervical polyps.

A

Unknown

153
Q

Characteristics of cervicitis.

A

Drainage of discharge from the cervical os.

154
Q

Common causes of cervicitis.

A

STIs - Gonorrhea; chlamydia, herpes

155
Q

Characteristics of pelvic inflammatory disease.

A

Acute - very tender, bilateral adnexal masses; movement of cervix is painful. Without treatment, tubo-ovarian abscess and/or infertility may result. Non-STI related PID - Infection of the fallopian tubes or ovaries ay follow delivery of a baby or gynecologic surgery.

156
Q

Common causes of pelvic inflammatory disease.

A

STI in the fallopian tubes (salpingitis) or of tubes and ovaries (salpingo-oophoritis). Specifically Gonorrhea & chlamydia.

Physical Assessment (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions