Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the genetic blueprint of the cell?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

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2
Q

Where can DNA be found in the cell?

A

Nucleus & Mitochondria

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3
Q

A substance that has a molecular structure consisting chiefly or entirely of a large number of similar units bonded together

A

Polymer

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4
Q

What kinds of bonds do the bases share?

A

Hydrogen bonds (easy to break & put together)

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5
Q

What kind of bonds does the backbone of DNA share?

A

Covalent bonds (strong)

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6
Q

What is DNA composed of?

A

Adenine
Guanine
Thymine
Cytosine

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7
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adenine & Guanine (two rings)

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8
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A

Thymine & Cytosine (also Uracil)

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9
Q

What base pairs bond to which?

A

A-T

C-G

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10
Q

DNA strands are complementary, meaning:

A

If you see one strand, you can predict what the other strand looks like

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11
Q

What is a gene?

A

A unit of heredity

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12
Q

What is a genome?

A

The complete DNA sequence for a particular organism or individual in a cell

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13
Q

Approximately how many genes do we posses?

A

20,000 = 100,000 proteins

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14
Q

The information encoded in a gene is transcribed and then translated into a protein

A

Gene expression (Cells use 5% of blueprint)

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15
Q

What is the link between DNA and protein?

A

Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

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16
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA is TRANSCRIBED to RNA which is then TRANSLATED into PROTEINS

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17
Q

What is the cell theory?

A

All cells come from other cells

They reproduce by division

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18
Q

What is DNA replication?

A

Unzipping the double helix, then using each strand to synthesize complementary strand

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19
Q

How is DNA organized in nucleus?

A

It is wrapped around proteins called histones that then form chromatin

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20
Q

DNA-histone complex=

A

Chromatin

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21
Q

Chromatin is packaged into what?

A

46 chromosomes

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22
Q

Chromosomes exist in:

A

Pairs

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23
Q

Chromosome pairs contain the same genes

A

Homologous

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24
Q

What kind of cells are used in mitosis?

A

Somatic cells

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25
Q

What chromosome is the gene blood codes for?

A

Chromosome 9 (ABO)

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26
Q

In a cell that is not dividing (undividing) what is in the nucleus?

A

Chromatin

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27
Q

What is the first step of cell division?

A

DNA duplication

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28
Q

After DNA duplication, what is formed?

A

1 chromosome = 2 sister chromatids

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29
Q

What is the part on a chromosome where two sister chromatids are attached?

A

Centromere

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30
Q

The life cycle of a cell from cell division to cell division is known as:

A

Cell Cycle

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31
Q

DNA duplication occurs in what phase?

A

S phase

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32
Q

What happens in the G2 phase?

A

Normal cell functions in preparation for mitosis

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33
Q

The splitting of sister chromatids of the duplicated DNA & their relocation to different areas of the cell

A

Mitosis

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34
Q

What are the transport “rails” of the cell?

A

Microtubles

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35
Q

Organelles where microtubles are synthesized and organized

A

Centrosomes

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36
Q

The second centrosome is made in what phase?

A

G2 Phase

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37
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

A

DNA condensed into chromosomes
Nuclear membrane disintegrates
Centrosome copies move to the “poles” & synthesize microtubles
Chromosomes begin to line up along equatorial plane of cell

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38
Q

What happens in transisition to metaphase (Prometaphase)?

A

Spindle forms

Spindle microtubles become attached to the sister chromatids of each chromosome (kinetochore)

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39
Q

What happens in metaphase?

A

Nuclear membrane has completely disintegrated
Microtubles attach to sister chromatids of each chromosome
Microtubles have formed mitotic spindle (cage like structure)
Chromosomes line up at the spindle midline or equator (metaphase plate)

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40
Q

What happens in anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids are pulled apart by the mitotic spindle (motor proteins & degradative enzymes)
Once separated, each former sister chromatid is referred to as a daughter chromosome
Cell elongates***

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41
Q

What happens in telophase?

A

Chromosomes de-condense
Nuclear membrane reforms
Microtubules begin to disintgrate
Two sets of protein filaments form at equatorial plane

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42
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Protein microfilaments form contractive rings

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43
Q

What are filaments and microtubules main functions?

A

Filaments mediate cytokinesis

Microtubles mediate mitosis

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44
Q

How do plant cells differ?

A

Instead of cytokinesis they do a cell plate formation

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45
Q

Mitotic cell division=

A

Mitosis

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46
Q

Sexually reproducing organisms. Chromosomes always come in homologous pairs, one set inherited from their mother, one set from their father

A

Diploid (2N)

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47
Q

Asexually reproducing organisms. Only one set of chromosomes inherited from the parent

A

Haploid (N)

48
Q

Sperm & egg cells are haploid until…

A

Formed together to form a zygote (diploid)

49
Q

How many cell divisions are in Meiosis?

A

2

50
Q

Where does Mitosis and Meiosis show a physical difference?

A

Metaphase

51
Q

What can take place in Prophase I of Meiosis?

A

Crossover (increasing genetic diversity)

52
Q

What does the two homologous pairs form when paired right next to each other?

A

Tetrad

53
Q

The random alignment that takes place on the metaphase plate in Metaphase I during Meiosis is called:

A

Independent assortment

54
Q

After completion of Meiosis I/cytokinesis, each human cell going through the process contains:

A

23 chromosomes/46 sister chromatids

55
Q

After completion of s-phase in Meiosis, how many sister chromatids are found in a human germ cell?

A

92 sister chromatids

56
Q

With identical twins, 1 egg is fertilized with:

A

1 sperm, zygote divides into more than 1 embryo

57
Q

With fraternal twins, 2 eggs are fertilized with:

A

1 sperm, two unique zygotes

58
Q

Semi-identical twins:

A

1 egg, two sperm

Identical on mother’s side, but share only half of father’s DNA

59
Q

Monosomic & trisomic can occur from:

A

Nondisjunction

60
Q

Monosomic:

A

n-1

61
Q

Trisomic:

A

n+1

62
Q

Hermaphroditic reproduction is considered:

A

Sexual reproduction

63
Q

The difference between genotype and phenotype is:

A

Genotype is the genetic make-up of the organism while phenotype can be a physiological feature of the organism

64
Q

Organis A has the allelic make up “AA” while B is “aa”. The progeny of these two organisms are Aa. Based on this information I can say the following:

A

Organisms A & B are homozygous while the progeny are heterzygous

65
Q

Blended theory vs. Particulate theory.

A

Blended- determinants lose individuality, can’t be separated

Particulate- determinants remain intact, can be separated

66
Q

What is Mendel’s Law of Segregation?

A

Two copies of a gene segregate such that each gamete receives only 1 copy of the gene

67
Q

What is Mendel’s Law of independent assortment?

A

Copies of different genes assort independently of one another

68
Q

Who composed a coupling between alleles?

A

Bateson

69
Q

Two genes are closely associated on the same chromosome and do NOT assort independently.

A

Genetic linkage (Thomas Hunt Morgan)

70
Q

Snapdragon example where neither the red or white alleles are dominant is an example of:

A

Incomplete dominance

NOT an example of “trait blending”

71
Q

Blood type shows what type of dominance (A&B Type)

A

Codominance

72
Q

Single gene, multiple phenotypic effects:

A

Pleiotropy (white cat, blue eyes= deaf/ pigment is linked to hearing)

73
Q

Gene interactions affect phenotype:

A

Epistasis (Multiple different looking horse siblings)

74
Q

Genotype proportion that shows phenotype:

A

Penetrance (Breast cancer)

75
Q

Continuous variation, blending characters:

A

Multifactorial traits

76
Q

When does nondisjunction happen in Meiosis?

A

Anaphase I or II

77
Q

A transfer RNA (tRNA) contains a(n):

A

Anticodon

78
Q

One way to generate different versions of mRNA is by:

A

Alternative splicing

79
Q

An individual having 44 autosomes and one X-chromosome would be classified as:

A

Aneuplidy & have turner syndrome

80
Q

Why can transfer RNA (tRNA) be referred to as a “bridging” molecule?

A

It binds to both amino acids and mRNA

81
Q

Individual that carry a non-functional allele or potentially harmful allele without suffering consequences are:

A

Carriers

82
Q

He injected mice with serial killer bacteria and nice bacteria

A

Frederick Griffith

83
Q

He dissected the serial killer bacteria

A

James Lionel Alloway

84
Q

This experiment demonstrated that DNA is where genetic information is stored.

A

Avery-Macleod-McCarty Experiment

85
Q

What found out that DNA was a polymer of nucleotides?

A

Chargaff’s Experiment

86
Q

Who discovered the double helix?

A
Francis CRICK
James WATSON
Maurice WILKINS
Rosalind FRANKLIN
1953
87
Q

What is a telomere?

A

Located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes
Maintains the integrity of chromosome
Have a special nucleotide sequences: TTAGGG and is repeated 100-1,000 times

88
Q

Change in sequence without changing in length.

A

Point mutation

89
Q

Large scale mutations are referred to as, and what do they consist of?

A
Chromosomal mutations 
Insertion
Deletion
Inversion
Translocation
90
Q

What is the difference between a translocation mutation and chromosomal crossover?

A

Crossover happens with homologous chromosomes

91
Q

The removal of introns and connecting exons is called:

A

Splicing

92
Q

What carries out the unwinding of the DNA and synthesis of messenger RNA (mRNA)?

A

RNA polymerase

93
Q

What are polypeptide chains synthesized by?

A

Ribosomes

94
Q

How many different amino acids are there?

A

20

95
Q

Multiple ribosomes on a single mRNA

A

Polysome

96
Q

What is tRNA made up of?

A

RNA

97
Q

How many nucleotides does it take to code for an amino acid?

A

3 nucleotides= 1 amino acid

98
Q

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA is known as a:

A

Codon

99
Q

This is the complete set of codon-amino acid mappings

A

The genetic code (20 amino acids=64 possible codons)

100
Q

What is usually the start codon?

A

AUG=met

101
Q

What are the stop condons?

A

UGA, UAA, UAG

102
Q

The information encoded in mRNA is used to synthesize proteins

A

Translation

103
Q

What are the translators of the genetic code?

A

tRNA

104
Q

What are ribsomes made up of?

A

Proteins & ribosomal RNA

105
Q

Where are ribosomes synthesized?

A

Nucleolis

106
Q

What consists in the regulatory sequences of transcriptional regulation?

A

Non-coding DNA segments

  • Promoters
  • Enhancer
  • Silencer
107
Q

What consists in the transcription factors of transcriptional regulation?

A

Proteins

Activators & repressors

108
Q

Facilitate the binding of the RNA polymerase enzyme to the start position of the gene

A

Promoter

109
Q

RNA polymerase needs to be activeated by a transcription factor called, some bind to the regulatory region of DNA near promoter, some bind to enhancer region

A

Activator

110
Q

Inhibits the activation of transcription , prevent activators from binding to DNA, some interfere with molecular interaction with activator and RNA polymerase

A

Repressor

111
Q

Region of DNA upstream of the gene itself, before the “START” codon

A

Operator

112
Q

Region of DNA that increases the rate of RNA transcription

A

Enhancer

113
Q

Region of DNA tha slows down RNA transcription

A

Silencer

114
Q

Through the way a gene is spliced it can:

A

Make up multiple proteins

115
Q

Able to turn of genes off by inactivating mRNAs (attack dog)

A

MicroRNA