Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is a correct description of Ras?

A

G-protein that causes over expression of proteins when mutated

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2
Q

Which of the following are ways to create oncogenes from proto-oncogenes?

A

I) genes transported to new location with new promotor

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3
Q

When tumor suppressor genes suffer mutation the breaks are put on for transcription.

A

FALSE

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4
Q

What kind of enzyme is a tumor suppressor gene?

A

Activator

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5
Q

In order for a tumor to qualify as malignant…

A

) both oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes have to be present

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6
Q

Missense mutation in a proto-oncogene would be likely to create an oncogene.

A

TRUE

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7
Q

not all free living cells have genetic information that is double stranded.

A

FALSE

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8
Q

If a virus has a protein coat also mixed with phospholipids, it’s because of what?

A

It stole phospholipids from a cell

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9
Q

How does an influenza virus enter a cell?

A

It’s glycoprotein’s match the glycoprotein’s of the cell

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10
Q

Which of the following things does an influenza virus do to a cell that it hijacks?

A

I) It’s RNA acts as a template for transcription

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11
Q

Why is it so hard for scientists to fight the HIV virus?

A

newly created HIV DNA holds off at transcribing RNA

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12
Q

IV)it inserts DNA into the nucleus

A

A)I, III, IV

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13
Q

C)mutation of previously existing viruses

A

All of the above!

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14
Q

Prion’s are formed from eatin

A

BRAINS

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15
Q

In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and _____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.

A

3’ OH

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16
Q

DNA Complimentary Strands

A

Adenine to Thymine and Cytosene to Guanine

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17
Q

After DNA replication is completed, _____.

A

each new DNA double helix consists of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand

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18
Q

The first step in the replication of DNA is catalyzed by _____.

A

Helicase

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19
Q

The action of helicase creates _____.

A

Replication forks and bubbles (think of ariel: the dinglehopper and the bubbles in the water!)

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20
Q

Why is the new DNA strand complementary to the 3’ to 5’ strands assembled in short segments?

A

DNA polymerase can assemble DNA only in the 5’ to 3’ direction

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21
Q

The synthesis of a new strand begins with the synthesis of a(n) _____.

A

RNA primer complementary to a preexisting DNA strand

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22
Q

An old DNA strand is used as a _____ for the assembly of a new DNA strand.

A

template

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23
Q

Short segments of newly synthesized DNA are joined into a continuous strand by _____.

A

ligase

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24
Q

Which of the following statements about DNA synthesis is true?

A

Primers are short sequences that allow the initiation of DNA synthesis.

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25
Q

Which part of a deoxynucleoside triphosphate (dNTP) molecule provides the energy for DNA synthesis?

A

Phosphate groups

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26
Q

Which of the following enzymes creates a primer for DNA polymerase?

A

Primase

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27
Q

Which of the following statements about Okazaki fragments in E. coli is true?

A

They are formed on the lagging strand of DNA.

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28
Q

Which of the following enzymes is important for relieving the tension in a helix as it unwinds during DNA synthesis?

A

Topoisomerase

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29
Q

What is meant by the description “antiparallel” regarding the strands that make up DNA?

A

The 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand.

30
Q

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?

A

DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

31
Q

In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?

A

No replication fork will be formed

32
Q

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5’ to 3’ direction because _____.

A

DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end

33
Q

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?

A

single-strand DNA binding proteins

34
Q

Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates one hundred times higher than normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these results?

A

The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly.

35
Q

Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?

A

Histones are positively charged

36
Q

A biochemist isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. What has she probably left out of the mixture?

A

DNA ligase

37
Q

The enzyme that synthesizes DNA is:

A

DNA Polymerase

38
Q

During DNA synthesis, primase:

A

creates short segments of RNA that are complementary to the DNA template

39
Q

remaining bases. What property of DNA makes these predictions possible?

A

complimentary base pairing

40
Q

The enzyme that opens the two strands of DNA at the replication fork is:

A

Helicase

41
Q

Primase is…

A

a RNA polymerase

42
Q

DNA ligase is expected be most active on:

A

the lagging strand

43
Q

. If histones were removed from a eukaryotic cell, what can reasonably be predicted?

A

DNA would not be coiled around nucleosomes

44
Q

The redundant (degenerate) nature of the genetic code comes from the fact that:

A

There are more codons than amino acids

45
Q

splicing is catalyzed by a …

A

ribozyme

46
Q

If a cell lost one of its aminoacyl tRNA synthetases, which of the following would immediately be affected?

A

protein synthesis

47
Q

amino acid held by a tRNA in the _______ site of the ribosome.

A

P;A

48
Q

that person’s skin cells, you would find:

A

the exact same control elements present in nerve and skin cells

49
Q

Enhancers are:

A

control elements in DNA

50
Q

Alternative splicing allows for the:

A

existence of many more different polypeptides than genes

51
Q

provides evidence for:

A

the conservation of master regulators of development

52
Q

Which of the following is a mutation that could create an oncogene?

A

a mutation that leads to the overproduction of a proto-oncogene protein

53
Q

The function of a tumor supressor gene is

A

. regulate cell division so that cells divide only when conditions are right

54
Q

Gene families arise when:

A

a gene is duplicated and then each copy gradually accumulates different mutations

55
Q

Which of the following statements about the human genome is true?

A

is used more often on the lagging strand

56
Q

attached amino acid. This cell most likely has a defect in:

A

one of its aminoacyl tRNA synthetases

57
Q

A gram-negative bacterium has:

A

an extra membrane outside the cell wall.

58
Q

Which of the following statements about the Archaea is TRUE?

A

Based on molecular evidence, the Archaea are more closely related to the Eukaryotes than to the

59
Q

case because

A

the ancestor to Euglena phagocytosed another photosynthetic eukaryotic organism.

60
Q

Which of the following processes within viral replication is the greatest source of genetic variation in RNA virus populations?

A

High mutation rate due to lack of proofreading of RNA genome replication errors.

61
Q

How do Prions effect other viruses

A

Unlike viruses, prions are infectious proteins.

62
Q

Representation of gene density

A

Humans have ~20,000 protein-encoding genes in 2900 Mb.

63
Q

What type of noncoding DNA comprises the largest portion of multicellular eukaryotic genomes?

A

transposers

64
Q

How do retrotransposons differ from other transposons?

A

Retrotransposons move via an RNA transcript, whereas other transposons do not.

65
Q

Because they both produce a reverse transcriptase, long interspersed nuclear elements (LINEs) as transposable elements may be related to _____.

A

retroviruses

66
Q

Exon shuffling occurs during _____.

A

meiotic recombination

67
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of these events in the origin of life?

A

synthesis of organic monomers, synthesis of organic polymers, formation of protobionts, formation of DNA-based genetic systems

68
Q

Which free-living cells were the earliest contributors to the formation of Earth’s oxidizing atmosphere?

A

cyanobacteria

69
Q

Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?

A

gram positive bacteria

70
Q

Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?

A

capsules and fimbriae

71
Q

Protists are alike in that all are

A

eukaryotic

72
Q
  1. modification of protein
A

3,2,1,4