Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with concerns of increasing irritability, poor feeding, and a rapid increase in head circumference. On physical examination, the nurse observes bulging fontanelles, dilated scalp veins, and a setting-sun sign (downward deviation of the eyes). A diagnosis of hydrocephalus is made, and the infant is scheduled for a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement.
What clinical manifestations are hallmark signs of hydrocephalus in this infant?
Select all that apply (SATA):

  1. Bulging fontanelles
  2. Dilated scalp veins
  3. Setting-sun sign
  4. Clubfoot
  5. Hypoglycemia
A
  1. Bulging fontanelles
  2. Dilated scalp veins
  3. Setting-sun sign

Option 1: Bulging fontanelles are a hallmark sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants due to hydrocephalus.
* Option 2: Dilated scalp veins occur as a result of increased ICP and impaired cerebrospinal fluid drainage.
* Option 3: The setting-sun sign is a classic sign of hydrocephalus, where the eyes deviate downward, exposing the sclera above the iris.
* Option 4: Clubfoot is unrelated to hydrocephalus.
* Option 5: Hypoglycemia is not a characteristic finding in hydrocephalus.

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2
Q

A child has undergone ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement for hydrocephalus. The nurse is monitoring the child in the post-operative period. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?

A. Abdominal distention
B. Mild headache
C. Decreased appetite
D. Restlessness during sleep

A

A. Abdominal distention

Rationale: VP shunts drain excess cerebrospinal fluid into the peritoneal cavity. Abdominal distention may indicate complications such as peritonitis or malfunction of the shunt, requiring immediate intervention.

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3
Q

A 3-year-old child is admitted for observation following VP shunt placement for hydrocephalus. The nurse notes the following findings during the night shift: elevated temperature of 101.5°F (38.6°C), irritability, redness along the surgical site, and a poor response to pain relief measures.
What is the priority action by the nurse?

A. Administer prescribed antipyretics and monitor temperature
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Document the findings and recheck in 1 hour
D. Encourage the parents to comfort the child

A

B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Rationale: The symptoms of fever, irritability, redness at the surgical site, and poor pain control may indicate shunt infection or malfunction, which are serious complications requiring immediate medical evaluation.

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4
Q

A newborn is diagnosed with a myelomeningocele at the lumbosacral region. Which complication is the infant at greatest risk for prior to surgery?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Meningitis

A

D. Meningitis

Meningitis is a significant risk in infants with a myelomeningocele due to the exposed spinal cord and meninges, which leave the central nervous system vulnerable to infection.

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5
Q

The nurse is caring for an infant with a myelomeningocele awaiting surgery. What are priority nursing interventions during this time?
Select all that apply:

  1. Position the infant in a prone position.
  2. Cover the defect with a sterile, moist, non-adherent dressing.
  3. Monitor the infant for signs of infection.
  4. Begin active range-of-motion exercises for the lower extremities.
  5. Perform regular diaper changes to prevent soiling the defect.
A
  1. Position the infant in a prone position.
  2. Cover the defect with a sterile, moist, non-adherent dressing.
  3. Monitor the infant for signs of infection.
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6
Q

A 4-day-old infant underwent surgery for myelomeningocele repair. The nurse is conducting a post-operative assessment. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

A. Temperature of 98.6°F (37°C)
B. Bulging anterior fontanelle
C. Slight redness at the surgical site
D. Sleeping 2-3 hours between feedings

A

B. Bulging anterior fontanelle

Rationale: A bulging anterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which may indicate hydrocephalus—a common complication after myelomeningocele repair.

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7
Q

When describing a myelomeningocele defect to the parents of an affected newborn, how should the nurse explain it?

A. “It is a herniation of the spinal cord, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid through an opening in the vertebral column.”

B. “It is a complete closure of the spinal cord but with abnormal neural tissue development.”

C. “It is an isolated defect of the vertebrae that does not involve the spinal cord.”

D. “It is a failure of the brain and skull to develop properly.”

A

A. “It is a herniation of the spinal cord, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid through an opening in the vertebral column.”

Rationale: A myelomeningocele is characterized by the protrusion of the spinal cord, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid through a vertebral defect, making it the most severe form of spina bifida.

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8
Q

Which priority nursing goal should be included in the care plan for an infant with myelomeningocele after surgical repair?

A. Promoting normal motor development
B. Preventing infection at the surgical site
C. Encouraging early ambulation
D. Managing electrolyte imbalances

A

B. Preventing infection at the surgical site

Rationale: Post-operative infection prevention is a top priority due to the infant’s increased risk for complications such as meningitis or wound infection after myelomeningocele repair.

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9
Q

A 3-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with projectile vomiting after feedings and poor weight gain. On assessment, the nurse notes visible peristaltic waves in the upper abdomen and a palpable olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. Based on these findings, which diagnosis does the nurse anticipate?

A. Intussusception
B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Hirschsprung disease

A

C. Pyloric stenosis

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis is characterized by projectile vomiting, visible peristalsis, and a palpable olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant, caused by the hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle, obstructing gastric emptying.

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10
Q

The nurse is assessing an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which findings would the nurse expect to document?
Select all that apply:

  1. Projectile vomiting after feedings
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Dehydration signs, such as sunken fontanelles
  4. Ribbon-like stools
  5. Olive-shaped mass in the abdomen
A
  1. Projectile vomiting after feedings
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Dehydration signs, such as sunken fontanelles
  4. Olive-shaped mass in the abdomen

Rationale:
* Option 1: Projectile vomiting is a hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis due to obstruction at the pylorus.
* Option 2: Excessive vomiting leads to loss of stomach acid, resulting in metabolic alkalosis.
* Option 3: Dehydration occurs due to fluid loss from vomiting. Signs include sunken fontanelles and dry mucous membranes.
* Option 4: Ribbon-like stools are associated with Hirschsprung disease, not pyloric stenosis.
* Option 5: An olive-shaped mass in the abdomen is a classic finding, representing the hypertrophied pylorus.

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11
Q

A 5-week-old infant with pyloric stenosis is admitted with a history of excessive vomiting. The nurse understands that the infant is at risk for which of the following complications?

A. Hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia and respiratory acidosis
C. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
D. Hypernatremia and metabolic alkalosis

A

C. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

Rationale: Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis results in the loss of gastric acid (hydrogen and chloride ions), leading to metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, potassium is lost in vomiting and through compensatory renal mechanisms, causing hypokalemia.

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12
Q

The nurse is assessing a 7-year-old child with a head injury. Which finding indicates an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A. Bradycardia
B. Vomiting without nausea
C. Fixed and dilated pupils
D. Cushing’s triad

A

B. Vomiting without nausea

Rationale: Vomiting without nausea is an early sign of increased ICP, often caused by pressure on the medulla. Other early signs include headache, irritability, and slight changes in behavior or level of consciousness. Bradycardia, fixed and dilated pupils, and Cushing’s triad are late signs.

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13
Q

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected increased intracranial pressure. Which findings would indicate late signs of increased ICP?
Select all that apply:

  1. Decerebrate posturing
  2. Fixed and dilated pupils
  3. Decreased level of consciousness
  4. Seizures
  5. Bradycardia
A
  1. Decerebrate posturing
  2. Fixed and dilated pupils
  3. Bradycardia

Rationale:
* Option 1: Decerebrate posturing occurs with severe brain injury and is a late sign of increased ICP.
* Option 2: Fixed and dilated pupils indicate brainstem compression and are a late, ominous sign.
* Option 3: Decreased level of consciousness can occur early or late, depending on severity.
* Option 4: Seizures can be an early or late sign but are not definitive of late ICP.
* Option 5: Bradycardia, part of Cushing’s triad, is a late sign indicating impending herniation.

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14
Q

A 10-year-old child is admitted after a fall from a tree. The nurse notes the following: lethargy, irritability, intermittent headache, and vomiting. Four hours later, the child becomes bradycardic, with irregular respirations and widening pulse pressure.
What priority intervention should the nurse take?

A. Administer prescribed antipyretics
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Perform a neurological assessment every hour

A

C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Rationale: The progression to bradycardia, irregular respirations, and widening pulse pressure indicates Cushing’s triad, a late and life-threatening sign of increased ICP. Immediate action is necessary to prevent further deterioration or herniation.

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15
Q

The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a child with suspected increased ICP. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect in the early stages?

A. Irritability and restlessness
B. Positive Babinski reflex
C. Posturing of the extremities
D. Coma

A

A. Irritability and restlessness

Rationale: Irritability and restlessness are early signs of increased ICP due to pressure on brain structures. These symptoms may precede more severe changes like posturing or coma, which occur in later stages.

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16
Q

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child with dehydration about rehydration methods. Which instructions should the nurse include?
Select all that apply:

A. Use oral rehydration solutions for mild dehydration.
B. Avoid giving juices or sports drinks for rehydration.
C. Administer small, frequent amounts of fluid if the child is vomiting.
D. Continue breastfeeding or formula feeding as tolerated.
E. Restrict fluids until the child’s symptoms subside.

A

A. Use oral rehydration solutions for mild dehydration.
B. Avoid giving juices or sports drinks for rehydration.
C. Administer small, frequent amounts of fluid if the child is vomiting.
D. Continue breastfeeding or formula feeding as tolerated.

Rationale:
* A. Oral rehydration solutions are recommended for mild dehydration as they replace lost fluids and electrolytes.
* B. Juices and sports drinks are avoided due to their high sugar content, which can worsen diarrhea.
* C. Small, frequent sips help prevent vomiting while still promoting hydration.
* D. Breastfeeding or formula feeding should continue as they provide fluids and nutrients.
* E. Fluid restriction is contraindicated, as adequate hydration is critical for recovery.

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17
Q

A 3-year-old child is admitted with moderate dehydration. The healthcare provider prescribes oral rehydration therapy (ORT). Which of the following fluids should the nurse offer to the child?

A. Plain water
B. Commercial electrolyte solution
C. Carbonated soda
D. Whole milk

A

B. Commercial electrolyte solution

Rationale: Commercial electrolyte solutions, such as oral rehydration salts (ORS), are the treatment of choice for moderate dehydration. They provide the necessary balance of electrolytes and fluids to restore hydration. Plain water and whole milk lack adequate electrolytes, and carbonated soda is not recommended due to high sugar content and lack of electrolytes.

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18
Q

The nurse is caring for a child with severe dehydration secondary to gastroenteritis. Which intervention is the priority?

A. Begin oral rehydration therapy with small sips every 5 minutes
B. Provide the child with clear fluids and monitor for tolerance
C. Offer the child glucose-containing fluids to prevent hypoglycemia
D. Administer an IV bolus of isotonic fluid

A

D. Administer an IV bolus of isotonic fluid

Rationale: For severe dehydration, IV rehydration with isotonic fluids such as normal saline or lactated Ringer’s is the priority to rapidly restore circulating volume and prevent hypovolemic shock. Oral rehydration is suitable for mild to moderate dehydration but not severe cases.

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19
Q

A nurse is assessing a newborn male with a congenital abnormality of the urethral opening. The nurse notes the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis. What is this condition called?

A. Hypospadias
B. Epispadias
C. Phimosis
D. Cryptorchidism

A

A. Hypospadias

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis, rather than at the tip. Epispadias, in contrast, is the abnormal placement of the urethral opening on the top of the penis. Phimosis and cryptorchidism are unrelated conditions.

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20
Q

A nurse is educating the parents of a newborn diagnosed with epispadias. Which statement by the nurse is correct regarding this condition?

A. Epispadias occurs when the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis.

B. Epispadias is always associated with other congenital anomalies, such as bladder exstrophy.

C. Epispadias is typically treated with antibiotics to prevent infection.

D. Epispadias can be corrected with circumcision.

A

B. Epispadias is always associated with other congenital anomalies, such as bladder exstrophy.

Epispadias involves the urethral opening being located on the top of the penis. It is often associated with bladder exstrophy and requires surgical correction. Antibiotics and circumcision are not standard treatments for epispadias.

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21
Q

The nurse is educating the parents of a male child diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following points should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Select all that apply:

A. Hypospadias is typically identified at birth during a routine physical examination.

B. Surgical correction is often necessary and is usually performed between 6 and 12 months of age.

C. Hypospadias is caused by an infection during pregnancy.

D. Parents should avoid circumcision until after the surgical repair is performed.

E. Hypospadias can cause difficulty with urination and sexual function if left untreated.

A

A. Hypospadias is typically identified at birth during a routine physical examination.
B. Surgical correction is often necessary and is usually performed between 6 and 12 months of age.
D. Parents should avoid circumcision until after the surgical repair is performed.
E. Hypospadias can cause difficulty with urination and sexual function if left untreated.

Rationale:
* A. Hypospadias is typically diagnosed at birth.
* B. Surgical correction is often performed between 6 and 12 months of age to avoid complications.
* D. Circumcision is avoided until after surgical repair to preserve the foreskin for reconstructive purposes.
* E. If untreated, hypospadias can lead to difficulties with urination and sexual function.
* C. Hypospadias is not caused by an infection but by abnormal development during fetal growth.

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22
Q

A healthcare provider is explaining the potential complications of untreated hypospadias to the parents of a male child. Which of the following complications should the nurse emphasize?

A. Urinary tract infections (UTIs)
B. Renal failure
C. Testicular torsion
D. Hydrocele formation

A

A. Urinary tract infections (UTIs)

Rationale: Untreated hypospadias can cause urinary flow abnormalities, leading to an increased risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Renal failure, testicular torsion, and hydrocele formation are not direct complications of untreated hypospadias.

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23
Q

A 10-year-old child presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and fever. Upon physical examination, the nurse palpates the lower right abdomen and the child reports pain upon release of pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gallbladder disease

B. Acute appendicitis

C. Mesenteric adenitis

D. Irritable bowel syndrome

A

B. Acute appendicitis

Rationale: Pain in the lower right abdomen and tenderness with rebound pain (positive rebound tenderness) are classic signs of acute appendicitis. The location and characteristics of the pain are key indicators in diagnosing appendicitis.

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24
Q

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected appendicitis. The child reports pain starting around the umbilicus and then moving to the right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the pain pattern?

A. Early stage of acute appendicitis

B. Abdominal hernia

C. Acute gastroenteritis

D. Urinary tract infection

A

A. Early stage of acute appendicitis

Rationale: In the early stages of acute appendicitis, pain typically begins around the umbilicus and then localizes to the right lower quadrant as the appendix becomes inflamed and irritates the peritoneum.

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25
Q

The nurse is educating the parents of a child diagnosed with acute appendicitis. Which of the following complications should the nurse include in the discussion?
Select all that apply:

A. Perforation of the appendix leading to peritonitis

B. Formation of an abscess near the appendix

C. Chronic appendicitis if not treated promptly

D. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

E. Sepsis due to widespread infection

A

A. Perforation of the appendix leading to peritonitis
B. Formation of an abscess near the appendix
E. Sepsis due to widespread infection

Rationale:

  • A. Perforation of the appendix is a severe complication that can lead to peritonitis and widespread infection.
  • B. An abscess may form near the appendix as a result of inflammation and infection.
  • E. Sepsis can occur if the infection from a perforated appendix spreads throughout the body.
  • C. Chronic appendicitis is rare and typically does not occur if appendicitis is treated promptly.
  • D. While dehydration may occur with vomiting and fever, it is not a primary complication of appendicitis itself.
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26
Q

A 15-year-old child presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe right lower quadrant pain, fever, and nausea. The nurse notices that the child is lying with their knees drawn up to their chest and is reluctant to move. What does this positioning suggest?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Peritonitis secondary to ruptured appendix

C. Acute cholecystitis

D. Kidney stones

A

B. Peritonitis secondary to ruptured appendix

Rationale: The child’s positioning with knees drawn up and reluctance to move is indicative of peritonitis, often due to a ruptured appendix. This behavior is a common sign of severe abdominal pain and the body’s attempt to minimize irritation of the peritoneum.

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27
Q

The nurse is assessing a child who presents with symptoms of acute appendicitis. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate a complication related to appendicitis?

A. The child’s pain decreases after 24 hours

B. The child reports the pain has shifted to the left lower quadrant

C. The child develops sudden severe abdominal pain with a fever

D. The child has a mild elevation in white blood cell count

A

C. The child develops sudden severe abdominal pain with a fever

Rationale: Sudden severe abdominal pain combined with fever can indicate that the appendix has ruptured, leading to peritonitis or sepsis. This is a serious complication of appendicitis. A decrease in pain, a shift of pain, or mild fever are not typically associated with complications.

28
Q

A 6-year-old child presents with edema, hypertension, and dark urine. The child’s parents report that the child had a recent upper respiratory infection. Which condition is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

B. Nephrotic syndrome

C. Urinary tract infection

D. Chronic kidney disease

A

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis often follows an upper respiratory infection, presenting with signs such as edema, hypertension, and dark urine (due to hematuria). This condition is caused by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys.

29
Q

Which of the following are common signs and symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis?
Select all that apply:

A. Edema, particularly in the face and periorbital area
B. Increased urination
C. Hypertension
D. Hematuria (dark or tea-colored urine)
E. Proteinuria

A

A. Edema, particularly in the face and periorbital area
C. Hypertension
D. Hematuria (dark or tea-colored urine)

Rationale:
* A. Periorbital and facial edema are common signs of glomerulonephritis due to fluid retention.
* C. Hypertension occurs because of fluid retention and kidney dysfunction.
* D. Hematuria results from inflammation of the glomeruli and is seen as dark or tea-colored urine.
* E. Proteinuria is often present in glomerulonephritis due to damage to the glomerular filtration barrier.
* B. Decreased urination, not increased, is more commonly seen in glomerulonephritis due to fluid retention and impaired kidney function.

30
Q

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which of the following laboratory findings is most commonly associated with this condition?

A. Elevated serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

B. Low white blood cell count

C. Decreased serum albumin

D. Low potassium levels

A

A. Elevated serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Rationale: In glomerulonephritis, the kidneys’ ability to filter waste is impaired, leading to elevated serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. These are indicators of kidney dysfunction. Low white blood cell count and low potassium levels are not typically associated with glomerulonephritis. Decreased serum albumin is more characteristic of nephrotic syndrome.

31
Q

A nurse is assessing a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following is the most likely clinical manifestation of this condition?

A. Facial edema, particularly around the eyes
B. Jaundice and hepatomegaly
C. Hyperpigmentation of the skin
D. Petechiae and purpura

A

A. Facial edema, particularly around the eyes

Rationale: Facial edema, especially around the eyes (periorbital edema), is a hallmark sign of nephrotic syndrome. This occurs due to the loss of protein in the urine, leading to fluid retention. Jaundice, hyperpigmentation, and petechiae are not typical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.

32
Q

The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following lab findings would the nurse expect to see in this condition?

A. Elevated serum albumin levels

B. Decreased serum protein levels

C. Decreased serum cholesterol levels

D. Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels

A

B. Decreased serum protein levels

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by the loss of large amounts of protein in the urine, leading to decreased serum protein levels, including albumin. This contributes to edema and fluid retention. Elevated cholesterol levels and BUN levels may also be seen, not decreased levels.

33
Q

Which of the following are clinical manifestations commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome?
Select all that apply:

A. Proteinuria
B. Hematuria
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Hypertension
E. Edema

A

A. Proteinuria
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Hypertension
E. Edema

Rationale:

  • A. Proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine) is a key characteristic of nephrotic syndrome.
  • C. Hypoalbuminemia (low serum albumin) results from the loss of protein through the urine.
  • D. Hypertension can occur due to fluid retention and impaired kidney function.
  • E. Edema is common, especially in the face, legs, and abdomen, due to fluid retention.
  • B. Hematuria (blood in the urine) is not a primary feature of nephrotic syndrome but may be seen in some cases.
34
Q

A patient with nephrotic syndrome is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse understands that corticosteroids are prescribed to achieve which of the following goals?

A. To treat the underlying infection

B. To increase serum albumin levels

C. To manage fluid overload and hypertension

D. To decrease proteinuria and reduce inflammation

A

D. To decrease proteinuria and reduce inflammation

Rationale: Corticosteroids are commonly used to reduce inflammation in the kidneys, which helps decrease proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome. They do not directly treat infection, increase serum albumin levels, or manage fluid overload, though they can indirectly help manage fluid retention by reducing inflammation

35
Q

The nurse is providing discharge education to the parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize regarding the importance of managing the child’s condition?

A. Avoiding all forms of physical activity until protein levels stabilize

B. Ensuring that the child’s blood pressure remains within normal range

C. Restricting all sodium intake to prevent edema

D. Ensuring strict fluid intake to prevent dehydration

A

B. Ensuring that the child’s blood pressure remains within normal range

Rationale: Managing blood pressure is crucial in nephrotic syndrome to prevent complications such as hypertensive crisis and further kidney damage. While sodium restriction may be recommended to help manage edema, fluid intake restrictions are not typically indicated unless the child is experiencing severe edema. Avoiding physical activity is not necessary unless complications occur.

36
Q

A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and the passage of stool mixed with blood and mucus. The nurse suspects intussusception. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Gastrointestinal viral infection

B. Malrotation of the intestines

C. Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another

D. Chronic constipation and fecal impaction

A

C. Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another

Rationale: Intussusception occurs when one part of the intestine “telescopes” into an adjacent part, leading to obstruction and ischemia. This often presents with the classic symptoms of abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody, mucusy stools. Gastrointestinal viral infections and malrotation can cause similar symptoms, but they are not the underlying cause in intussusception.

37
Q

Which of the following are common clinical manifestations of intussusception in children?
Select all that apply:

A. Severe, intermittent abdominal pain

B. “Currant jelly” stools (blood and mucus)

C. Chronic diarrhea

D. Palpable abdominal mass

E. Fever

A

A. Severe, intermittent abdominal pain

B. “Currant jelly” stools (blood and mucus)

D. Palpable abdominal mass

Rationale:
* A. Severe, intermittent abdominal pain is a hallmark symptom of intussusception.
* B. “Currant jelly” stools, which consist of blood and mucus, are a classic sign of intussusception.
* D. A palpable abdominal mass, often described as a “sausage-shaped” mass, can be felt in the abdomen and is a clue to the diagnosis.

  • C. Chronic diarrhea is not typically associated with intussusception, which is more likely to present with intermittent pain and vomiting.
  • E. Fever is not a common symptom of intussusception unless there is a complication, such as peritonitis or infection.
38
Q

Which of the following is the primary concern for a patient with intussusception that requires urgent medical intervention?

A. Risk of dehydration from vomiting

B. Risk of bowel perforation and peritonitis

C. Risk of infection due to obstruction

D. Risk of electrolyte imbalance from diarrhea

A

B. Risk of bowel perforation and peritonitis

Rationale: The major concern with intussusception is the risk of bowel perforation and peritonitis due to the obstruction and ischemia caused by the telescoping of the intestines. Without timely treatment, the affected part of the bowel may become necrotic, leading to sepsis. Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and infection are concerns but are secondary to the life-threatening complications associated with perforation.

39
Q

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with intussusception. After the child undergoes a successful reduction of the intussusception, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

A. Monitor for signs of infection

B. Administer pain medication as ordered

C. Encourage oral intake as tolerated

D. Assess for signs of bowel perforation

A

D. Assess for signs of bowel perforation

Rationale: After the reduction of intussusception, one of the biggest concerns is the potential for bowel perforation. The nurse should monitor for signs of peritonitis, such as increased abdominal pain, distention, fever, or signs of shock. While pain management and oral intake are important, ensuring the bowel has not been perforated is the priority.

40
Q

Which of the following is a key indication that surgery may be necessary for a patient with intussusception?

A. The child has been successfully treated with an air enema

B. The child is unable to pass stool after reduction

C. The child’s condition does not improve after nonsurgical interventions

D. The child is under the age of 1 year

A

C. The child’s condition does not improve after nonsurgical interventions

Rationale: Surgery is often needed when nonsurgical interventions, such as air or contrast enemas, do not successfully reduce the intussusception. If the child’s symptoms persist or worsen after these interventions, surgical intervention may be required to prevent further complications, such as bowel necrosis.

41
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to ensure the safety of the patient?

A. Place a soft pillow under the patient’s head

B. Ensure the patient’s airway is clear

C. Administer the prescribed anticonvulsant medication

D. Restrain the patient’s movements to prevent injury

A

B. Ensure the patient’s airway is clear

Rationale: The first priority during a tonic-clonic seizure is ensuring the patient’s airway is open and unobstructed. This may involve positioning the patient on their side to prevent aspiration. Placing a soft pillow or cushion under the head is important but secondary to airway management. Administering medication and restraining the patient should not be done during the seizure; the priority is to prevent harm.

42
Q

Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions during a tonic-clonic seizure?
Select all that apply:

A. Place the patient on their back to prevent airway obstruction

B. Protect the patient from injury by moving surrounding objects

C. Time the seizure duration

D. Hold the patient’s limbs to prevent excessive movement

E. Offer the patient fluids after the seizure stops

A

B. Protect the patient from injury by moving surrounding objects
C. Time the seizure duration

Rationale:
* B. Protecting the patient from injury by removing surrounding objects is essential to prevent harm during the seizure.
* C. Timing the seizure duration is important for determining if medical intervention is needed (e.g., if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes).

  • A. The patient should be placed on their side, not their back, to help maintain an open airway.
  • D. Restraining the patient’s limbs is contraindicated, as it can cause injury.
  • E. Fluids should not be offered until the patient is fully conscious and able to swallow safely.
43
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action after a tonic-clonic seizure has ended and the patient is postictal?

A. Administer the prescribed anticonvulsant medication

B. Provide the patient with fluids immediately

C. Reassure the patient and allow them to rest

D. Check the patient’s blood pressure immediately

A

C. Reassure the patient and allow them to rest

Rationale: After a tonic-clonic seizure, the patient is often in a postictal state, which can include confusion, drowsiness, or agitation. The priority is to reassure the patient, ensure their safety, and allow them to rest. Fluids and medications should be given only once the patient is fully conscious and alert. Checking blood pressure may be necessary if there is concern about a potential injury, but it is not the first priority.

44
Q

A nurse is assessing a child suspected of having Wilms tumor. Which of the following is a major assessment finding for this condition?

A. Painless abdominal mass

B. Jaundice and hepatomegaly

C. High fever and chills

D. Severe vomiting and diarrhea

A

A. Painless abdominal mass

Rationale: A painless abdominal mass is the most common and significant assessment finding in Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma). This mass is typically firm and may be palpated on one side of the abdomen. Jaundice, fever, and gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea are not primary signs of Wilms tumor.

45
Q

When a nurse suspects Wilms tumor, which of the following interventions should be avoided during the physical examination of the child?

A. Palpating the abdomen to locate the mass
B. Measuring the child’s vital signs
C. Observing for signs of hypertension
D. Assessing for signs of fluid retention

A

A. Palpating the abdomen to locate the mass

Rationale: Palpating the abdomen in a patient suspected of having Wilms tumor should be avoided because it can cause the tumor to rupture or spread cancer cells. Non-invasive methods, such as imaging, should be used for diagnosis. Measuring vital signs and assessing for hypertension or fluid retention are appropriate actions since Wilms tumor may lead to hypertension and fluid imbalance.

46
Q

An infant is brought to the emergency department with signs of severe dehydration. Which of the following is a major clinical manifestation of severe dehydration in infants and toddlers?

A. Sunken eyes and fontanelle
B. Moist skin with increased elasticity
C. Hyperactive reflexes and irritability
D. Warm and flushed skin

A

A. Sunken eyes and fontanelle

Rationale: Severe dehydration in infants and toddlers often presents with sunken eyes and a sunken fontanelle, which are classic signs of fluid loss. Dry, flaky skin or loss of elasticity is also common in severe dehydration, but moist skin and hyperactive reflexes are not. Warm and flushed skin would suggest a different condition, such as fever.

47
Q

Which of the following are signs of severe dehydration in an infant or toddler?
Select all that apply:

A. Dry mouth and tongue
B. Rapid breathing and lethargy
C. Increased urine output
D. Low blood pressure and tachycardia
E. Decreased skin turgor

A

A. Dry mouth and tongue
B. Rapid breathing and lethargy
D. Low blood pressure and tachycardia

Rationale:
* A. Dry mouth and tongue are indicators of severe dehydration.
* B. Rapid breathing and lethargy are signs of severe dehydration as the body tries to conserve fluid.
* D. Low blood pressure and tachycardia are compensatory mechanisms in response to decreased fluid volume.

  • E. Decreased skin turgor is a common sign of dehydration.
  • C. Decreased, not increased, urine output is typically seen in severe dehydration due to the body conserving fluids.
48
Q

A child with cerebral palsy is admitted for assessment and care. Which of the following interventions would be most effective in meeting the child’s physical needs?

A. Providing a quiet and minimally stimulating environment

B. Encouraging frequent physical activity to improve muscle strength

C. Administering analgesics to manage pain and discomfort

D. Utilizing assistive devices to promote mobility and independence

A

D. Utilizing assistive devices to promote mobility and independence

Rationale: Children with cerebral palsy often experience motor impairments and difficulty with mobility. The use of assistive devices such as wheelchairs, braces, or walkers can promote independence and improve mobility. While a quiet environment and pain management are important, addressing mobility through assistive devices directly meets the patient’s physical needs. Encouraging frequent physical activity without guidance may lead to injury, so it should be tailored to the child’s specific abilities.

49
Q

Which of the following interventions are important in providing care for a child with cerebral palsy?
Select all that apply:

A. Administering antispasmodic medications to manage muscle spasticity

B. Providing physical therapy to improve muscle strength and coordination

C. Encouraging speech therapy to address communication difficulties

D. Promoting a high-calorie diet to prevent weight loss

E. Incorporating comfort measures, such as positioning, to reduce pain and discomfort

A

A. Administering antispasmodic medications to manage muscle spasticity
B. Providing physical therapy to improve muscle strength and coordination
C. Encouraging speech therapy to address communication difficulties
E. Incorporating comfort measures, such as positioning, to reduce pain and discomfort

Rationale:
* A. Antispasmodic medications, such as baclofen, are commonly prescribed to manage muscle spasticity in cerebral palsy.
* B. Physical therapy helps improve muscle strength, flexibility, and coordination, which is critical for mobility and overall function.
* C. Speech therapy is important for addressing communication difficulties often associated with cerebral palsy.
* E. Proper positioning and comfort measures can reduce pain, prevent contractures, and enhance quality of life.

  • D. A high-calorie diet is not generally indicated for all children with cerebral palsy unless the child is underweight or has feeding difficulties. The focus is typically on balanced nutrition and addressing specific feeding issues.
50
Q

As a pediatric ER nurse caring for a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, which of the following is the first priority intervention?

A. Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic as soon as possible

B. Initiate IV fluids to correct dehydration

C. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm diagnosis

D. Administer acetaminophen to reduce fever

A

A. Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic as soon as possible

Rationale: The priority intervention for suspected bacterial meningitis is the rapid administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics to start treatment before definitive cultures are available. Delaying antibiotic therapy can increase the risk of complications or death. While a lumbar puncture is essential for diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of antibiotics. Administering acetaminophen and IV fluids may be necessary but are secondary to starting antibiotics.

51
Q

When caring for a pediatric patient with suspected bacterial meningitis, which of the following actions are appropriate nursing interventions?
Select all that apply:

A. Place the child in isolation precautions
B. Monitor vital signs closely for signs of shock
C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
D. Prepare for a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid
E. Provide a dark, quiet environment to reduce stimuli

A

A. Place the child in isolation precautions
B. Monitor vital signs closely for signs of shock
D. Prepare for a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid
E. Provide a dark, quiet environment to reduce stimuli

Rationale:
* A. Isolation precautions are necessary because bacterial meningitis can be highly contagious, especially in the early stages.
* B. Close monitoring of vital signs, including signs of shock (hypotension, tachycardia), is critical due to the risk of sepsis and systemic complications.
* D. A lumbar puncture is essential for diagnosing bacterial meningitis, although it should not delay antibiotic administration.
* E. A dark, quiet environment helps reduce sensory stimulation and alleviates symptoms such as photophobia and irritability, which are common in meningitis.

  • C. While corticosteroids may be used in certain cases to reduce inflammation, they are not typically the first-line treatment in suspected bacterial meningitis.
52
Q

Which of the following laboratory results is most likely to be seen in a pediatric patient with bacterial meningitis?

A. Increased white blood cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid

B. Normal glucose levels in the cerebrospinal fluid

C. Increased protein levels in the cerebrospinal fluid

D. Decreased red blood cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid

A

A. Increased white blood cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid

Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid typically shows an increased white blood cell count (pleocytosis), indicating an inflammatory response to infection. Glucose levels are often decreased, not normal, and protein levels are elevated in the cerebrospinal fluid. Red blood cell counts are typically low in bacterial meningitis unless there is a traumatic lumbar puncture.

53
Q

A pediatric patient with suspected bacterial meningitis develops signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

A. Administer a sedative to calm the patient

B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees

C. Administer a corticosteroid to reduce swelling

D. Prepare for a surgical intervention

A

B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is an important intervention to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by improving venous drainage from the brain. Administering a sedative may increase ICP, and corticosteroids are not the first-line treatment for increased ICP in bacterial meningitis. Surgical intervention is typically not required unless there is a complication like a brain abscess.

54
Q

A pediatric patient presents with an itchy skin infection characterized by honey-colored crusts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tinea corporis
B. Erysipelas
C. Cellulitis
D. Impetigo

A

D. Impetigo

Rationale: Impetigo is a highly contagious staph skin infection that often presents with itchy, honey-colored crusts. It is common in children and is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Tinea corporis (ringworm) presents as a ring-like rash, erysipelas involves more pronounced redness and swelling, and cellulitis usually presents with a more diffuse, deeper skin infection without honey-colored crusts.

55
Q

A newborn is suspected of having biliary atresia. Which of the following is a common sign of this condition?

A. Yellowish skin and sclera (jaundice)

B. Presence of a red, raised rash on the trunk

C. Excessive drooling and failure to thrive

D. Excessive vomiting after feeding

A

A. Yellowish skin and sclera (jaundice)

Rationale: Jaundice, characterized by yellowing of the skin and sclera, is a hallmark sign of biliary atresia due to the obstruction of bile flow, leading to bilirubin buildup. While vomiting and failure to thrive can be associated with biliary atresia, jaundice is the most distinguishing sign. The red, raised rash and excessive drooling are not characteristic of biliary atresia.

56
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests is essential for confirming the diagnosis of biliary atresia?

A. Abdominal ultrasound

B. Liver biopsy

C. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)

D. Hepatic arteriogram

A

B. Liver biopsy

Rationale: A liver biopsy is the definitive diagnostic test for biliary atresia, as it can help identify the presence of bile duct fibrosis and liver damage caused by the obstruction. While an abdominal ultrasound and MRCP may suggest the presence of bile duct abnormalities, the biopsy provides more conclusive information about the extent of liver involvement. Hepatic arteriograms are typically not used in diagnosing biliary atresia.

57
Q

Which of the following is the most common long-term complication of untreated biliary atresia?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma

B. Cirrhosis

C. Gallstones

D. Hepatitis B

A

B. Cirrhosis

Rationale: If biliary atresia is left untreated, the obstruction of bile flow leads to liver damage and eventually cirrhosis, which is the most common long-term complication. Hepatocellular carcinoma may develop later in life but is not a primary complication in the early stages of biliary atresia. Gallstones and hepatitis B are not direct consequences of biliary atresia.

58
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who presents with unexplained injuries. Which of the following parental behaviors would increase the nurse’s suspicion of child abuse?

A. The parent reports a vague or inconsistent explanation for the child’s injury

B. The parent is visibly upset but cooperative with the examination

C. The parent frequently praises the child’s behavior during the assessment

D. The parent requests to be present during all parts of the physical examination

A

A. The parent reports a vague or inconsistent explanation for the child’s injury

Rationale: Inconsistent or vague explanations for a child’s injuries raise suspicion of child abuse. When the parent’s story changes or does not align with the injury pattern, this is a red flag. While being upset and wanting to be present during the examination could indicate concern, it does not necessarily raise suspicion of abuse. Praising the child’s behavior is generally a positive interaction and does not suggest abuse.

59
Q

Which of the following signs or behaviors observed in a parent would increase the nurse’s concern for potential child abuse?
Select all that apply:

A. The parent shows a lack of concern for the child’s injuries
B. The parent insists the child is accident-prone
C. The parent minimizes the severity of the injury
D. The parent becomes defensive or angry when questioned about the injury
E. The parent readily agrees to provide the child’s medical history

A

A. The parent shows a lack of concern for the child’s injuries
B. The parent insists the child is accident-prone
C. The parent minimizes the severity of the injury
D. The parent becomes defensive or angry when questioned about the injury

Rationale:
* A. A lack of concern for the child’s injuries may indicate a lack of empathy, which can be a red flag for abuse.
* B. Insisting the child is accident-prone may be a way to deflect suspicion, especially if the injury does not match typical accident patterns.
* C. Minimizing the severity of an injury can be a tactic used by abusive parents to downplay the seriousness of harm.
* D. A defensive or angry reaction when questioned about the injury can indicate guilt or defensiveness, which is common in abusive situations.

  • E. Agreeing to provide the child’s medical history is not a red flag by itself, as it shows cooperation and transparency.
60
Q

A nurse is assessing a child with suspicious injuries. Which of the following observations would increase the nurse’s concern for child abuse during the parent-child interaction?

A. The parent makes eye contact with the child and speaks calmly
B. The child is withdrawn and avoids looking at the parent
C. The child actively engages in conversation with the parent
D. The parent provides detailed information about the child’s behavior at home

A

B. The child is withdrawn and avoids looking at the parent

Rationale: A child who is withdrawn, avoids eye contact, or is hesitant to interact with the parent may be exhibiting signs of fear or anxiety, which could be indicative of abuse. A healthy parent-child relationship typically involves positive engagement, including eye contact and calm communication. The parent providing detailed information about the child’s behavior is not necessarily a sign of abuse unless other red flags are present.

61
Q

A newborn is diagnosed with Hirschsprung’s disease. Which of the following is the priority therapeutic management for this condition?

A. Administration of oral laxatives

B. Surgical removal of the affected bowel segment

C. Use of probiotics to enhance bowel flora

D. Conservative management with dietary changes

A

B. Surgical removal of the affected bowel segment

Rationale: The primary therapeutic intervention for Hirschsprung’s disease is the surgical removal of the aganglionic segment of the bowel, which is responsible for the lack of motility. This condition causes an obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the bowel, resulting in the inability to pass stool. Oral laxatives, probiotics, and dietary changes may be part of supportive care but are not curative treatments for Hirschsprung’s disease.

62
Q

In a patient with Hirschsprung’s disease, what is the main issue occurring in the colon?

A. Excessive motility due to overactive peristalsis
B. Increased water absorption causing constipation
C. Absence of ganglion cells leading to impaired peristalsis
D. Overgrowth of intestinal bacteria obstructing the bowel

A

C. Absence of ganglion cells leading to impaired peristalsis

Rationale: Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a portion of the colon, which results in impaired peristalsis (the coordinated contractions of the bowel muscles), leading to a functional obstruction. This absence prevents the normal movement of stool through the affected area of the bowel, causing constipation and potential bowel distention.

63
Q

Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated Hirschsprung’s disease?

A. Gastrointestinal bleeding due to ulceration
B. Malabsorption of nutrients
C. Chronic diarrhea from excessive motility
D. Enterocolitis resulting in sepsis

A

D. Enterocolitis resulting in sepsis

Rationale: Enterocolitis is a serious complication of Hirschsprung’s disease, occurring when bacteria proliferate in the affected bowel segment, leading to inflammation, infection, and sepsis. If left untreated, this condition can lead to severe complications. Gastrointestinal bleeding, malabsorption, and chronic diarrhea are not typical consequences of Hirschsprung’s disease.

64
Q

After surgery for Hirschsprung’s disease, which of the following would be the most important postoperative nursing assessment?

A. Monitoring for signs of dehydration due to increased bowel movement
B. Assessing for signs of infection at the surgical site
C. Encouraging early introduction of solid foods to promote healing
D. Ensuring that the child is not overly active to prevent strain on the bowel

A

B. Assessing for signs of infection at the surgical site

Rationale: Postoperative assessment following surgery for Hirschsprung’s disease should prioritize monitoring for signs of infection at the surgical site, which can be a common complication. It is important to ensure the incision site is clean, dry, and free from signs of infection (e.g., redness, swelling, drainage). Monitoring for dehydration and encouraging early feeding are also important but secondary to infection control in the immediate postoperative period.

65
Q

A patient has recently become unconscious following a traumatic event. Which of the following is the priority intervention for this patient?

A. Administering pain medication to manage discomfort

B. Ensuring an open airway and assessing breathing

C. Preparing the patient for surgery

D. Providing fluids via an intravenous line

A

B. Ensuring an open airway and assessing breathing

Rationale: The priority intervention for an unconscious patient is ensuring an open airway and assessing their breathing. If the airway is compromised, immediate action must be taken to clear the airway and ensure adequate ventilation. Administering pain medication or preparing for surgery is secondary to addressing airway and breathing issues in an unconscious patient. IV fluids may be necessary, but airway management is always the first priority.

66
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who has become unconscious. What is the most important assessment to conduct first?

A. Checking the patient’s neurological status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

B. Monitoring the patient’s vital signs for any abnormalities

C. Verifying the patient’s identification and medical history

D. Performing a complete physical assessment to check for injuries

A

A. Checking the patient’s neurological status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Rationale: Assessing the patient’s neurological status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the most important first step in the management of an unconscious patient. The GCS helps determine the severity of impairment and guides further interventions. While vital signs and injury assessments are important, a neurological assessment is critical for determining the extent of consciousness and the need for immediate action.

67
Q

A patient has recently lost consciousness due to an overdose. Which intervention should be implemented immediately to prevent further complications?

A. Administering naloxone to reverse the effects of the overdose

B. Performing chest compressions to support circulation

C. Inserting a nasogastric tube for gastric lavage

D. Monitoring the patient’s blood glucose level

A

A. Administering naloxone to reverse the effects of the overdose

Rationale: In cases of overdose, particularly opioid overdose, administering naloxone (Narcan) to reverse the effects of the drug is a priority intervention. This will quickly address respiratory depression or other life-threatening symptoms caused by the overdose. While chest compressions, gastric lavage, and glucose monitoring may be necessary in certain circumstances, reversing the overdose is the most immediate action to stabilize the patient.