Chapter 22: Allergic Reactions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of allergens in children?

A. Allergens only cause reactions when injected directly into the bloodstream

B. Allergens are only ingested and cannot be absorbed through the skin

C. Allergic reactions to foods such as nuts and seafood occur exclusively in adults

D. Common allergens in children include dust, mold, and plant pollens

A

D. Common allergens in children include dust, mold, and plant pollens

Rationale: Common allergens in children include dust, mold, and plant pollens, along with medications, animal dander, and certain foods like nuts and seafood. Allergens can enter the body via ingestion, injection, absorption, or inhalation.

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2
Q

Which of the following best defines an allergy?

A. A delayed immune response to an unknown irritant
B. A normal reaction to a substance that is harmless to most people
C. An abnormal immune reaction to an antigen referred to as an allergen
D. A localized skin irritation caused by direct contact with a chemical

A

C. An abnormal immune reaction to an antigen referred to as an allergen

Rationale: An allergy is an abnormal or altered immune reaction to an antigen, referred to as an allergen. These reactions can range from mild to life-threatening.

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3
Q

Which of the following are common allergens in children?

A. Animal dander
B. Penicillin
C. Mold
D. Beef
E. Egg white

A

A. Animal dander
B. Penicillin
C. Mold
E. Egg white

Rationale: Common allergens in children include animal dander, penicillin (a medication), mold, and certain foods such as egg whites. Beef is not commonly listed as an allergen.

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4
Q

Which type of allergic reaction is most likely to be life-threatening?

A. Contact dermatitis
B. Serum sickness
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Atopic disease

A

C. Anaphylaxis

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical intervention.

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5
Q

Which of the following best explains why some children develop allergies while others in the same family do not?

A. Allergies occur only in children who are exposed to allergens at birth
B. Genetic predisposition and environmental factors play a role in allergy development
C. Children who develop allergies lack normal immune system functioning
D. Siblings of allergic children are always at equal risk for the same allergens

A

B. Genetic predisposition and environmental factors play a role in allergy development

Rationale: Allergies may develop due to a combination of genetic predisposition and environmental factors, which explains why some children in a family are affected while others are not.

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6
Q

Which statement about allergic reactions is correct?

A. Allergic reactions result from antigen-antibody interactions
B. Allergic reactions only affect the skin
C. Allergic reactions occur exclusively due to ingested substances
D. Allergic reactions in children do not lead to systemic symptoms

A

A. Allergic reactions result from antigen-antibody interactions

Rationale: Allergic reactions result from antigen-antibody interactions and can manifest as localized or systemic symptoms, depending on the severity of the response.

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7
Q

Which routes can allergens use to enter the body? (SATA)

A. Injection
B. Absorption through intact skin
C. Inhalation
D. Intracellular osmosis
E. Ingestion

A

A. Injection
B. Absorption through intact skin
C. Inhalation
E. Ingestion

Rationale: Allergens can enter the body via injection, absorption through intact skin, inhalation, and ingestion. Intracellular osmosis is not a route for allergens to enter the body.

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8
Q

Which of the following best describes a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A. A reaction that occurs within seconds or minutes of exposure and may progress to anaphylaxis

B. A delayed reaction requiring 24 to 72 hours to develop

C. A reaction that peaks within 6 hours and is difficult to distinguish from Type II reactions

D. A response confined to specific tissues caused by bacterial antigens

A

A. A reaction that occurs within seconds or minutes of exposure and may progress to anaphylaxis

Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity reactions occur quickly (within seconds or minutes) and may progress to life-threatening anaphylaxis. These reactions are mediated by the release of chemical substances such as histamine.

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9
Q

Which of the following are common allergens in children? (SATA)

A. Plant pollens
B. Animal dander
C. Peanuts
D. Latex
E. Metals

A

A. Plant pollens
B. Animal dander
C. Peanuts
E. Metals

Rationale: Common allergens in children include plant pollens, animal dander, certain foods (like peanuts), and metals. Latex, while a potential allergen, is not specifically mentioned in the text as common in children.

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10
Q

What is the primary immune mechanism involved in allergic reactions?

A. Antigen-antibody interactions
B. Antigen-bacteria interactions
C. Release of cytokines by T-cells
D. Activation of clotting cascades

A

A. Antigen-antibody interactions

Rationale: Allergic reactions are primarily mediated by antigen-antibody interactions, which trigger immune responses such as histamine release and inflammation.

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11
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by a delayed response that develops over 24 to 72 hours?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

D. Type IV

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed immune responses that take several hours to appear and require 24 to 72 hours to fully develop.

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12
Q

Which treatment is commonly used for managing skin allergies?

A. Intravenous steroids
B. Avoidance of allergens and topical steroids
C. Subcutaneous allergen desensitization
D. Oral antihistamines exclusively

A

B. Avoidance of allergens and topical steroids

Rationale: Skin allergies are managed by avoiding allergens, keeping the skin well-lubricated, and using topical steroids to reduce inflammation.

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13
Q

What is the recommended setting for administering allergen desensitization therapy?

A. At home under caregiver supervision
B. During a hospitalization for allergy evaluation
C. In a school setting under a nurse’s supervision
D. In a clinic with emergency resuscitation equipment available

A

C. In a clinic with emergency resuscitation equipment available

Rationale: Allergen desensitization therapy must be performed in a clinic or office with resuscitation equipment readily available due to the risk of severe allergic reactions.

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14
Q

Which laboratory and diagnostic tests are used to assess allergies? (SATA)

A. Serum testing
B. Pulmonary function studies
C. Radiography
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
E. Skin testing

A

A. Serum testing
B. Pulmonary function studies
C. Radiography
E. Skin testing

Rationale: Serum testing, pulmonary function studies, radiography, and skin testing are used to diagnose and assess allergies. ECG is not typically relevant to allergy assessments.

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15
Q

What is the role of oral antihistamines in allergy management?

A. Preventing the development of hypersensitivity reactions
B. Treating localized allergic reactions such as hives
C. Reducing the need for allergen avoidance measures
D. Preventing anaphylaxis during allergen exposure

A

B. Treating localized allergic reactions such as hives

Rationale: Oral antihistamines are commonly used to treat localized allergic reactions like hives by blocking histamine effects.

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16
Q

Which of the following allergens can enter the body through absorption via intact skin?

A. Plant pollens
B. Animal dander
C. Metals
D. Dust mites

A

C. Metals

Rationale: Metals can be absorbed through intact skin and cause allergic reactions.

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17
Q

Which factors are responsible for the symptoms seen in Type I hypersensitivity reactions? (SATA)

A. Histamine release
B. Cytokine activation
C. Activation of T-cells
D. Antigen-antibody interactions
E. Platelet aggregation

A

A. Histamine release
D. Antigen-antibody interactions

Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity symptoms are caused by histamine release and antigen-antibody interactions.

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18
Q

What is the typical timeframe for the peak of Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A. 24 hours
B. 15 to 30 minutes
C. Within 6 hours
D. 72 hours

A

C. Within 6 hours

Rationale: Type III hypersensitivity reactions peak within 6 hours and may be difficult to distinguish from Type II reactions.

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19
Q

What is the recommended approach for managing a child with a known drug allergy?

A. Administer small doses of the drug to build tolerance
B. Substitution of a different drug
C. Avoidance of all medications
D. Use of high-dose oral antihistamines

A

B. Substitution of a different drug

Rationale: Substitution of a different drug is the preferred approach for managing a known drug allergy.

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20
Q

Which of the following is true about the first exposure to an allergen in a Type I reaction?

A. It causes an immediate reaction.
B. It leads to the formation of antibodies but no symptoms.
C. It prevents future allergic reactions to the same antigen.
D. It triggers delayed hypersensitivity reactions.

A

B. It leads to the formation of antibodies but no symptoms.

Rationale: The first exposure to an allergen results in the formation of antibodies, but symptoms do not occur until subsequent exposures.

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21
Q

What is a potential complication of severe anaphylaxis?

A. Dehydration
B. Fatigue
C. Fever
D. Respiratory failure

A

D. Respiratory failure

Rationale: Severe anaphylaxis can lead to life-threatening respiratory failure due to airway swelling and obstruction.

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22
Q

Which of the following are examples of allergens that may trigger anaphylaxis? (SATA)

A. Penicillin
B. Bee venom
C. Dust mites
D. Shellfish
E. Latex

A

A. Penicillin
B. Bee venom
D. Shellfish
E. Latex

Rationale: Penicillin, bee venom, shellfish, and latex are known to trigger anaphylaxis in sensitized individuals. Dust mites typically cause localized allergic reactions like rhinitis or asthma rather than anaphylaxis.

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23
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in the respiratory system of children with allergies?

A. Conjunctivitis
B. Inspiratory stridor
C. Arthralgia
D. Angioedema

A

B. Inspiratory stridor

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is a respiratory symptom caused by airway inflammation or obstruction, which can occur in allergic reactions. Conjunctivitis is an eye finding, arthralgia is a musculoskeletal finding, and angioedema is a skin finding.

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24
Q

Which gastrointestinal findings may be present in children with allergies? (SATA)

A. Diarrhea
B. Geographic tongue
C. Torticollis
D. Bloody stools
E. Vomiting

A

A. Diarrhea
B. Geographic tongue
D. Bloody stools
E. Vomiting

Rationale: Diarrhea, geographic tongue, bloody stools, and vomiting are characteristic gastrointestinal findings in children with allergies. Torticollis is a musculoskeletal finding.

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25
Q

What is a common skin finding associated with allergic reactions?

A. Thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Vulvovaginitis
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Dysuria

A

C. Atopic dermatitis

Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is a common skin finding in children with allergies. Thrombocytopenic purpura is a blood finding, while vulvovaginitis and dysuria are genitourinary findings.

26
Q

Which nervous system finding is often observed in children with allergies?

A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Tremors
C. Rhinitis
D. Myalgia

A

B. Tremors

Rationale: Tremors are a nervous system finding linked to allergies. Hemolytic anemia is a blood finding, rhinitis is a respiratory finding, and myalgia is a musculoskeletal finding.

27
Q

What finding in the blood system might indicate an allergic reaction?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Angioedema
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Arthralgia

A

A. Agranulocytosis

Rationale: Agranulocytosis, a marked reduction in white blood cells, can occur in severe allergic reactions. Angioedema is a skin finding, anaphylactic shock is a systemic reaction, and arthralgia is a musculoskeletal finding.

28
Q

Which are characteristic eye findings in children with allergies? (SATA)

A. Ciliary spasm
B. Iritis
C. Tearing
D. Erythema multiforme
E. Itching of eyes

A

A. Ciliary spasm
B. Iritis
C. Tearing
E. Itching of eyes

Rationale: Ciliary spasm, iritis, tearing, and itching of eyes are eye findings in allergic reactions. Erythema multiforme is a skin finding.

29
Q

Which of the following is a miscellaneous finding associated with allergies?

A. Serum sickness
B. Arthralgia
C. Constipation
D. Tension headaches

A

A. Serum sickness

Rationale: Serum sickness is a miscellaneous finding related to immune complex reactions in allergies. Arthralgia is a musculoskeletal finding, constipation is a gastrointestinal finding, and tension headaches are a nervous system finding.

30
Q

Which genitourinary symptom is commonly associated with allergies in children?

A. Angioedema
B. Dysuria
C. Geographic tongue
D. Thrombocytopenic purpura

A

B. Dysuria

Rationale: Dysuria is a genitourinary symptom seen in children with allergies. The other options pertain to different organ systems.

31
Q

Which findings in the musculoskeletal system may indicate an allergic reaction in children? (SATA)

A. Myalgia
B. Arthralgia
C. Torticollis
D. Purpura
E. Sleep disturbances

A

A. Myalgia
B. Arthralgia
C. Torticollis

Rationale: Myalgia, arthralgia, and torticollis are musculoskeletal findings associated with allergies. Purpura is a blood finding, and sleep disturbances are a nervous system finding.

32
Q

Which characteristic finding in allergies is associated with the gastrointestinal system?

A. Sleep disorders
B. Vomiting
C. Torticollis
D. Conjunctivitis

A

B. Vomiting

Rationale: Vomiting is a gastrointestinal symptom. Sleep disorders are a nervous system finding, torticollis is a musculoskeletal finding, and conjunctivitis is an eye finding.

33
Q

Which clinical manifestation is most commonly associated with Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A. Joint pain
B. Wheezing
C. Fever
D. Blistering

A

B. Wheezing

Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, often include wheezing due to bronchoconstriction caused by histamine release. Joint pain and fever are associated with Type III, while blistering is linked to Type IV.

34
Q

What is the primary etiology of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Immune complexes deposited in tissues
B. Antibodies binding to cells, releasing histamine
C. Antigens stimulating T cells to release lymphokines
D. Antibodies activating the complement system and causing tissue damage

A

D. Antibodies activating the complement system and causing tissue damage

Rationale: Type II reactions involve antibodies that activate the complement system, leading to tissue-specific damage. Immune complex deposition is characteristic of Type III, histamine release occurs in Type I, and T-cell stimulation occurs in Type IV.

35
Q

Which are clinical manifestations of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? (SATA)

A. Urticaria
B. Stridor
C. Joint pain
D. Vomiting
E. Erythema

A

A. Urticaria
B. Stridor
D. Vomiting

Rationale: Urticaria, stridor, and vomiting are common in Type I reactions due to histamine release. Joint pain is associated with Type III, and erythema is often seen in Type IV reactions.

36
Q

Which of the following is an example of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
B. Serum sickness
C. ABO incompatibility
D. Tuberculin skin test

A

B. Serum sickness

Rationale: Serum sickness is an example of a Type III immune-complex reaction. Stevens–Johnson syndrome and tuberculin skin test are Type IV, while ABO incompatibility is Type II.

37
Q

Which conditions are examples of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (SATA)

A. Graft-versus-host disease
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. Stevens–Johnson syndrome

A

A. Graft-versus-host disease
B. Contact dermatitis
E. Stevens–Johnson syndrome

Rationale: Graft-versus-host disease, contact dermatitis, and Stevens–Johnson syndrome are all Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions. Hemolytic anemia is a Type II reaction, and acute glomerulonephritis is a Type III reaction.

38
Q

What is a key clinical manifestation of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Fever
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Blistering

A

A. Fever

Rationale: Fever is a common manifestation of Type III reactions due to immune complex deposition and inflammation. Wheezing and stridor are seen in Type I, while blistering occurs in Type IV.

39
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves antigens stimulating T cells that release lymphokines?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

D. Type IV

Rationale: Type IV reactions are mediated by T cells that release lymphokines, causing inflammation and tissue damage.

40
Q

What is the characteristic immune response in Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A. T-cell mediated lymphokine release
B. Immune complexes deposited in tissues
C. Histamine release from mast cells
D. Antibody-mediated activation of complement

A

B. Immune complexes deposited in tissues

Rationale: Type III reactions are caused by immune complex deposition in tissues, triggering complement activation and inflammation.

41
Q

Which clinical manifestations may indicate a Type II hypersensitivity reaction? (SATA)

A. Dyspnea
B. Urticaria
C. Fever
D. Pruritus
E. Hemolytic anemia

A

A. Dyspnea
C. Fever
E. Hemolytic anemia

Rationale: Dyspnea, fever, and hemolytic anemia are potential manifestations of Type II reactions. Urticaria and pruritus are associated with Types I and IV, respectively.

42
Q

What differentiates Type I hypersensitivity reactions from other types?

A. Delayed onset of symptoms
B. Involvement of immune complex deposition
C. Rapid release of histamine and inflammatory mediators
D. T-cell mediated response

A

C. Rapid release of histamine and inflammatory mediators

Rationale: Type I reactions are characterized by the rapid release of histamine, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, urticaria, and anaphylaxis.

43
Q

Which clinical manifestation is most associated with Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A. Erythema
B. Hypotension
C. Joint pain
D. Urticaria

A

A. Erythema

Rationale: Erythema is common in Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions, often seen in conditions like contact dermatitis.

44
Q

Which are examples of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction? (SATA)

A. ABO incompatibility
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Transfusion reaction
E. Serum sickness

A

A. ABO incompatibility
B. Hemolytic anemia
D. Transfusion reaction

Rationale: ABO incompatibility, hemolytic anemia, and transfusion reactions are all Type II tissue-specific hypersensitivity reactions. Contact dermatitis is Type IV, and serum sickness is Type III.

45
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction type is associated with smooth muscle spasms, such as in extrinsic asthma?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I

Rationale: Type I reactions, including extrinsic asthma, involve smooth muscle spasms triggered by histamine release.

46
Q

Which clinical manifestations are characteristic of Type IV hypersensitivity reactions? (SATA)

A. Blistering
B. Stridor
C. Pruritus
D. Vomiting
E. Erythema

A

A. Blistering
C. Pruritus
E. Erythema

Rationale: Blistering, pruritus, and erythema are hallmarks of delayed Type IV reactions. Stridor and vomiting are associated with Type I reactions.

47
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Deposition of immune complexes in tissues
B. Antibodies binding to cells, causing histamine release
C. Activation of complement, leading to tissue damage
D. T-cell activation releasing inflammatory mediators

A

B. Antibodies binding to cells, causing histamine release

Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity reactions occur when antibodies bind to cells, causing the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

48
Q

What is the primary focus of the nurse’s history-taking when assessing a child with allergies?

A. The child’s developmental milestones
B. The child’s growth chart since infancy
C. Identification of known environmental allergens
D. The parent’s understanding of allergy management

A

C. Identification of known environmental allergens

Rationale: A thorough history focuses on identifying known environmental allergens that cause symptoms, along with the timing, frequency, and duration of symptoms.

49
Q

Which question would be most helpful to assess the seasonal nature of a child’s allergies?

A. “Did you have feeding problems during infancy?”
B. “When do your symptoms usually occur during the day?”
C. “Do your symptoms change during different seasons of the year?”
D. “How long does each episode of symptoms last?”

A

C. “Do your symptoms change during different seasons of the year?”

Rationale: Seasonal variations in symptoms may indicate allergies triggered by pollens or other environmental factors that vary by season.

50
Q

Which aspects should be included in the family teaching for a child prescribed an EpiPen? (SATA)

A. Avoid exposure to direct sunlight or high temperatures.
B. Check the expiration date frequently.
C. Use the EpiPen only for mild allergic reactions.
D. Store the EpiPen in a medical facility for emergencies.
E. Ensure the child wears a medical alert bracelet.

A

A. Avoid exposure to direct sunlight or high temperatures.
B. Check the expiration date frequently.
E. Ensure the child wears a medical alert bracelet.

Rationale: Families should store the EpiPen appropriately, monitor expiration dates, and ensure the child wears a medical alert bracelet for immediate identification in emergencies.

51
Q

What action should be prioritized if a child experiences a systemic reaction to a bee sting?

A. Administer oral antihistamines immediately.
B. Place the child in a warm environment.
C. Use an EpiPen as instructed and seek emergency medical care.
D. Monitor the child for 24 hours for symptom improvement.

A

C. Use an EpiPen as instructed and seek emergency medical care.

Rationale: A systemic reaction to a bee sting requires immediate administration of epinephrine via an EpiPen and emergency medical care.

52
Q

What should families be educated about to allergy-proof their homes? (SATA)

A. Regular bathing of pets to reduce dander
B. Avoiding exposure to cigarette smoke
C. Using feather pillows for comfort
D. Removing carpets and fabrics that trap allergens
E. Keeping windows open to improve airflow

A

A. Regular bathing of pets to reduce dander
B. Avoiding exposure to cigarette smoke
D. Removing carpets and fabrics that trap allergens

Rationale: Frequent pet baths, avoiding cigarette smoke, and reducing allergens like carpets and fabrics are effective ways to allergy-proof a home. Feather pillows and open windows may exacerbate allergen exposure.

53
Q

When administering intradermal skin tests, the nurse’s primary responsibility is to:

A. Educate the child about the purpose of the test.
B. Ensure the child receives a dose of antihistamine beforehand.
C. Clean the test site with an antiseptic.
D. Monitor for an immediate allergic reaction.

A

D. Monitor for an immediate allergic reaction.

Rationale: The nurse must monitor for an immediate allergic reaction during intradermal skin testing, as these tests involve exposure to potential allergens.

54
Q

Which symptoms suggest the need for emergency administration of epinephrine? (SATA)

A. Wheezing
B. Abdominal pain
C. Facial swelling
D. Stridor
E. Urticaria

A

A. Wheezing
C. Facial swelling
D. Stridor

Rationale: Wheezing, facial swelling, and stridor indicate airway compromise or anaphylaxis, which require immediate epinephrine administration.

55
Q

What should the nurse recommend if a family is reluctant to remove a pet despite a child’s allergies?

A. Avoid allowing the pet in the child’s bedroom.
B. Provide oral antihistamines daily for the child.
C. Use over-the-counter air purifiers.
D. Bathe the pet frequently to reduce dander.

A

D. Bathe the pet frequently to reduce dander.

Rationale: Frequent pet baths help reduce dander, the usual allergen. Avoiding the pet in the child’s bedroom may also help but is less effective than addressing the source directly.

56
Q

Why should an EpiPen kit be stored away from direct sunlight or heat?

A. To prevent contamination
B. To maintain the integrity of the medication
C. To avoid accidental administration
D. To reduce the child’s anxiety

A

B. To maintain the integrity of the medication

Rationale: Sunlight and heat can degrade the epinephrine, reducing its effectiveness in an emergency.

57
Q

When gathering a history for a child with allergies, what questions should the nurse include?

A. “Did you have eczema as a baby?”
B. “Do your symptoms occur during the night?”
C. “Have you noticed any changes since puberty?”
D. “What foods do you eat most often?”
E. “Did you meet your developmental milestones on time?”

A

A. “Did you have eczema as a baby?”
B. “Do your symptoms occur during the night?”
C. “Have you noticed any changes since puberty?”

Rationale: A history should assess early signs of atopy (e.g., eczema), symptom patterns (e.g., nocturnal symptoms), and changes in symptoms over time, such as at puberty.

58
Q

What is the nurse’s role when a child with allergies requires desensitization injections?

A. Administer the injections in a home setting for convenience.
B. Perform the injections where resuscitation equipment is readily available.
C. Schedule the injections when the child shows acute allergic symptoms.
D. Educate the family that desensitization injections provide immediate relief.

A

B. Perform the injections where resuscitation equipment is readily available.

Rationale: Desensitization injections should be given in a clinical setting where resuscitation equipment is available in case of an adverse reaction.

59
Q

What education should the nurse provide regarding medical alert bracelets for children with severe allergies? (SATA)

A. The bracelet should include the child’s name and allergy information.
B. It should only be worn during allergy season.
C. Ensure it is worn at school and childcare settings.
D. The child’s medical provider should be listed on the bracelet.
E. It can prevent delays in emergency treatment.

A

A. The bracelet should include the child’s name and allergy information.
C. Ensure it is worn at school and childcare settings.
E. It can prevent delays in emergency treatment.

Rationale: Medical alert bracelets should provide critical information, be worn consistently, and help avoid delays in emergency care.

60
Q

What is a key nursing intervention for alleviating parental anxiety in managing a child with allergies?

A. Discussing the risk factors of allergy inheritance
B. Providing clear, step-by-step instructions for allergy management
C. Advising against introducing new foods to the child’s diet
D. Emphasizing the severity of the child’s allergic condition

A

B. Providing clear, step-by-step instructions for allergy management

Rationale: Clear, actionable instructions for managing allergies reduce parental anxiety by ensuring they feel prepared and informed.

61
Q

What is the priority nursing action when educating parents about handling an anaphylactic reaction?

A. Advising the parents to monitor symptoms for 24 hours before acting

B. Ensuring parents understand how to use an EpiPen correctly

C. Encouraging the child to avoid allergens independently

D. Recommending that parents give the child antihistamines first

A

B. Ensuring parents understand how to use an EpiPen correctly

62
Q

Parents of a child who experienced a moderately severe allergic reaction after eating peanuts ask the nurse what they can do to help if it happens again. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

  1. “If it happens again, I will teach you what to do.”
  2. “You should have an antihistamine like Benadryl with you at all times.”
  3. “We can start a desensitization process to take the allergy away.”
  4. “I will teach you how to use an Epi-Pen.”
A
  1. “I will teach you how to use an Epi-Pen.”

Rationale: An Epi-Pen is the appropriate treatment if this reaction occurs again. Benadryl is fine, but most likely is not strong enough in light of the serious reaction the child had. Desensitization is not the appropriate instruction at this time. Telling the parents that they will be taught if it happens again is brushing off the seriousness of the situation.