Exam 2 - Tophat (Corrected?) Flashcards

1
Q

An 8 week old female kitten presents for her first visit. On fecal exam, the kitten had roundworm and hookworm eggs. The plan with the best recommendations for owner follow up would be

a. Deworm now and in 2 weeks with pyrantel pomoate. Recheck a fecal in 6-8 weeks.
b. Deworm in 2 and 4 weeks with pyrantel pomoate and then check a fecal 2 weeks after the last dose.
c. Deworm monthly with pyrantel pomoate until 6 months of age.

A

b. Deworm in 2 and 4 weeks with pyrantel pomoate and then check a fecal 2 weeks after the last dose.

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2
Q

What cutaneous parasite may be discovered in a feline fecal exam?

a. Demodex gatoi
b. Demodex cati
c. Cheylettiela

A

a. Demodex gatoi

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3
Q

Miliary dermatitis (crusts around the neck) in cats is MOST commonly due to:

a. fleas
b. mites
c. lice
d. irritation from medications

A

a. fleas

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4
Q

Which intestinal parasites of dogs and cats are zoonotic (note all that apply)?

a. Toxocara spp.
b. Ancylostoma spp.
c. Isospora
d. Diplydium caninum
e. Echinococcus multifocularis
f. Giardia duodenalis

A

a. Toxocara spp
b. Ancylostoma spp
e. Echinococcus multifocularis
f. Giardia duodenalis

Technically diplydium caninum can be an accidental definitive host and Taenia multiceps can be an accidental IH

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5
Q

A deer tick attaches to a dog. In order for Borrelia burgdorferi to be transmitted to the dog, the tick needs to be attached for at least:

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

c. 48 hours

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6
Q

Identify the true statements:

a. Frontline kills ticks in 24-48 hours
b. Simparica kills ticks in 8-10 hours
c. Advantage multi kills ticks in 12-24 hours

A

a. Frontline kills ticks in 24-48 hours
b. Simparica kills ticks in 8-10 hours

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7
Q

Identify all of the tick borne diseases:

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Feline Cytaxzoonosis
c. Canine Babesiosis
d. Anaplasma
e. Dirofilaria immitis

A

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Feline Cytauxzoonosis
c. Canine Babesiosis
d. Anaplasma

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8
Q

Identify the parasitic infections that can be transmitted transplacentally:

a. Toxocara canis
b. Ancylostoma spp
c. Dirofilarial microfilariae
d. Isospora canis
e. Giardia duodenalis

A

a. Toxocara canis

c. Dirofilarial microfilariae - don’t think this is correct

The rest are direct - fecal/oral

Ancylocystoma caninum can be transmitted transplacentally although Brewer thought it was unimportant

Not listed: Toxoplasma gondii during initial infection

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9
Q

A 1 year old MI dog presents to you for a new patient examination and to schedule a neuter. The dog was acquired from a local rescue that received the dog from a rescue partner in Missouri. You screened the dog for infectious diseases with an Idexx 4DX test and found that the dog is Heartworm positive. You then checked for microfilaria and found that the dog has circulating microfilaria. On physical examination, the dog appears healthy and the owner does not report any history of exercise intolerance or coughing.
The owner has limited finances to treat the heartworm disease AND neuter the dog. What would be the minimum data base you would recommend to the owner for pre-operative screening

a. CBC, Chemistry profile, Chest radiographs
b. PCV/TS, Azostick, Glucose, Urinalysis
c. PCV/TS, routine chemistry profile, Urine protein/creatinine ratio, chest radiographs

A

b. PCV/TS, Azostick, Glucose, Urinalysis

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10
Q

An owner adopted two kittens from a shelter 10 days ago and is bringing them to you for their first examinations. One kitten is a 4 month old FI Calico and the other is a 5-6 month old MI brown tabby. The owner reports that the kittens have bonded very well. On physical examination you find that the Calico has ear mites. The male cat’s ears appear clean with no significant material for cytology. How do you manage the ear mites in the house?

a. Treat the female cat with Revolution Plus for 2 weeks for 3 treatments and the male with one dose of Revolution Plus
b. Treat both cats with Revolution Plus for 2 weeks for 3 treatments
c. Treat both cats with Revolution Plus monthly

A

b. Treat both cats with Revolution Plus for 2 weeks for 3 treatments

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11
Q

A 5 year old MN DSH presents to you for intermittent coughing. The CBC has elevated eosinophils. The radiographs show diffuse interstitial pattern consistent with asthma. You send off a feline heartworm antibody test and it is positive.
What can you do to determine if there is an active infection. Note all that apply:

a. Echocardiogram
b. Use a 4DX to see if the cat is antigen postivie
c. Trans-tracheal wask
d. Bronchoalveolar lavage

A

a. Echocardiogram
b. Use a 4DX to see if the cat is antigen positive

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12
Q

The echocardiogram, in a cat that is heartworm postivie, demonstrates 2 adult heartworms in the pulmonary outflow tract. You explain to the owner that the cat has Heartworm Associated Respiratory Disease (HARD). What recommendations do you have for the owner?

a. Treat the cat with immiticide
b. Manage symptoms with prednisone +/- doxycycline
c. Use Revolution Plus monthly

A

b. Manage symptoms with prednisone +/- doxycycline
c. Use Revolution Plus monthly

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13
Q

Identify the core canine vaccines:

a. DHPP
b. Rabies
c. Bordatella
d. Leptospirosis
e. Lyme
f. Canine influenza

A

a. DHPP
b. Rabies

Leptospirosis is considered core at ISU

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14
Q

A nine week old puppy comes into your practice for it’s first visit. The owner’s live in Ames, but camp in the Boundary Waters area in northern MN and visit family in upstate NY. The owners have 2 other dogs. The dogs go to daycare several days/week and compete in field trials. Choose the best vaccine protocol for this dog.

a. DHPP - at 9 and 13 weeks, Bordatella at 9 weeks, and rabies at 13 weeks
b. DHPP at 9, 12, 15, and 18 weeks, Rabies at 18 weeks, Bordatella at 9 weeks, Leptospirosis at 15 and 18 weeks
c. DHPP at 9, 13, and 17 weeks, Rabies at 13 weeks, Bordatella at 9 weeks, Leptospirosis and Lyme at 17 and 20 weeks

A

c. DHPP at 9, 13, and 17 weeks, Rabies at 13 weeks, Bordatella at 9 weeks, Leptospirosis and Lyme at 17 and 20 weeks

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15
Q

The dog from the previous question (puppy from ames that frequents minnisota and doggy daycare) is now 2+ years old. What vaccines should he receive yearly as an adult?

a. DHPP, Bordatella, Lyme, Leptospirosis
b. Bordatella, Lyme, and Leptospirosis
c. Bordatella and Lyme

A

a. DHPP, Bordatella, Lyme, and Leptospirosis

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16
Q

Under what circumstances should you recommend a dog receiving canine influenza vaccine with both serovars (H3N8, H3N2) - identify all

a. A recent outbreak in a local doggy daycare that your dog infrequently attends
b. A dog who competes in agility at a national level
c. A dog who frequently is boarded at a number of dog kennels
d. A dog who travels with the owner on hiking trips

A

a. A recent outbreak in a local doggy daycare that your dog infrequently attends
b. A dog who competes in agility at a national level
c. A dog who frequently is boarded at a number of dog kennels

17
Q

What age is a 4 month old MI yorkie considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

a. Puppy

18
Q

What age group is an 8 year old FS Pitbull?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

d. Mature

19
Q

What age group is a 12 year old MN Bichon considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

e. Senior

20
Q

What age group is 10 year old FS Golden Retriever considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

e. Senior

21
Q

What age group is a 9 year old MN Great Dane considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

f. Geriatric

22
Q

What age is group is a 16 month old Newfoundland considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

b. Junior

23
Q

What age group is a 4 year old MI Labrador considered?

a. Puppy
b. Junior
c. Adult
d. Mature
e. Senior
f. Geriatric

A

c. Adult

24
Q

For which pets could you recommend screening bloodwork (CBC, chemistries, UA) (choose all that apply)?

a. a 9 year old FS Golden Retriever
b. A 4-year old MN Mastiff
c. A 15 year old Chihuahua
d. A 2 year old Teacup Poodle

A

a. a 9 year old FS Golden Retriever
b. A 4-year old MN Mastiff
c. A 15 year old Chihuahua
d. A 2 year old Teacup Poodle`

25
Q

Which pet is a candidate for a dental cleaning? (identify all)

a. 1 year old MN sheltie with a tarter score of 0.5/3 and a gingivitis score of 1.5/3
b. 15 year old yorkie with a tartar score of 3/3 and gingivitis score of 1/3
c. 5 year old FS Labrador with a tartat score of 0-0.5/3 on most teeth but it is 2/3 on 108, 109, and 1/3 on 104

A

a. 1 year old MN sheltie with a tarter score of 0.5/3 and a gingivitis score of 1.5/3
b. 15 year old yorkie with a tartar score of 3/3 and gingivitis score of 1/3
c. 5 year old FS Labrador with a tartat score of 0-0.5/3 on most teeth but it is 2/3 on 108, 109, and 1/3 on 104

26
Q

Which statements are true? (identify all)

a. A client comes in because their 14 month old MI GSD who was perfectly housebroken by 4 months of age is having accidents in the house most likely due to a urinary tract infection
b. A 15 year old FS Poodle is having accidents in the house. The urinalysis is unremarkable. The accidents could be due to Cognitive Dysfunction Syndrome.
c. Letting a puppy outside into a fenced frequently is a good way to house train
d. A puppy with an ectopic ureter may appear to be having difficulty learning house training
e. Shih Tzu and Maltese puppies are easy to house train

A

b. A 15 year old FS Poodle is having accidents in the house. The urinalysis is unremarkable. The accidents could be due to Cognitive Dysfunction Syndrome.
d. A puppy with an ectopic ureter may appear to be having difficulty learning house training

27
Q

Identify all the safe methods you could use to break up a dog fight:

a. Create a loud sharp sound that is intended to be distracting
b. Splash water on the dogs or use a hose
b. Use a board or another solid object to separate
d. Pull the dogs apart with leashes (if they are leashed) or pulling on hind limbs if reasonable
e. Throw a thick blanket over the dogs and try to separate them with

A

All of the above but d

28
Q

When trying to break up a dog fight, the most common reasons for human injury are: (choose all)

a. Canine aggression redirected toward the human
b. Human accidently gets in the way
c. Canine generilzation of aggression (fight response generalizes from another dog to human)

A

a. Canine aggression redirected toward the human
b. Human accidently gets in the way

29
Q

Stella, a 2-3 year old, FI, DSH with a IV/VI holosystolic murmor. What anesthetic pre-medications commonly used in VCS 449 anesthesia protocols shold be avoided for Stella’s heart condition?

a. Ketamine
b. Alfaxalone
c. Buprenorphine
d. Dexmedetomidine
e. Midazolam

A

a. Ketamine
d. Dexmedetomidine