Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Shadow; the image of the object we receive:
A
Umbra
2
Q
Edge gradient; the unsharp area; area around the margins of the object:
A
Penumbra
3
Q
What do we try to minimize in a radiographic image?
A
Penumbra
4
Q
How do we minimize penumbra?
A
By having an increased source to object ratio
5
Q
Because there are multiple X-ray photons that come and interact with the edges of the object, it creates a blurry margin we refer to as:
A
Penumbra
6
Q
Three factors that affect the quality of the radiograph:
A
- image sharpness
- image magnification
- image shape distortion
7
Q
Equal enlargement:
A
Magnification
8
Q
Unequal enlargement:
A
Shape distortion
9
Q
Enlargement of the radiographic image, compared to the actual size of the object:
A
Magnification
10
Q
Image shows true shape of object:
A
Magnification
11
Q
What does magnification have to do with?
A
The DIVERGENCE due to the distance of the receptor, object, and beam
12
Q
Variation from the true shape of an object and unequal magnification of certain parts of the object:
A
Shape distortion
13
Q
What does shape distortion have to do with?
A
Improperalignment/ANGULATION of receptor, object and beam
14
Q
Three ways to maximize image sharpness:
A
- radiation source
- source-to-object distance
- object-to-receptor distance
15
Q
Discuss the radiation source if we are trying to maximize image sharpness:
A
Radiation source should be as small as possible (smaller focal= greater sharpness because there are fewer photons interacting with the object)
16
Q
Smaller focal spot= _____ sharpness
A
greater sharpness
17
Q
Smaller radiation source = _____ focal spot = ______ sharpness
A
smaller; greater
18
Q
Although a smaller radiation source is a mechanism to maximize image sharpness, this is not something:
A
we can control after machinery is bought
19
Q
Discuss the source-to-object distance if we are trying to maximize image sharpness:
A
Source-to-object distance should be as long as possible
20
Q
How can source-to-object distance be controlled when trying to maximize image sharpness?
A
Can be controlled by length of cone
(larger cone = increased sharpness due to decreased divergence)
21
Q
Larger cone= ______ sharpness, due to ________
A
increased; decreased divergence
22
Q
Discuss the object-to-receptor distance if we are trying to maximize image sharpness:
A
object-to-receptor distance should be as short as possible
(get tooth as close to image receptor as possible)
23
Q
If we are trying to increase image sharpness by adjusting object-to-receptor distance, how do we control this?
A
Can be controlled by where operator places image receptor
24
Q
When trying to maximize sharpness discuss what you should do to the following:
- radiation source
- source-to-object distance
- object-to-receptor distance
A
- radiation source should be as small as possible (can’t be adjusted after buying though)
- source-to-object distance should be as long as possible (controlled by length of cone- larger cone= sharper image)
- object-to-receptor distance should be as short as possible (controlled by operator placement of image receptor)
25
Two ways to minimize magnification:
1. source-to-object distance should be as long as possible
2. object-to-receptor distance should be as short as possible
26
Explain why the object-to-receptor distance should be as short as possible when trying to minimize magnification:
Shorter object to image receptor distance results in less magnification and greater sharpness due to LESS DIVERGENCE
27
Explain what would result from:
Longer object to image receptor distance
Greater magnification; less sharpness; due to more divergence
28
What are two ways to minimize shape distortion:
1. object and receptor should be PARALLEL
2. Beam should be PERPENDICULAR to both object and receptor
29
What is the effect of the following on a radiographic image?
-Smaller radiation source
-longer source-to-object distance
-shorter object-to-receptor distance
Maximized image sharpness
30
What is the effect of the following on a radiographic image?
-longer source-to-object distance
-shorter object-to-receptor distance
Minimized image magnification
31
What is the effect of the following on a radiographic image?
-object and receptor are PARALLEL
-beam is PERPENDICULAR to object and receptor
Minimized shape distortion
32
List the five rules for accurate image formation:
1. focal spot as small as possible
2. source-object distance as long as possible
3. object-receptor distance as short as possible
4. object (tooth) parallel to receptor
5. beam perpendicular to object (tooth) & receptor
33
The five rules for accurate image formation include:
1. focal spot _________
2. source-object distance _______
3. object-receptor distance _____
4. object (tooth) ______ to receptor
5. Beam ______ to object (tooth) & receptor
1. as small as possible
2. as long as possible
3. as short as possible
4. parallel
5. perpendicular
34
What are the two techniques used for PA radiography?
1. paralleling technique
2. bisecting angle technique
35
What type of cone should be used according to the paralleling technique used for PA radiography?
Long cone
36
What is "preferred technique" for PA radiography?
Paralleling technique
37
Describe the components to the paralleling technique for PA radiography:
1. use long cone
2. receptor parallel to tooth
3. beam perpendicular to tooth and receptor
38
What problem can we run into when using the paralleling technique for PA radiography?
Can run into problem in MAXILLARY RADIOGRAPHS due to curvature of the palate
39
What does the paralleling technique for PA radiography violate?
Violates rule of increased object-receptor distance so an increased source-receptor distance is utilized (long cone)
40
Because the paralleling technique for PA radiography violates the rule of increased object-receptor distance, what is done to make up for this? And how?
Increased source-receptor distance using a long cone
41
What technique for PA radiography can be used if the paralleling technique cannot be used?
Bisecting angle technique
42
What type of cone is preferred for the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography?
Long cone preferred (but short cone can be used)
43
What rule is the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography based on? Explain this rule:
Based on rule of isometry; if two triangles have equal angles and a common side, then the two triangles are equal
44
In the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography, what angle is bisected?
The angle formed by the plane of the tooth and the plane of the receptor
45
Where is the beam directed in the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography?
The beam is directed perpendicular to the bisecting line
46
In the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography:
The angle formed by ______ and _______ is bisected and the beam is directed ______ to the ______
The plane of the tooth & the plane of the receptor; perpendicular to the bisecting line
47
In the bisecting angle technique for PA radiography, what is NOT bisected?
Neither the tooth or receptor is bisected
48
Tube shift method/Buccal object rule can be explained by the:
SLOB rule
49
SLOB stands for:
Same Lingual, Opposite Buccal
50
When you move the tube head mesially, and the object moves mesially, where is the object located?
Lingually
51
What causes foreshortening? (An error)
Tooth not parallel to receptor and beam directed perpendicular to RECEPTOR
52
Radiographic image of the object (tooth) appears shorter than it actually is:
Forshortening
53
How would the radiographic image appear if foreshortening occurs?
Image appears shorter than it actually is
54
Foreshortening is a result of improper:
VERTICAL angulation
55
What causes elongation? (An error)
Tooth not parallel to receptor and beam directed perpendicular to TOOTH
56
Radiographic image of the object (tooth) appears longer than it actually is. Root apices may be cut off.
Elongation
57
Elongation is a result of improper:
VERTICAL angulation
58
What error causes overlapping of contacts?
Improper HORIZONTAL angulation
59
Reduction of the intensity of an x-ray beam as it traverse matter:
attenuation
60
Absorption=
Scatter=
photoelectric effect
coherent & compton scattering
61
Interactions of X-radiation with matter (attenuation types): (4)
1. no interaction (9%)
2. photoelectric effect (27-30%)
3. Compton scatter (57-62%)
4. coherent (Thomson) scatter (7%)
62
What type of interactions with x-radiation (attenuation types) are shown?
A: no interaction 9%
B: coherent scattering 7%
C: photoelectric absorption 27-30%
D: Compton scattering 57-62%
63
When the X-ray photon enters an object (patient) and exits with no change in its energy:
No interaction (9%)
64
When the X-ray photons collide with an orbital electron and lose energy; the ejected photoelectron loses its energy:
Photoelectric absorption (27-30%)
65
In the photoelectric absorption process (27-30%), ____ occurs which results in _____
ionization; biologic effect
66
When the X-ray photon collides with an outer orbital electron losing some energy. The X-ray photon continues in a different direction with less energy, creating more scatter until all energy is lost:
Compton scattering (57-62%)
67
In the Compton scattering process (57-62%), ____ occurs which results in ____
ionization; biologic effect
68
Rules that govern the probability of photoelectric absorption and compton scatter:
The ionized matter is unstable and seeks a more stable configuration; which may effect biologic structure, function or both
69
X-ray photons of low energy interacts with an outer orbital electron and changes direction:
Coherent scattering
70
In coherent scattering process (7%) no photoelectron is produced and therefore:
No ionization occurs
71
How do differential absorption/photoelectric absorption help in image formation:
Produces ____ that generates the detail of the image. Some X-rays are absorbed in the tissue and some pass through the anatomical tissue.
Contrast
72
The process of image formation is a result of:
Differential absorption
73
Varying X-ray intensities exiting the anatomic area of interest form the:
Latent image
74
Measure of the biological effectiveness of a radiation to ionize matter:
QF
75
Have threshold and severity is proportional to the dose:
Deterministic effects
76
Describe the curve of deterministic effects of radiation:
Is a threshold, non-linear dose curve
77
Has NO dose threshold. Probability of occurrence is proportional to dose BUT severity of effects does not depend on dose:
Stochastic effects of radiation
78
Stochastic effects of radiation on somatic cells results in:
genetic mutations that cause malignancy
79
Stochastic effects of radiation on germ cells results in:
genetic mutations that cause heritable effects
80
Describe the curve of stochastic effects:
Non threshold linear
81
What cancers have the highest risk from dental radiographic exposure:
Leukemia & thyroid cancer
82
Direct radiation effects on cellular structures is caused by:
Rupture in the cell wall of a biologically active molecule
83
What factor effects radiosensitivity to the greatest degree?
Age
84
Children aged _____ are _____x more likely of radiation induced cancer
2-10; 2-6x
85
Radiation induced tissue changes that are believed to follow these dose-response curves:
Threshold non-linear -->
Linear non-threshold -->
Deterministic effects
Stochastic effects
86
Acute radiation syndrome includes:
1. prodromal period
2. hematopoietic syndrome
3. GI syndrome
4. CNS/CV syndrome
87
Prodromal period:
_____ R
_____ Gy
Describe the lethality:
Less than 200R, Less than 2Gy
Non-lethal
88
Shortly after exposure to whole body radiation, individual may develop nausea, vomiting, diarrhea & anorexia:
Prodromal period
89
Describe the prodromal period of acute radiation syndrome:
Shortly after exposure to whole body radiation, individual may develop nausea, vomiting, diarrhea & anorexia
90
Discuss the timeline of symptom resolution with prodromal period of acute radiation syndrome:
Symptoms resolve after several weeks
91
Hematopoietic syndrome:
_____ R
_____ Gy
Describe the lethality:
200-1000R, 2-10Gy
Lethal
92
Irreversible injury to the proliferative capacity of the spleen and bone marrow with loss of circulating peripheral blood cells:
Hematopoietic syndrome
93
In hematopoietic syndrome, the person may develop infection from ____ & _____. The person may hemorrhage from _______. The person may develop anemia from ______.
The most lethal part of hematopoietic syndrome is:
Lymphopenia & Granulocytopenia;
Thrombocytopenia;
Erythrocytopenia;
Sepsis
94
Describe the timeline with hematopoietic syndrome of acute radiation syndrome:
Death within 10-30 days
95
GI syndrome:
_____ R
_____ Gy
Describe the lethality:
1000-10k R, 10-100Gy
Supra lethal
96
Extensive damage to the GI system. Injury to the rapidly proliferating basal epithelial cells of intestine, leading to atrophy and ulceration:
GI syndrome
97
In GI syndrome, the loss of ____ & _____ causes hemorrhage, ulceration, diarrhea, dehydration, weight loss, & infection
Plasma & electrolytes
98
Describe the timeline with GI syndrome of acute radiation syndrome:
Death within 3-5 days
99
CNS and CV syndrome:
_____ R
_____ Gy
Describe the lethality:
Greater than 10k R, Greater than 100 Gy
Supra lethal
100
Radiation-induced damage to neurons and fine vasculature of the brain. Results in intermittent stupor, incoordination, disorientation & convulsions:
CNS & CV syndrome
101
Describe the timeline with CNS & CV sun from of acute radiation syndrome:
Irreversible damage with death in a few minutes to 48 hours
102
Relative dose ranges to oral tissue from oral cancer radiation treatments:
Total radiation doses to treat malignant tumors ranges from:
6000-8000 Rads or 60-80 Gy
103
Relative dose ranges to oral tissue from oral cancer radiation treatments:
Solid tumors=
Lymphomas=
Intraoral cancer=
Solid tumors= 60-80 Gy
Lymphomas= 20-40 Gy
Intraoral cancer= 50 Gy
104
Common dental radiation:
1 Gy=
1 million mSv
105
Common dental radiation:
single intraoral radiograph=
FMX (20)=
Pano=
single intraoral radiograph= 1.3 mSv
FMX (20)= 33 mSv
Pano= 9 mSv
106
Potential long term effect of dental ionizing radiation to the head and neck area:
Oral tissues are subjected to high doses of radiation during treatment of malignant tumors of the: (5)
1. soft palate
2. tonsils
3. floor of mouth
4. nasopharynx
5. hypopharynx
107
Potential long term effect of dental ionizing radiation to the head and neck area:
Oral tissues are subjected to high doses of radiation during treatment of malignant tumors of the soft palate, tonsils, floor of mouth, nasopharynx, hypopharynx.
This can have effects on the:
Oral mucosa, tastebuds, salivary glands, teeth, bone, and muscle
108
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Oral mucosa
Mucositis (secondary infections)
109
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Taste buds
Loss of taste (Hypogeusia)
110
What results in loss of taste to the 2nd-3rd week of treatment?
1. Epithelial atrophy
2. Xerostomia
3. Mucositis
111
Epithelial atrophy, xerostomia, & mucositis result in loss of taste to the 2nd-3rd week of treatment. When will recovery of taste return?
2-4 months following treatment
112
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Salivary glands
Xerostomia
113
Describe the loss of salivary secretions causing xerostomia in radiation treatment:
Marked and progressive loss
114
If some of the salivary gland has been spared following radiation treatment, the dryness subsides in:
6 months to 1 year
115
_____ saliva makes the mouth dry and tender causing difficulty swallowing following radiation
Scanty
116
Residual saliva has a lowered pH from 6.5 to 5.5 following radiation, which can initiate:
decalcification of enamel
117
Describe the effects of radiation on the buffering capacity of the saliva:
The buffering capacity of saliva is reduced to 40-45%
118
Pertaining to salivary glands, _____ cells (especially in the ______) are very sensitive to X-rays and are replaced by fibrosis & adiposis:
Parenchymal cells; parotid glands
119
Parencymal cells, especially of the parotid glands are very sensitive to X-rays and are replaced by:
fibrosis & adiposis
120
Rampant form of decay that may effect individuals who received a course of radiation therapy that include exposure of salivary glands:
Radiation caries
121
Radiation caries is a _____ effect of radiation
INDIRECT
122
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Teeth
Lack of or retarded development
123
Adult teeth are very resistant to the ____ effects of radiation exposure
Direct
124
T/F: There is a discernible effect on structure of adult teeth and radiation does increase the solubility of teeth
False: There is NO discernible effect on the structure of adult teeth and radiation DOES NOT increase the solubility of teeth
125
Describe the potential effects of dental ionizing radiation on erupted teeth:
Only indirect effects to erupted teeth
126
When primary teeth are irradiated during the developmental stage, what may occur?
Their growth may be severely retarded
127
Concerning primary teeth, if radiation PRECEDES calcification:
The tooth bud may be destroyed
128
Concerning primary teeth, if radiation is AFTER initiation of calcification, the teeth may demonstrate:
Malformations and arresting general growth
129
Irradiated primary teeth with altered root formation will still erupt because:
Eruptive mechanism is much more radiation resistant
130
A dose as low as ____ at the age of 5 months, has been reported to cause ______ of enamel
200 R; hypoplasia
131
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Bone
Osteoradionecrosis
132
Primary damage to bone is from irradiation is to:
fine vasculature & bone marrow (affecting vascular & hematopoietic elements)
133
Discuss the potential longer term effects of dental ionizing radiation to the following area: Muscle
fibrosis and inflammation
134
The fibrosis & inflammation that occur in the muscle in the muscle from dental ionizing radiation results in:
contracture & trismus in the muscle
135
Sources of natural and man-made background ionizing radiation exposure to the population:
Medical= __ mSv
Natural= ___ mSv
Other (man-made)= ____
3.2 mSv
3 mSv
0.1 mSv
136
-Consumer products (TV, Apple watch, computers)
-medical imaging
-airport scanners
-nuclear fuel cycle
-weapons production
-fall-out from atomic weapons
These are all examples of:
Man-made/artificial sources of background ionizing radiation exposure
137
-External (cosmic, terrestrial)
-Internal (radon= majority)
-cosmic
These are all examples of:
Natural sources of background ionizing radiation exposure
138
The majority of man-made exposure of background ionizing radiation=
Medical imaging (greater than 50%)
139
The majority of natural exposure of background ionizing radiation=
Radon (around 54%)
140
Sources of medical imaging radiation exposure are: (4)
What do these add up to a total of?
1. CT scanning
2. nuclear medicine
3. radiography
4. interventional
3.2 mSv
141
The effective dose per individual in the U.S. population (mSv) in the 1980s was ______ and in 2006 was ______
3.6 mSv to 6.2 mSv
142
Ways to change the EFFECTIVE DOSE of radiation is accomplished by variations in:
1. receptor type
2. type of exams
3. collimation shape
4. collimation lenght
143
Explain the following:
Ways to change the EFFECTIVE DOSE of radiation is accomplished by variations in receptor type:
Faster the receptor type, the less patient exposure
#1 way to reduce exposure
144
What is the #1 way to reduce radiation exposure to a patient?
Receptor type- faster the receptor type, the less the exposure
145
Explain the following:
Ways to change the EFFECTIVE DOSE of radiation is accomplished by variations in type of exams such as:
BW, Pano, PA, CBCT, etc.
146
Explain the following:
Ways to change the EFFECTIVE DOSE of radiation is accomplished by variations in collimation shape:
Rectangular collimator with 2.75" diameter preferred
147
Explain the following:
Ways to change the EFFECTIVE DOSE of radiation is accomplished by variations in collimation length:
The longer the collimator is, the less patient exposure and sharper the image
148
MPD:
Maximum permissible dose
149
The amount of radiation that will not produce any serious, harmful or deleterious effects on the individual receiving it:
Maximum permissible dose (MPD)
150
The MPD occupational limits:
5 Rem/year (5000 mRem)
*50 mSv
151
The average dental personal exposure to radiation:
0.2 mSv
152
The MPD non-occupational limits:
0.5 Rem/year (500 mRem)
153
The average annual effective dose (natural + man-made) is about:
3.6 mSv
154
The MPD pregnant occupational limits:
0.5 Rem/year (500 mRem)
*5 mSv at 9 months
*0.5 mSv at 1 month
155
In what population are radiographs indicated for acute painful dental problems only when outweighing risk vs. benefit:
Pregnant women
156
What cancers have the highest risk from dental X-radiation exposures?
Thyroid cancers & leukemia
157
What is the THRESHOLD radiation erythema dose?
250 Rads
158
What is the AVERAGE radiation erythema dose?
500 Rads
159
What is the MAXIMUM radiation erythema dose?
700 Rads (1st degree burn)
160
In 1959 how many exposures were required to cause TED?
62 exposures (1250/20)
161
in 2023, 1/3 of TED is delivered with ~ ______ intraoral dental exposures at a _____ focal distance
298; 8"
162
In 2023, using properties of the inverse square law, the dose is decreased to around 37% if the focal distance is:
Doubled (16")
~473 exposures
163
Benefits of dental radiography include:
1. Interproximal caries diagnosis
2. Severity (depth) and extent of caries
3. Periodontal bone loss (alveolar crest)
4. Root configuration
5. Periradicular pathology
6. Basal bone pathology in jaws
7. Location of 3rd molar roots and IAC
8. anatomy assessment for implants
9. calculus
164
Compared to visual examination:
- digital bitewings identified ____x more caries
-conventional bitewings identified _____x more caries
3.2x
2.9x
(6% occlusal decay & 94% interproximal decay)
165
20% incidence in asian & Chinese populations & 10-12% incidence in native North American populations
a lingual root of mandibular first molars
166
Basal bone pathology in jaws:
Hyperdontia is most common in the ____ area
premolar
167
What are the goals for maxillofacial & oral radiology?
1. reduce radiation exposure
2. maintain a high degree of diagnostic efficiency
168
It is a juggling act to:
reduce a patients radiation exposure yet maintain a high degree of diagnostic efficiency
169
ALARA:
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
170
A guiding principle of radiation protection:
ALARA & ALADA
171
Since the probability or severity of biological damage increases as the radiation dose increases, it is desirable to avoid:
Receiving even the smallest dose of unnecessary radiation
172
With ALARA, what was prioritized?
1. time
2. distance
3. shielding factors
173
ALADA:
As Low As Diagnostically Acceptable
174
Why ALADA created as a variation of ALARA by Dr. Jerald Bushberg in 2014?
to emphasize the importance of optimization in medical imaging
175
Dose reduction mechanisms in relation to the X-ray tube head include:
1. filtration
2. collimation
176
Selective passage of contents through a specified substance:
Filtration
177
Selectively removes a greater proportion of low keV X-ray photon:
Filtration
178
Filtration selectively removes:
a greater proportion of low keV X-ray photons
179
When filtration selectively removes a greater proportion of low keV x-ray photons, this results in:
increased mean energy of the beam (because its only keeping high keV)
180
What does reduction mechanism in relation to the X-ray tube head, increases the mean energy of the beam?
Filtration
181
In regard to filtration, most of the units are ____kV
60 kV
182
In regard to filtration, a higher kV means:
Better image quality (but more expensive & requires more filtration)
183
Collimation describes the:
shape & size of the beam
184
In regards to collimation, what shape of beam is preferred?
Rectangular
185
In regards to collimation, what is the maximum diameter for intraoral radiation?
2.75" (exit-side beam collimation)
186
What are the MANDATED requirements for the X-ray tube head?
1. filtration
2. collimation
187
A ______ collimator is an OPTIONAL dose-reduction mechanism
rectangular
188
The area exposed is related to:
the maximum size of the beam
189
-tru-align
-tru-image
-universal rectangular collimator
These are all types of:
Rectangular collimators
190
_____ is reflective of the specific technique for common exams
effective dose
191
(Optional) high kV generator/transformer is allows for a ______
lower dose of radiation
192
Higher kV units are: (2)
larger & heavier
193
1. rectangular collimator
2. higher kV generator
3. constant potential (DC) fully rectified
4. increased focal length
These are all:
OPTIONAL X-ray tube head dose-reduction mechanisms
194
Discuss how increased of long BID benefits the patient in regard to exposure: (3)
1. 27% less head volume
2. reduced effective dose
3. sharper image
195
Dose reduction mechanisms PRACTICE OPTIONS include:
1. film speed
2. lead (PB) thyroid collar
3. film holding devices with beam alignment capability
4. time-temperature quality control processing
196
Film speed includes-
D:
E:
F:
D speed: ultraspeed
E speed: Ektaspeed
F speed: insight
197
List the types of digital receptors that contribute to film speed:
1.PSPP (Photostimulable phosphor plate)
2. CCD (Charge coupled device)
3. CMOS (complementary metal oxide semiconductors)
198
Of the types of digital receptors, which is the most radiation sensitive?
CCD (lowest dose)
199
Of the types of Digital receptors, which is the most common?
CMOS
200
In regards to image detector speeds, the faster the receptor, the ______ patient exposure
Less
201
What is the #1 way to reduce patient exposure?
Using a faster receptor
202
Film is the ____ receptor, but produces the ____ image
Slowest; sharpest
203
Doesn't come in an alternating current, rather allows a constant potential causing the patient to be LESS exposed because you are ALWAYS producing X-rays so it is more time efficient (faster with less time exposing patient):
Rectifications
204
X-ray tube head circuitry only producing high energy photons that are good for image production & safer for the patient:
Rectification
205
What are two important means of patient protection?
1. thyroid collar
2. lead apron
206
Discuss the total filtration required for the following:
Operating kV of less than 50:
Operating kV of 50-70:
Operating kV of greater than 70:
<50 kV capability: 0.5 mm aluminum filter
50-70 kV capability: 1.5 mm aluminum filter
>70 kV capability: 2.5 mm aluminum filter
207
During an exposure taken with a wall-mounted X-ray unit, the operator should stand:
Behind a barrier/wall
208
During an exposure taken with a wall-mounted X-ray unit, where should the operator stand if no protective barrier/wall is present?
At least 6 feet away at an angle between 90-135 degrees to the direction of the useful beam (primary beam)
209
T/F: it is acceptable to stand in the primary beam of the X-ray when absolutely needed:
False- NEVER stand in the primary beam
210
T/F: As an X-ray operator, you should NEVER hold the film or other receptors in a patients mouth
True
211
T/F: Radiation monitoring badges are optional
True- but they are recommended
212
When are dosimeter badges worn?
Dorimeters badges will be worn by a full time operator of radiographic equipment while X-ray exposures are being made (these are optional but recommended)
213
An occupational whole body exposure will not exceed:
50 mSv
214
Operators who have declared a pregnancy will not exceed more than ____ to the embryo or fetus during the term of the pregnancy
5 mSv
215
What are the Nomad & Nomad Pro?
Self-contained, hand-held, portable X-ray units
216
T/F: The use of the Nomad X-ray unit violates current radiology statues
True
217
What statutes does the Nomad X-ray unit violate?
"During each exposure operator should stand at least 6 feet from patient or behind a protective barrier"
"Neither the tube housing nor the position indicating device (cone, cylinder) should be hand-held during the exposure"
218
What are the exemptions for licensed hand-held units?
1. backscatter shield must be permanently mounted to the cone and used at all times
2. operators must wear a personnel monitoring device that must be evaluated monthly
3. all personnel must receive training in the use of these X-ray systems, and records of the training must be kept for review
219
Label the arrows:
Top Left: backscatter shield
Bottom Left: End of PID
Top right: control panel
Bottom right: battery (entire handle)
Middle right: trigger
220
When using a nomad, where should the backscatter shield be placed?
At the end of the PID (closest to the patient)
221
When using a nomad, where should the PID be aligned?
Align PID close to the patient
222
Radiation protection AKA:
Dose-reduction methods
223
What is the BEST way to protect patient from radiographic exposure?
Don't take radiographs at all
224
What does the "cerebral option" mean?
Not every patient needs the same radiographs every time
225
According to the cerebral option, who are NOT candidates for dental radiographs?
Low caries patients, with good oral hygiene and no concerns of dental disease
226
You should never expose a patient just for:
Updating records
227
Reduce the number of radiographs by: (3)
1. collection of patient data
2. assimilation of facts
3. critical thinking to arrive at a decision
228
The selection criteria guidelines for radiographs are supported and developed by:
1. FDI
2. FDA/ADA
229
FDI indications for imagine states that you need a specific ______ or a ____ task that a radiographic image will provide unique information not readily available form other diagnostic means
Question; diagnostic task
230
What entity states:
"you need a specific question or a diagnostic task that a radiographic image will provide unique information not readily available form other diagnostic means"
and
"imaging requires justification"
FDI
231
According to the FDI's indications for imaging, what is required prior to taking radiographs?
An initial clinical exam is required to make the assessement that they need a radiograph; most regulatory agencies require this
232
FDA radiograph guidelines created in ____ and revised in ____ & ____
1987; 2004; 2012
233
The selection criteria according the FDA/ADA states: (2)
1. follows recommendations of FDI
2. Specific need to supplement clinical information
234
Individualized radiographic exam consisting of selected periapical/occlusal views and/or posterior bitewings if promiximal surfaces cannot be probed.
Patients without evidence of disease and with open proximal contacts may not require a radiographic exam at this time:
Child with primary dentition - New patient
235
Posterior bitewing exam at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe:
Child with primary dentition or Child with transitional dentition or Adolescent with permanent dentition - high risk - Recall patient (high risk)
236
Posterior bitewing exam at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe:
Child with primary dentition or Child with transitional dentition - recall patient (no increased risk)
237
Individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior biteiwngs with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings and selected periapial images:
Child with transitional dentition - new patient
238
Individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings with selected periapical images.
An FMX is preferred when the patient has clinical evidence of generalized oral disease or a history of extensive dental treatment:
Adolescent with permanent dentition - new patient
239
Posterior bitewing exam at 6-18 month intervals:
Adult dentate or partially edentulous- recall patient (high risk)
240
Posterior bitewing exam at 18-36 month intervals:
Adolescent with permanent dentition- recall patient (not high risk)
241
Posterior bitewing exam at 24-36 month intervals:
Adult dentate or partially edentulous - recall patient (not high risk)
242
Individualized radiographic exam, based on clinical signs an symptoms:
Adult edentulous, new patient
243
Clinical situations for which radiographs may be indicated include, but are note limited to:
1. positive historical findings
2. positive clinical signs and symptoms
244
Occlusal radiography requires:
Phosphor Plate film
245
What size of sensor is used for occlusal radiography?
#2 for child
#4 for adult
246
What are the types of occlusal radiography in the maxilla?
1. standard cross-sectional
2. lateral (right/left) cross-sectional
3. anterior topographical
247
What are the types of occlusal radiography in the mandible?
1. standard cross-sectional
2. lateral (right/left) cross-sectional
3. anterior topographical
248
For standard cross-sectional maxilla radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
+65-70 degrees pointing downward
ridge of nose and center of PSP plate
249
This image shows:
Standard cross-sectional maxillary occlusal radiography
250
a true cross section=
a perpendicular image
251
What features of the palate can be seen with a standard cross-sectional maxillary occlusal radiograph?
Entire palate
252
This image shows what type of radiograph?
Standard cross-sectional maxillary occlusal radiography
253
For lateral cross-sectional maxilla occlusal radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
vertical angle= +55-60 degrees (pointed downwards)
Central ray: posterior maxilla
254
What does this image show?
lateral cross-sectional maxilla occlusal radiography
255
This image shows what type of radiograph?
lateral cross-sectional maxilla occlusal radiograph
256
For anterior topographical maxilla occlusal radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
Vertical angle= +55-60 degrees (pointed downward)
Central ray: 1/4 to 1/2 inches above tip of nose
257
What does this image show?
anterior topographical maxilla occlusal radiography
258
This image shows what type of radiograph?
anterior topographical maxilla occlusal radiograph
259
For standard cross-sectional mandibular occlusal radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
perpendicular to PSP
Between mandibular first molars, along mid-sagittal plane
260
What does this image show?
standard cross-sectional mandibular occlusal radiography
261
For lateral cross-sectional mandibular occlusal radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
vertical angle= perpendicular to PSP plate following long axis of first molar
central ray= center of PSP plate @ apex of first molar
262
For anterior topographical mandibular occlusal radiography:
The vertical angle is:
The central ray (CR) is at the:
vertical angle= -55-60 degrees (pointed upward) bisecting angle between PSP plate and long axis of incisor teeth
central ray= below apices of incisors, 1cm above tip of chin, along midline of chin, directed at center PSP plate
263
How are occlusal exposure settings when compared to posterior maxillary periapical exposures?
1 (or possible 2) exposure settings higher
264
-orthodontic evaluations
-orthognathic evalulations
-pathology beyond coverage of standard dental images
These were all indications of:
Skull radiography
265
What are the skull projections in skull radiography? (5)
1. lateral cephalogram/cephalometric
2. PA cephalogram/cephalometic
3. Waters PA
4. Reverse-Towne (PA)
5. SMV
266
what are the image enhancers for skull radiography?
1. grids (standard, focused, grid ratios)
2. air gaps
267
Reduce amount of scatter radiation exposing film and improves image contrast:
Grids with PSPP
268
What do grids do in skull radiography?
Block the scatter photons
269
What does increasing the tube-to-object distance do for skull radiography?
Improves image sharpness
270
A lateral cephalogram will identify:
1. maxillary sinus
2. frontal sinus
3. sphenoid sinus
271
Cephalometric radiography is different because there is a filter to:
capture soft tissue
272
