Exam 2 review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the outermost layer of the heart called?

A

Epicardium

The epicardium is a thin, serous membrane that provides a smooth surface for the heart.

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2
Q

What are the main functions of the epicardium?

A
  • Provides a smooth surface
  • Part of the pericardial sac
  • Contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and fat
  • Reduces friction during heart contractions

It also contains nerves from the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

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3
Q

What is the thickest layer of the heart called?

A

Myocardium

The myocardium is responsible for the contractile force that propels blood throughout the circulatory system.

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4
Q

What type of muscle cells make up the myocardium?

A

Specialized cardiac muscle cells (myocytes)

These cells are involuntary and striated.

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5
Q

Which ventricle has the thickest myocardium and why?

A

Left ventricle

It pumps oxygenated blood to the entire body, requiring higher pressure and greater force.

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6
Q

What is the innermost layer of the heart?

A

Endocardium

This layer is a thin endothelial membrane that lines the heart chambers and covers the heart valves.

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7
Q

What are the main functions of the endocardium?

A
  • Ensures smooth blood flow
  • Prevents clot formation
  • Contains specialized Purkinje fibers

The endocardium is susceptible to infections like infective endocarditis.

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8
Q

What is the function of the pericardium?

A
  • Protects the heart
  • Lubricates to prevent friction
  • Limits overexpansion

It consists of visceral and parietal layers and contains pericardial fluid.

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9
Q

What is a common condition associated with inflammation of the pericardium?

A

Pericarditis

This condition can lead to pericardial effusion and potentially cardiac tamponade.

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10
Q

Where is the carotid pulse located?

A

Between the trachea and the sternocleidomastoid muscle

It is assessed for symmetry, rate, and amplitude.

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11
Q

What is the normal rate for a carotid pulse?

A

60-100 bpm

Athletes may have a lower resting rate.

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12
Q

What does a weak or absent carotid pulse indicate?

A

Shock, arterial occlusion, or decreased cardiac output

A bounding pulse could indicate hypertension or aortic regurgitation.

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13
Q

Where is the brachial pulse palpated?

A

At the antecubital fossa

It is located on the medial side of the arm near the elbow.

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14
Q

What is the normal finding for the brachial pulse?

A

Equal bilaterally, strong, and regular

Amplitude should be 2+.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of capillary refill assessment?

A

To evaluate tissue perfusion and circulatory status

It helps detect dehydration, shock, and poor blood flow.

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16
Q

What is considered a normal capillary refill time?

A

Less than 2 seconds

Prolonged refill time may indicate decreased perfusion.

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17
Q

What factors can affect capillary refill time?

A
  • Cool environment
  • Smoking
  • Peripheral edema
  • Anemia
  • Dehydration

These conditions can influence the accuracy of the test.

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18
Q

What is the optimal patient positioning for cardiovascular assessment?

A

Supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees

This position allows for better assessment of jugular venous distention and heart sounds.

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19
Q

What causes the S1 heart sound?

A

Closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves

S1 occurs at the start of systole.

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20
Q

What is a split S2 heart sound?

A

A normal physiological finding affected by respirations

It occurs during inspiration when the pulmonic valve closure is delayed.

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21
Q

What defines a heart murmur?

A

A swishing or unusually prolonged sound indicating turbulent blood flow

Murmurs can be classified as systolic or diastolic.

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22
Q

What are the two main types of heart murmurs?

A
  • Innocent (physiologic) murmurs
  • Abnormal (pathologic) murmurs

Innocent murmurs are not caused by heart disease, while abnormal murmurs are associated with heart disease.

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23
Q

What is the grading scale for murmur intensity?

A

1 to 6 based on loudness

Grade 1 is faint, while Grade 6 is extremely loud.

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24
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

An uncomfortable sensation of breathlessness

It can indicate various underlying health issues.

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25
Q

What are the two types of murmurs and their characteristics?

A

Systolic murmurs may be benign or pathological; diastolic murmurs are always abnormal

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26
Q

How are murmurs graded?

A

By intensity, pitch, and quality

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27
Q

What is Dyspnea?

A

An uncomfortable awareness of breathing

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28
Q

What are common descriptions patients use for Dyspnea?

A
  • Shortness of breath (SOB) * Difficulty breathing * A feeling of chest tightness
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29
Q

What causes Cardiac Dyspnea?

A

Inadequate cardiac output leading to poor tissue oxygenation

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30
Q

What is Orthopnea?

A

Shortness of breath when lying flat, relieved by sitting or standing

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31
Q

What is Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)?

A

Episodes of severe shortness of breath occurring during sleep

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32
Q

What triggers Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE)?

A

Physical activity, indicating possible heart failure or other conditions

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33
Q

What is a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A

A medical emergency caused by a blood clot blocking blood flow to the lungs

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34
Q

What are classic signs of Pulmonary Embolism?

A
  • Dyspnea * Tachypnea * Pleuritic chest pain
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35
Q

What are key questions to assess Dyspnea in patients?

A
  • Do you experience shortness of breath? * What relieves or worsens it? * Does a specific position help? * How far can you walk before feeling short of breath? * Do you use supplemental oxygen?
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36
Q

What are clinical signs of severe Dyspnea?

A
  • Difficulty speaking in full sentences * Use of accessory muscles * Retractions * Cyanosis * Tachypnea
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37
Q

What is the definition of Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

A

A condition characterized by narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries due to atherosclerosis

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38
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

The most common form of arteriosclerosis, characterized by cholesterol, lipid, and calcium deposits in artery walls

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39
Q

What are the stages of Atherosclerosis progression?

A
  • Endothelial Damage * Fatty Streak Formation * Plaque Development * Plaque Rupture and Clot Formation
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40
Q

What are nonmodifiable risk factors for CAD?

A
  • Age * Gender * Genetics * Ethnicity
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41
Q

What are modifiable risk factors for CAD?

A
  • Smoking * High Cholesterol * Hypertension * Diabetes * Obesity * Sedentary Lifestyle * Poor Diet
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42
Q

What are common symptoms of CAD?

A
  • Angina (chest pain) * Shortness of breath * Fatigue * Heart attack (myocardial infarction)
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43
Q

What tests are used to diagnose CAD?

A
  • Lipid Panel * Electrocardiogram (EKG) * Echocardiogram * Stress Test * Coronary Angiography
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44
Q

What lifestyle modifications can prevent CAD?

A
  • Quit smoking * Adopt a heart-healthy diet * Exercise regularly * Manage stress
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45
Q

What medications are used for CAD prevention?

A
  • Statins * Beta-Blockers * ACE Inhibitors * Aspirin * Nitrates
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46
Q

What are surgical interventions for severe CAD cases?

A
  • Angioplasty and Stent Placement * Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)
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47
Q

What is Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)?

A

A heart attack occurring when blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked

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48
Q

What are classic symptoms of AMI?

A
  • Chest pain * Pain radiation * Shortness of breath * Cold sweat * Nausea and vomiting * Dizziness * Feeling of impending doom
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49
Q

What are atypical symptoms of AMI more common in women?

A
  • Fatigue * Indigestion or heartburn * Pain in the upper abdomen * Shortness of breath * Dizziness or fainting
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50
Q

What mnemonic can help recall symptoms of a heart attack?

A

PULSE: Pain, Unexplained shortness of breath, Lightheadedness, Sweating, Extreme fatigue

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51
Q

What immediate actions should be taken for suspected AMI?

52
Q

What does the ‘P’ in the PULSE acronym stand for?

A

Pain (chest pain)

53
Q

What does the ‘U’ in the PULSE acronym represent?

A

Unexplained shortness of breath

54
Q

What does the ‘L’ in the PULSE acronym indicate?

A

Lightheadedness or dizziness

55
Q

What does the ‘S’ in the PULSE acronym refer to?

A

Sweating profusely

56
Q

What does the ‘E’ in the PULSE acronym signify?

A

Extreme fatigue

57
Q

What is a key assessment question regarding chest pain?

A

When did the pain start?

58
Q

What immediate action should be taken in case of suspected Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)?

59
Q

What is the purpose of administering Aspirin (160-325 mg) in AMI?

A

Helps prevent clot expansion

60
Q

What oxygen saturation level indicates the need for oxygen therapy?

A

O2 saturation < 94%

61
Q

What is the purpose of Nitroglycerin in the treatment of AMI?

A

Relieves chest pain by dilating coronary arteries

62
Q

What is the ‘MONA’ acronym used for in hospital treatment of AMI?

A

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin

63
Q

What are thrombolytics used for in the context of AMI?

A

Dissolves clots, used in early AMI

64
Q

What is Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

Narrowing or occlusion of arteries outside the heart and brain due to atherosclerotic plaque buildup

65
Q

What is the single most significant contributor to PAD?

66
Q

How much does diabetes increase the risk for PAD?

67
Q

What are common symptoms of PAD?

A

Intermittent claudication, rest pain, weak or absent pulses, skin changes, delayed wound healing

68
Q

What is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) used for?

A

Assesses circulation by comparing ankle and arm blood pressures

69
Q

What is the risk of Critical Limb Ischemia (CLI) in PAD?

A

Increases the risk of non-healing ulcers and gangrene

70
Q

What lifestyle modification can reduce PAD risk by 50% within 1 year?

A

Smoking cessation

71
Q

What is the definition of Hypertension?

A

Systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥90 mmHg

72
Q

What is the classification for Hypertension Stage 1?

A

SBP 130-139 mmHg and DBP 80-89 mmHg

73
Q

What are the nonmodifiable risk factors for hypertension?

A
  • Age
  • Genetics
  • Sex
  • Ethnicity
74
Q

What is a common symptom of severe hypertension?

75
Q

What lifestyle changes can help manage hypertension?

A
  • Dietary changes (DASH Diet)
  • Regular exercise
  • Weight management
  • Smoking cessation
  • Limit alcohol
76
Q

What is Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

A

Conditions causing partial or complete obstruction of blood flow in arteries or veins outside the chest

77
Q

What are symptoms of arterial insufficiency in PVD?

A
  • Pain (Intermittent Claudication)
  • Pallor (Pale Skin)
  • Cool Skin Temperature
  • Weak or Absent Pulses
  • Ulcers on Toes/Feet
78
Q

What should patients with PVD do for foot care?

A
  • Inspect feet daily
  • Avoid walking barefoot
  • Wear well-fitted shoes
79
Q

What lifestyle modifications are recommended to prevent PVD progression?

A

Foot care, regular exercise, a healthy diet, and smoking cessation

These modifications help improve circulation and overall vascular health.

80
Q

What daily foot care practices should patients with PVD follow?

A

Inspect feet for wounds, use a mirror for soles, avoid barefoot walking, and wear well-fitted shoes

Diabetics should also monitor blood sugar levels to prevent poor wound healing.

81
Q

How does regular exercise benefit patients with PVD?

A

It improves circulation and helps prevent venous insufficiency

Patients should aim for at least 30 minutes of activity most days.

82
Q

What dietary recommendations are made for patients at risk of PVD?

A

Low-fat, low-sugar diet rich in fruits and vegetables

Controlling hypertension and cholesterol levels is also important.

83
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

Dilated, twisted veins in the lower extremities caused by incompetent valves

84
Q

What should patients do if they experience pain during exercise?

A

Immediately stop exercising

85
Q

What treatments are available for severe varicose veins?

A

Surgical treatments such as vein stripping or laser therapy

86
Q

What is the primary cause of Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

A

Arterial or venous blockages affecting circulation

87
Q

What major risk factors contribute to PVD?

A
  • Smoking
  • Diabetes
  • Obesity
  • Hypertension
88
Q

What is a Holter monitor used for?

A

To record cardiac electrical activity for 24 to 48 hours

89
Q

List some common indications for using a Holter monitor.

A
  • Palpitations
  • Dizziness or fainting
  • Chest pain
  • Unexplained fatigue
  • Post-heart attack monitoring
90
Q

What is an echocardiogram?

A

A noninvasive ultrasound that creates moving images of the heart’s structures

91
Q

What types of echocardiograms exist?

A
  • Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
  • Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE)
  • Stress Echocardiogram
  • Doppler Echocardiogram
92
Q

What does an exercise stress test evaluate?

A

Heart function and rhythm under physical stress

93
Q

What is the main purpose of an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)?

A

To record the electrical activity of the heart

94
Q

What are the key components of a heart-healthy diet?

A
  • Increase fruits & vegetables
  • Choose whole grains
  • Select lean proteins
  • Limit saturated and trans fats
  • Reduce sodium intake
95
Q

How often should cholesterol screening occur starting at age 20?

A

Every 4-6 years

96
Q

What is the correct order of assessment for the respiratory system?

A

Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation (IPPA)

97
Q

What are alveoli?

A

The smallest air sacs of the lungs, primary site of gas exchange

98
Q

What is the function of surfactant in the lungs?

A

Reduces surface tension in alveoli, preventing collapse

99
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for adults?

A

12–20 breaths per minute

100
Q

What does a barrel chest indicate?

A

An AP-to-transverse ratio of 1:1, often seen in COPD

101
Q

What does pursed lip breathing help with?

A

Prolongs exhalation and reduces airway collapse

102
Q

What respiratory condition is indicated by tachypnea?

A

More than 20 breaths per minute, can be associated with fever or anxiety

103
Q

What is the significance of the costal angle in a normal respiratory assessment?

A

It should be less than 90 degrees

104
Q

What does intercostal or accessory muscle use suggest?

A

Airway obstruction or increased respiratory effort

Indicates the patient is struggling to breathe effectively.

105
Q

What is pursed lip breathing and when is it seen?

A

Patient exhales through pursed lips to prolong expiration and improve ventilation, seen in COPD

A technique to help manage breathlessness.

106
Q

Define tachypnea.

A

> 20 breaths per minute, shallow breathing

Often associated with fever, anxiety, pneumonia.

107
Q

Define bradypnea.

A

<12 breaths per minute, slow breathing

Common causes include drug overdose, increased ICP, diabetic coma.

108
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes respiration?

A

Gradual increase in depth, then gradual decrease, followed by apnea

Associated with heart failure, brain injury, dying patients.

109
Q

What characterizes Biot’s respirations?

A

Irregular breathing pattern with variable depth and periods of apnea

Typically indicates brain damage or meningitis.

110
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Deep, rapid, labored breathing

Commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and metabolic acidosis.

111
Q

What does apnea refer to?

A

Absence of breathing for >20 seconds

Associated with respiratory failure or cardiac arrest.

112
Q

What is cardiac dyspnea?

A

Difficulty breathing related to inadequate cardiac output

Common in conditions like congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction.

113
Q

What are key signs of cardiac dyspnea?

A
  • Exertional dyspnea
  • Orthopnea
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

These signs indicate worsening breathing related to heart function.

114
Q

Define expiratory dyspnea.

A

Difficulty breathing that primarily occurs during exhalation

Usually caused by Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

115
Q

What are key signs of expiratory dyspnea?

A
  • Wheezing
  • Prolonged expiration
  • Accessory muscle use
  • Pursed-lip breathing

Characteristic of COPD-related breathing difficulties.

116
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?

A

Sudden shortness of breath during sleep, causing the patient to sit upright

Often a sign of left ventricular heart failure.

117
Q

What are common causes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A
  • Left ventricular heart failure
  • Pulmonary congestion
  • Orthopnea
  • History of heart failure symptoms

Symptoms like waking up gasping for air are common.

118
Q

What does pulse oximetry measure?

A

Continuously measures oxygen saturation (SpO₂)

Normal SpO₂ is ≥95%, accuracy may be affected by external factors.

119
Q

What is arterial blood gas (ABG) testing used for?

A

Measures levels of oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the blood

Evaluates respiratory function and acid-base balance.

120
Q

What is bronchoscopy?

A

Diagnostic or therapeutic procedure to visualize the larynx, trachea, and bronchial tree

Can be used to detect obstructions, infections, or tumors.

121
Q

What is thoracentesis?

A

Insertion of a needle into the thoracic cavity to remove or analyze pleural fluid

Used for both diagnostic purposes and therapeutic relief of pleural effusion.

122
Q

Who should receive the pneumonia vaccine?

A
  • Adults 65+
  • Individuals with chronic respiratory diseases
  • Immunocompromised patients

Recommended to reduce the risk of pneumonia.

123
Q

What are the primary functions of the pancreas?

A
  • Endocrine function: Secretes insulin
  • Exocrine function: Releases pancreatic juices for digestion

Disorders can lead to metabolic dysfunction.

124
Q

What enzymes are measured to detect pancreatic disorders?

A
  • Amylase
  • Lipase

Elevated levels indicate obstruction or inflammation.

125
Q

What do glucose levels indicate in pancreatic diagnostics?

A

Assess insulin function related to islets of Langerhans

Critical for diagnosing diabetes and other metabolic disorders.