Exam 2 MSK review Flashcards
5 P’s
Pain, Paralysis, Paraesthesia, Pallor. Pulselessness
higher risk for msk conditions
Female (b/c vitamin D, periods, fetus takes calcium from mother), sedentary lifestyle, being older
What requires a focused MSK assessment
any of the 5 P’s
pain, paralysis, parasthesia, pallor, pulselessness
What type of range of motion can i do during the clinical checkoffs
you say “patient will be doing RoM actively with me” or you move the patients arm/leg for them and say we are doing passive range of motion. you must do it BILATERALLY to assess for SYMMETRY
Rombergs
The patient stands with their feet together and arms at their sides.
The patient closes their eyes.
The examiner observes the patient’s balance and stability for about 20 seconds.
proprioception
TBI means
tramatic brain injury
ex: contact sports
Systems affected by neuro
endocrine, msk, GI, cardiovascular, GU, respiratory etc. anything that the brain can control.
What to remember about DTR
distract the patient while doing the reflex so that the reflex isn’t suppressed or upregulated. hit it with the pointed end.
What is DTR hypoactive vs hyperactive
+2 is normal.
3 or 4 is hyperactive.
0 or 1 is hypoactive.
What is clonus
A DTR that never has an off switch. You dorsiflex the foot and thats how it triggers. you make note of the number of beats. it can be indicative of a seizure oncomming.
What is a cyst?
Elevated, encapsulated, and fluid filled, measuring 1cm or larger.
Cysts can occur in various tissues and may require medical evaluation.
Define blister.
A collection of fluid below or within the epidermis.
Blisters can form due to friction, burns, or certain medical conditions.
What is basal cell carcinoma?
Most common form of cutaneous malignancy; pearl white, dome shaped papule with overlying vascular dilation, enlarges slowly.
Basal cell carcinoma typically has a low risk of metastasis but can cause local tissue damage.
Describe squamous cell carcinoma.
Malignant cutaneous malignancy arising from keratinocytes of the skin or mucosa; thick, rough, scaly, crusty, irregular borders, second most common type of skin cancer.
Squamous cell carcinoma can be more aggressive than basal cell carcinoma and may metastasize.
What is malignant melanoma?
Malignancy of the melanocytes arising in the skin, develops from a preexisting lesion, increase in size, color change, appearance of new nevi, variable appearance, curable with early detection.
Malignant melanoma is the most dangerous form of skin cancer due to its potential to spread rapidly.
Define lesion.
A circumscribed area of altered or diseased tissue.
Lesions can be benign or malignant and may require further investigation.
What does the acronym ABCDE stand for in dermatology?
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, change in color, diameter, evolution
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 122
What factors influence skin and nail growth/health?
Nutritional status, stress, disease, hormone deficiency
Stress management is also an important factor.
What is a wheal?
Raised swelling and itchy skin, usually red and caused by an allergic reaction
Wheals are often temporary and can vary in size.
What is seborrheic dermatitis commonly known as?
Cradle cap
It is characterized by chronic, greasy scale that can accumulate on the scalp, with or without redness. Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 126
What are the main symptoms of rosacea?
Redness, swelling, spider-like blood vessels on the middle of the face
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110
What is acne vulgaris?
A skin condition originating from sebaceous glands that causes blemishes, cysts, bumps, pustules, and inflammation of the skin
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110
How is acne defined?
An inflammatory disease of the sebaceous follicles of the skin, marked by comedones, papules, and pustules
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 107
What is eczema?
A skin condition that causes the skin to be itchy and inflamed, often located at the joints, and may be familial
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110
What is Purpura?
Hemorrhagic red or purple spot or rash that is flat and non-blanchable, 3-10mm, may be associated with platelet disorders
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 124
What are Petechiae?
Tiny, pinpoint hemorrhages caused by superficial bleeding from the capillaries of the skin, less than 3 mm, may be related to platelet deficiencies
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 124
What is the Epidermis?
Avascular, outer layer of the skin that is replaced every 3-4 weeks, primarily composed of keratinocytes and melanocytes, pigmentation of skin is determined at this layer
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104
What does the Dermis contain?
Connective tissue, sensory nerve fibers, capillaries, collagen, and elastin
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104
What is the Subcutaneous layer composed of?
Adipose tissue and fat; provides protection and insulation; stores fat; roots of hair follicles exist here
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 105
What is the Stratum corneum?
Part of the epidermis, thin layer of dead skin that changes in thickness depending on its location (thicker on the palms of hands and soles of feet)
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104
What are some risk factors for musculoskeletal issues?
Family history, past surgeries, past injuries, chronic diseases, nutrition, female sex, smoking, age (40-60 years at increased risk)
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 287
Which imaging tests are used for musculoskeletal evaluation?
X-ray, MRI (soft tissues), CT (bones, ligaments, joints), DEXA (bone mineral density test)
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 285
What blood test is used to assess muscular injury?
Creatine phosphokinase blood test (levels increased in the setting of muscular injury)
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 285
What are key components of prevention and education for musculoskeletal health?
Prevent illness and disability, promote healthy diet, encourage physical activity and good body mechanics, encourage stretching and work safety
None
Fill in the blank: One risk factor for musculoskeletal issues is _______.
female sex
True or False: Smoking is a risk factor for musculoskeletal issues.
True
What dietary components are important for musculoskeletal health?
Calcium, vitamin D, magnesium, phosphorus
None
Fill in the blank: The DEXA test assesses _______.
bone mineral density
What age range is considered at increased risk for musculoskeletal issues?
40-60 years
What are hypoactive bowel sounds?
Decreased peristalsis; requires listening for up to 5 minutes before declaring hypoactive bowel sounds.
Hypoactive bowel sounds suggest a reduction in intestinal activity.
What is considered a normal range for bowel sounds?
5 to 34 clicks or gurgles per minute.
This range indicates normoactive bowel sounds.
What are hyperactive bowel sounds indicative of?
35+ clicks/min, indicative of early bowel obstruction or increased peristalsis.
Hyperactive sounds may signal a potential gastrointestinal issue.
What is the primary function of the pancreas?
To release insulin (endocrine) and pancreatic juices (exocrine).
The pancreas plays a crucial role in digestion and glucose regulation.
What happens in pancreatic disorders regarding insulin?
Decreases insulin and therefore increases glucose.
This imbalance can lead to various health issues, including diabetes.
What is expiratory dyspnea?
Difficulty breathing associated with chronic obstructive lung disease; wheezing is usually present.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 206
What condition is associated with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
Shortness of breath when the patient is asleep in bed, often relieved by sitting upright; a sign of left ventricular heart failure.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 206
What causes wheezing?
Narrow passageways in the trachea-bronchial tree due to secretions, inflammation, obstruction, or a foreign body.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 215
What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A condition where pursed-lip breathing is used to reduce the work of breathing, with lips appearing as if whistling.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 205
What are normal assessment findings for respiratory health?
Transverse diameter approx. 2x the AP diameter, costal angle <90 degrees, conical shape to trunk, symmetry, uniform intact skin, normal respiratory rate, no increased work of breathing.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 209
True or False: Wheezing is a sign of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
True
Wheezing often indicates narrow passageways, commonly seen in COPD patients.
Fill in the blank: Pursed-lip breathing is used by clients with _______.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
This technique helps reduce the work of breathing.
What is the purpose of Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) measurement?
To measure the levels of O2 and CO2 in the blood
Sites for ABG measurement include radial, brachial, and femoral arteries.
What is bronchoscopy?
A diagnostic or therapeutic procedure to visualize the larynx, trachea, and bronchial tree
It involves inserting a fiberoptic bronchoscope through the nose or mouth into the trachea and bronchi, performed under anesthesia or conscious sedation.
What is thoracentesis?
Insertion of a needle into the thoracic cavity for analysis or removal of fluid from the pleural space
This procedure can be either diagnostic or therapeutic.
What are alveoli?
Smallest air sacs of the lungs, consisting of squamous cells, secrete surfactant; air is filtered through small capillaries into arterial blood; gases move across capillaries for gas exchange to occur.
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 202
What is the function of the trachea?
Allows air to flow into the bronchi.
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201
What is the nasopharynx?
Start of respiratory cycle, warms, humidifies, and filters air.
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201
What is the oropharynx?
Passage between nose, sinuses, larynx, and trachea; major role is speech, breathing, prevents aspiration during swallowing, no air exchange.
Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201
Fill in the blank: The smallest air sacs of the lungs are called _______.
alveoli
Alveoli are crucial for gas exchange.
True or False: The trachea is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
True
This structure helps to trap and move particles out of the respiratory system.
What are the main functions of the nasopharynx?
Warms, humidifies, and filters air.
This is essential for preparing air for the lungs.
What role does the oropharynx play in the respiratory system?
Speech, breathing, prevents aspiration during swallowing, no air exchange.
It connects the nasal cavity to the larynx.
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
A neurological assessment that scores a client’s response based on best verbal response, best motor response, and best eye-opening response.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322
Define aphasia.
A complete impairment of comprehension and expression in the verbal, written, and signed modalities.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317
What is neuropathy?
Sensation of the skin; numbness and tingling in extremities caused by nerve damage or injury; loss of sensation that may feel like numbness, tingling, or the inability to feel.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317
What is neuropathic pain?
Occurs when nerves of the peripheral nervous system are damaged, caused by peripheral vascular disease, tissue ischemia, and diabetes; symptoms include tingling, numbness, a burning sensation, pain, or muscle weakness.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317
What is hemiparesis?
Loss of muscle tone/strength to unilateral side of body; indicative of stroke, neurological injury, or disease.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329
Define paraplegia.
Absence of movement and sensation in bilateral lower extremities; indicative of spinal cord injury/lesion at or below the thoracic spine level.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329
What is quadriplegia?
Absence of movement and sensation in upper and lower extremities; indicative of spinal cord injury/lesion at or below the cervical spine level.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329
What does lethargy refer to?
Drowsy; sometimes difficult to arouse.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322
What is unconsciousness?
Unable to be aroused or awakened.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322
Define ptosis.
Drooping of the eyelid caused by muscle or nerve dysfunction, injury, or disease.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 189
What is neuralgia?
Pain that occurs along a nerve pathway.
Source: Not specified
Define encephalopathy.
Generalized brain dysfunction marked by varying degrees of impairment of speech, cognition, orientation, and arousal.
Source: Taber, 2021, pg. 813
Fill in the blank: Neuropathy is characterized by _______.
Numbness and tingling in extremities caused by nerve damage or injury.
Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317
What is a concussion?
Traumatic brain injury with proven temporary short term memory loss
Long-term memory and temporary short-term memory loss are proven with concussion and traumatic injury from contact sports. (Thompson, 2018, pg. 316)
What are the two main types of stroke?
- Ischemic: occlusion of oxygenated blood flow to the brain
- Hemorrhagic: leaking of blood from an artery in the brain
(Thompson, 2018, pg. 319)
What does the acronym FAST stand for in stroke recognition?
- Face
- Arm
- Speech
- Time
(Thompson, 2018, pg. 342)
What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
A temporary loss of blood flow to the brain, lasting only a few minutes
May cause loss of sensation, numbness, dysphasia, double vision, dysphagia, dizziness, and motor/sensory deficits. (Thompson, 2018, pg. 317)
What are some risk factors for stroke?
- Hypertension
- High cholesterol
- Cigarette smoking
- Diabetes
- Inactivity
- Obesity
(Thompson, 2018, pg. 342)
Fill in the blank: Ischemic stroke is caused by _______ of oxygenated blood flow to the brain.
occlusion
True or False: A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) can last for hours.
False
A TIA may last only a few minutes.