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Drug Info > Exam 2 questions > Flashcards

Exam 2 questions Flashcards

1
Q

age limit on montelukast chewable tablets

A

6-14 yrs

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2
Q

What is the strength of the azelastine Op. solution?

A

0.05%

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3
Q

best prevention of Thrush

A

Rinse out mouth 15 min after using inhaled corticosteroids

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4
Q

strength of loratadine chewable tablet

A

5mg

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5
Q

What is fexofenadine?

A

Allegra

Antihistamine

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6
Q

Strength of Astelin

A

0.1%

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7
Q

Indication for Xopenex

A

Asthma treatment and prevention

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8
Q

What is the generic that is dispensed in an aerolizer?

A

formoterol

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9
Q

What is the tradde name for formoterol

A

Foradil Aerolizer

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10
Q

Strength of Astepro

A

0.15%

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11
Q

Indication for Asmanex Twisthaler

A

asthma prophylaxis

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12
Q

Strength(s) of Xyzal tablets

A

Tablets: 5mg

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13
Q

What is oral thrush caused by?

A

Candida albicans

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14
Q

age limit on montelukast granules

A

6mo-5yrs
can sprinkle on food or take orally
do not mix with water

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15
Q

Indication for Optivar

A

allergic conjuctivitis

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16
Q

Indication for Flovent HFA

A

asthma prophylaxis

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17
Q

Drug strength of Xopenex HFA

A

45mcg/inhalation

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18
Q

Symptoms of Allergic Rhinitis

A

rhinorrhea, pruriitus, sneezing

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19
Q

trade name of levalbuterol soln. for nebulization

A

Xopenex

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20
Q

strength of Singulair tablet

A

10mg

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21
Q

what is the dosage form of Astelin?

A

nasal spray

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22
Q

rhinitis

A

inflammation of the mucus membranes of the nose

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23
Q

Indication(s) for Vistaril

A

Anxiety, nausea + vomiting, pruritis(Itching involved with hives)

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24
Q

Dosing interval for all albuterol products

A

4 times daily

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25
Q

Dosing interval for Xopenex

A

4 times daily

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26
Q

Indication for beclomethasone

A

asthma prophylaxis

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27
Q

What is the BBW for salmeterol

A

May increase risk for asthma related death

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28
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

Inflammation that is caused by an allergic reaction

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29
Q

Drug(s) that are OTC

A 
Zyrtec
Xyzal
Claritin
Claritin RediTabs
Clarinex
Clarinex RediTabs
Allegra Allergy 12 Hour
Allegra Allergy 24 Hour
Children's Allegra Allergy
Allegra D 12 Hour
Allegra D 24 Hour
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30
Q

Dosing form of Serevent Diskus

A

DPI

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31
Q

Dosing interval for salmeterol

A

twice Daily

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32
Q

Dosing interval for Foradil Aerolizer?

A

Twice daily

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33
Q

Dosage form of Xopenex HFA

A

MDI

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34
Q

Dosage form of Symbicort

A

MDI

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35
Q

Strength of Zyzal soln.

A

2.5mg/5mL

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36
Q

Indications for montelukast

A

allergic rhinits
EIA
Asthma prophylaxis

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37
Q

MIx contained in Xopenex HFA

A

R isomer of albuterol

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38
Q

Strength of chorpheniramine in Tussionex

A

8mg/5ml

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39
Q

Indications for Zyrtec(cetirizine)?

A

Allergic Rhinitis

Chronic Idiopathic Urticaria

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40
Q

What generation is chlorpheniramine?

A

1st Gen

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41
Q

Dosing interval for budesonide respules

A

twice daily

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42
Q

Antitussive

A

Cough relief

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43
Q

Indication for Symbicort

A

asthma prophylaxis

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44
Q

Strength of fexofenadine Allergy 24 hour

A

180mg

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45
Q

trade name for ODT loratadine

A

Claritin RediTabs

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46
Q

Dosage form of fluticasone (Inhaled)

A

Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI)

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47
Q

Dosing interval for levocetirizine

A

1 daily

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48
Q

what is the the trade name for the dispensing device for budesonide (inhaled)

A

Flexhaler

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49
Q

drug strength of Ventolin HFA

A

90mcg/inhalation

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50
Q

What generation is Benadryl?

A

1st Gen.

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51
Q

Age limit for Astelin

A

5 and older

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52
Q

Indication for Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

asthma prophylaxis

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53
Q

Age limit on montelukast tablets

A

15 and older

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54
Q

Dosing interval for Xyzal

A

1 daily

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55
Q

Mixture of Zyzal

A

R Isomer of cetirizine

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56
Q

Resin used in extended release suspension

A

polistirex

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57
Q

OTC product used to treat Thrush

A

gentian violet

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58
Q

Strength of CHildren’s Allegra Allergy oral suspension

A

30mg/5mL

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59
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

runny nose

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60
Q

Indication for Optivar

A

allergic conjuctivitis

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61
Q

Dosing interval for Serevent Diskus

A

Twice Daily

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62
Q

What is chlorpheniramine indicated for?

A

allergic rhinitis

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63
Q

Dosing interval for zafirlukast

A

twice daily

take on an empty stomach

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64
Q

Indication for formoterol

A

asthma prophylaxis

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65
Q

What produces a bad aftertaste?

A

Astelin

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66
Q

Is Zyrtec non-sedating?

A

No

Claritin and Allegra are non-sedating

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67
Q

Age limit for Astepro

A

12 and older

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68
Q

What generation is cyproheptadine?

A

1st Gen

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69
Q

Indication for Astelin

A

allergic rhinitis

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70
Q

What is the strength(s) of desloratadine ODT tablets?

A

2.5mg, 5mg

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71
Q

Stength(s) of Zytec tablets

A

Tablets: 5mg, 10mg

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72
Q

What is Allegra D 24 Hour?

A

extended release tablet
180mg fexofenadine
240mg pseudoephedrine

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73
Q

Xyzal is indicated for:

A

Chronic Idiopathic Urticaria

Allergic Rhinitis

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74
Q

Dosing interval for Delsym

A

Twice daily

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75
Q

Dosage form of Ventolin HFA

A

MDI

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76
Q

Drug strength in ProAir HFA

A

90mcg/inhalation

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77
Q

2 types of allergic rhinitis

A

Seasonal(Periodical)

Perennial(Year Round)

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78
Q

Strength(s) of Claritin tablet

A

10mg

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79
Q

oral candidiasis

A

Oral thrush

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80
Q

Indication(s) for Claritin(loratadine)?

A

Allergic Rhinitis

Chronic Idiopathic Urticaria

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81
Q

drug strength of Preventil HFA

A

90mcg/inhalation

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82
Q

Strength of Allegra Allergy 12 hour

A

60mg

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83
Q

What is the hydroxyzine metabolite?

A

cetirizine

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84
Q

Strength(s) of Zytrec cheweable tablets

A

Cheweable Tablets: 5mg, 10mg

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85
Q

strength of dextromethorphan in Delsym

A

30mg/5ml

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86
Q

What causes Thrush?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

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87
Q

Strength(s) of Zyrtec syrup

A

Syrup: 5mg/5mL

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88
Q

stength of Singulair granules

A

4mg/packet

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89
Q

Receptor NOT involved with allergic rhinitis

A

Histamine-2 (H-2) Receptor

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90
Q

strength of Singulair chewable tablet

A

4mg, 5mg

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91
Q

Strength of cetirizine syrup

A

5mg/5mL

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92
Q

What is Allegra D 12 Hour?

A

extended-release tablet
60mg fexofenadine
120mg pseudoephedrine-nasal decongestant

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93
Q

What is the device that is used to deliver salmeterol

A

Diskus

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94
Q

Clinical term for Oral Thrush

A

oral candidiasis

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95
Q

What is contained in Astepro

A

sorbitol

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96
Q

Strength of Children’s Allegra Allergy

A

30mg

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97
Q

Mediators that cause inflammation and symptoms

A

Histamine
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes

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98
Q

Action of inhaled corticosteroids

A

reduce the production of inflammatory mediators

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99
Q

What is the dispensing device for formoterol

A

Aerolizer

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100
Q

Discard asmanex after…

A

45 days

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101
Q

Strength(s) of levocetrizine soln,

A

2.5mg/5mL

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102
Q

Indication for Astepro

A

allergic rhinitis

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103
Q

Discard Symbicort after…

A

3 months

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104
Q

Zyrtec is indicated for:

A

Chronic Idiopathic Urticaria

Allergic Rhinitis

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105
Q

Indication for Foradil Aerolizer

A

asthma prophylaxis

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106
Q

Adult Rx for Thrush

A

clotrimazole troches

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107
Q

Indication for Accolate

A

asthma prophylaxis

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108
Q

what is the strength(s) of Clarinex tablet?

A

5mg

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109
Q

Dosage form for Pulmicort respules

A

suspension for nebulization

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110
Q

What is the drug strength of Optivar?

A

0.05%

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111
Q

Dyspnea

A

difficulty breathing

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112
Q

What is the indication for diphenhydramine?

A

allergic rhinitis

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113
Q

When should you discard the Serevent Diskus?

A

6 weeks

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114
Q

What is the strength of Clarinex syrup?

A

2.5mg/5ml

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115
Q

what is the trade name of the dispensing devise for mometasone (Inhaled)

A

Twisthaler

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116
Q

child Rx for Thrush

A

nystatin suspension

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117
Q

Ventolin HFA should be discarded after…

A

3 months

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118
Q

Non-FDA indication for cyproheptadine

A

anorexia

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119
Q

What is the dosage form of Optivar?

A

Op. solution

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120
Q

Dosing interval for montelukast

A

1 daily or 2hrs prior to exercise

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121
Q

Dosage form of Asmanex Twisthaler

A

Dry Powder Inhaler (DPI)

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122
Q

Strength of childrens strength fexofenadine ODT

A

30mg

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123
Q

Strength of loratadine syrup

A

5mg/5mL

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124
Q

Dosing interval for Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

Twice daily

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125
Q

Dosing interval for Zyrtec

A

1 daily

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126
Q

Dosage form of ProAir HFA

A

MDI

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127
Q

Dosing interval for Tussionex

A

twice daily

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128
Q

What is deloratadine?

A

Active metabolite of loratadine

trade name: Clarinex

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129
Q

Dosage form of Proventil HFA

A

MDI

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130
Q

Strength(s) of Claritin ODT tablets

A

10mg

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131
Q

pruritus

A

itching

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132
Q

Symptoms of allergic rhinitis

A

Sneezing
Pruritus
Rhinorrhea

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133
Q

Indication for QVAR

A

asthma prophylaxis

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134
Q

Dosing interval for Zyrtec

A

1 daily

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135
Q

Indication for Pulmicort respules

A

Asthma prophylaxis

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136
Q

Indications for albuterol

A

Relieves accute asthma attacks
Prevention of EIA
Treatment and prevention of asthma

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137
Q

Receptor involved with allergic rhinitis

A

Histamine-1 (H-1) Receptor

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138
Q

Drugs that are Prescription only

A

Astelin
Astepro
Optivar

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139
Q

What generation is Vistaril?

A

1st Gen

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140
Q

INdication for levalbuterol

A

Asthma treatment and prevention

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141
Q

Strength of Hydrocodone in Tussionex

A

10mg/5ml

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142
Q

dosage form of beclomethasone

A

MDI

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143
Q

Dosage form of Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

DPI

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144
Q

Dosing interval for cetirizine

A

1 daily

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145
Q

Dosing interval for Zyzal

A

1 daily

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146
Q

Dosing interval for QVAR

A

Twice Daily

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147
Q

Avelox

A

moxifloxacin
Tablet

Fluoroquinolones

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148
Q

Vigamox

A

moxifoxacin
Op. Soln.

Fluoroquinolone

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149
Q

generic 1st Gen. cephalosporin

A

cefadroxil

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150
Q

Tobradex

A

tobramycin, dextromethasone

aminoglycoside, corticosteroid

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151
Q

Sporanox

A

itraconazole

Triazole antifungal

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152
Q

Altabax

A

retapamulin

Topical Antibiotic

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153
Q

DuraSite

A

Polymer that adheres to eye surface

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154
Q

Differin

A

adapalene

Acne

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155
Q

Diflucan

A

fluconazole

tiazole
Antifungal

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156
Q

Ciloxan

A

ciprofloxacin
Op. Soln.
Op. Susp.
Fluoroquinolone

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157
Q

Z-Max

A

azithromycin
extended-release microspheres for oral suspension

Macrolide

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158
Q

Zovirax

A

acyclovir

Antiviral

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159
Q

Cefdin

A

cefuroxime

2rd. Gen
Cephalosporin

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160
Q

Bactroban Nasal

A

mupirocin
Intranasal Ointment

Antiobiotic

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161
Q

Ocuflox

A

ofloxacin

Fluoroquinolone

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162
Q

Noxafil

A

posaconazole

Triazole antifungal

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163
Q

Tamiflu

A

oseltamivir

neuraminidase inhibitor
Antiviral

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164
Q

Ciprodex

A

ciprofoxacin, dexomethasone

Fluoroquinolone + Corticosteroid

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165
Q

Generic 3rd Gen. Cephalosporin

A

cefdinir

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166
Q

Besivance

A

besifloxacin
Op. Susp.

Fluoroquinolone

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167
Q

Valtrex

A

valacyclovir

Antiviral

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168
Q

Lamisil

A

terbinafine

Antifungal

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169
Q

Zithromax

A

azithromycin

Macrolide

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170
Q

AzaSite

A

azithromycin
Op. Soln.

Macrolide

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171
Q

Biaxin XL

A

clarythromycin
extended release

Macrolide

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172
Q

Cipro

A

ciprofloxacin
Tablet

Fluoroquinolone

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173
Q

Biaxin

A

clarythromycin

Macrolide

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174
Q

Spectracef

A

cefditoren

3rd Gen.
Cephalosporin

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175
Q

Bactroban

A

mupirocin

Topical Antibiotic

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176
Q

Levaquin

A

levofloxacin

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177
Q

Vfend

A

voriconazole

Triazole antifungal

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178
Q

Zymaxid

A

gatifloxacin

Fluoroquinolone

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179
Q

Lamictal

A

lamotrigine

Anticonvulsant

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180
Q

Nizoral

A

ketoconazole

Imidazole antifungal

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181
Q

Keflex

A

cephalexin

1st Gen.
Cephalosporin

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182
Q

Generic macrolide

A

erythromycin

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183
Q

Suprax

A

cefixime

3rd Gen.
Cephalosporin

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184
Q

Indication for Bactroban

A

impetigo-blisters around the mouth

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185
Q

strength for Bactroban

A

2%

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186
Q

Myasnethia gravis

A

automimmune neuromuscular disease-causes muscle weakness

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187
Q

What is herpes labialis?

A

Cold sore

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188
Q

Gen. of Keflex

A

1st Gen

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189
Q

dosage forms of Keflex

A

capsule

powder for oral suspensions - fridge after reconstitution

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190
Q

Indication for Ocuflox

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

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191
Q

generic macrolide

A

erythromycin

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192
Q

What is tinea corporis?

A

Ring worm

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193
Q

tablet trade name for moxifloxacin

A

Avelox

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194
Q

Indication for Zovirax cream

A

herpes labialis

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195
Q

Ingredients in Tobradex

A

tobramycin, dexamethasone

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196
Q

Dosing interval for Valtrex treating initial herpes genitalis

A

1g twice daily for 10 days

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197
Q

Indication(s) for Lamisil AT

A

tinea corporis
tinea pedis
tinea cruris

198
Q

What does a neuroaminidase do?

A

Inhibits the key protein needed for viral replication

199
Q

trade name for gatifloxacin

A

Zymaxid

200
Q

indication for gatifloxacin

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

201
Q

generic for Vigamox

A

moxifloxacin

202
Q

Dosage forms for Tamiflu

A

capsule

powder for oral suspension

203
Q

dosage form for Zymaxid

A

Op. solution

204
Q

generic for Avelox

A

moxifloxacin

205
Q

Instructions for pt’s with 1g Azithromycin powder pack

A

mix with 60ml and drink all at once

206
Q

Dose of DIflucan for vaginal candidiasis

A

150mg single oral dose

207
Q

Dosing interval for Tamiflu for prophylaxis

A

1 dose daily for 10 days

208
Q

Inidcation for Ciloxan

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

209
Q

trade name for cefditoren

A

Spectracef

210
Q

dosage form of Besivance

A

Op. Suspension

211
Q

generic name for Suprax

A

cefixime

212
Q

Indication(s) for Lamisil

A

onychomycosis

213
Q

Indications for Diflucan

A

oral candidiasis
esophageal candidiasis
vaginal candidiasis

214
Q

what fluoroquinoloone has the highest incidense

A

Levaquin (levofloxacin)

215
Q

tablet trade name levofloxacin

A

Levaquin

216
Q

BBW’s for fluorquionolones

A
  • May cause tendon rupture-especially the Achilles tendon

- Avoid giving to pt’s with myasthenia gravis

217
Q

Definition of comedo

A

Initial lesion of acne
Differin reduces comedo formation
Takes 2 to 3 months for a noticable difference

218
Q

Gen. of Suprax

A

3rd Gen

219
Q

dosage form for cefdinir

A

caspule

powder for oral suspension - store at room temp

220
Q

Dosage forms for Differin

A

cream
gel
lotion

221
Q

generic name for Spectracef

A

cefditoren

222
Q

strength(s) for Biaxin tablet

A

250mg, 500mg

223
Q

indication for besifloxacin

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

224
Q

strength of Altabax

A

1%

225
Q

trade name for terbinafine cream

A

Lamisil AT

226
Q

ophthalmic solution trade name for moxifloxacin

A

Vigamox

227
Q

strength of Lamisil AT cream

A

1%

228
Q

Indication for Bactroban Nasal

A

eradicate MRSA-methicillin resistant staph aureus

229
Q

generic for Zymaxid

A

gatifloxacin

230
Q

dosage forms for cefadroxil

A

capsule

powder for oral suspension - fridge after reconstitution

231
Q

onychomychosis

A

fungal infection of the toe or finger nail

232
Q

Generic name for Bactroban

A

mupirocin

233
Q

ingredients in Ciprodex

A

ciprofloxacin, dexamethasone

234
Q

strengths for Biaxin granules for oral suspension

A

125/5 250/5

235
Q

dosage form for retapamulin

A

ointment

236
Q

strength(s) for clarithromycin tablets

A

250mg, 500mg

237
Q

Who reconstitutes Z-MAx?

A

In the pharmacy with 60ml of H20

238
Q

What antiviral is a prodrug?

A

Valtrex (valacyclovir)

239
Q

Indication for retapamulin

A

impetigo

240
Q

Dosage form for Oculfox

A

Op. solution

241
Q

strengths for azithromycin powder for oral suspension

A

100mg/5ml

200mg/5ml

242
Q

INstructions for patients taking Tamiflu

A

take with food - reduces the nausea associated with taking Tamiflu

243
Q

polymer found in AzaSite

A

DuraSite

244
Q

Indication for Zovirax ointment

A

genital herpes

245
Q

Allergy considerations for Cephalosporins

A

ceph’s are related to penicillins-pt’s allergic to pennicillins may be allergic to ceph’s

246
Q

What is herpes genitalis?

A

genital herpes

247
Q

Indication for acyclovir cream

A

herpes labialis

248
Q

dosage form of besifloxacin

A

Op. suspension

249
Q

Dosing interval for Valtrex treating herpes labialis

A

2g in the morning, then 2g in the evening. This is a 1 day dose

250
Q

Dosing interval for Valtrex treating recurrent herpes genitalis

A

500mg twice daily for 3 days

251
Q

trade name for cefuroxime

A

Cefdin

252
Q

Yeast that causes candidiasis

A

candida albicans

253
Q

clarithromycin extended release tablet

A

Biaxin XL

254
Q

trade name of besifloxacin

A

Besivance

255
Q

Storage for Diflucan suspension

A

store at room temp

256
Q

Dosing interval for Valtrex treating varicella zoster

A

Depends on weight - Three times daily for 5 days

257
Q

How do you store Biaxin suspension?

A

store at room temperature when mixed

258
Q

What shoudl pt’s avoid while taking fluoroquinolones?

A

multivitamins/dairy of calcium supplement

causes chelation

259
Q

dosage forms for Suprax

A

tablet

powder for oral suspension - store at room temp after reconstitution

260
Q

trade name for azithromycin

A

Zithromax

261
Q

Trade name for ophthalmic ofloxacin

A

Ocuflox

262
Q

strength of single dose azithromycin powder packet

A

1 gram

263
Q

what does Tobradex do in children

A

causes glaucoma

264
Q

generic name for Cefdin

A

cefuroxime

265
Q

Indication for acyclovir ointment

A

genital herpes

266
Q

trade name for cefixime

A

Suprax

267
Q

generic for besivance

A

besifloxacin

268
Q

tinea unguium

A

fungal infection of the toe or finger nail

269
Q

gen for cefdinir

A

3rd Gen

270
Q

strength of retapamulin

A

1%

271
Q

Indications for Zovirax tablet

A

herpes genitalis
herpes zoster
vericella zoster
herpes labialis

272
Q

strength(s) of Biaxin XL

A

500mg

273
Q

dosage form for Z-Max

A

extended-release microspheres for oral suspension

274
Q

dosage forms of Diflucan

A

tablet

powder for oral suspension

275
Q

indication for Ciprodex

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

276
Q

Dosing interval for Tamiflu for treatment

A

Twice daily for 5 days

277
Q

Indication for Vigamox

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

278
Q

Rule about ceph’s generations

A

the higher the generations go, the more gram- activity and less gram+ activity

279
Q

Indication for Altabax

A

impetigo

280
Q

What SALAD drug is often confused with Lamisil?

A

Lamictal(lamotrigine)

281
Q

Indication for AzaSite

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

282
Q

tablet size for Lamisil

A

250mg

283
Q

Indication for levofloxacin Op. solution

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

284
Q

generic name for Altabax

A

retapamulin

285
Q

trade name for op. solution of azithromycin

A

AzaSite

286
Q

trade name for mupirocin

A

Bactroban

287
Q

Age limit for fluoroquinolones

A

18

288
Q

trade name for cefadroxil

A

none

289
Q

Gen. of cefadroxil

A

1st Gen

290
Q

Indication for Besivance

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

291
Q

Storage info for Tamiflu suspension

A

store in fridge after reconstitution

292
Q

Dosing interval for Valtrex treating herpes zoster

A

1g three times daily for 1 week

293
Q

Who reconstitutes azithromycin powder for oral suspension

A

reconstituted in the pharmacy

294
Q

trade name for cefdinir

A

none

295
Q

Important info about cefdinir

A

can cause red stool in children

296
Q

dosage forms of fluconazole

A

tablet

powder for oral suspension

297
Q

What other concern is associated with Fluoroquinolones?

A

lowers the seizure threshold

298
Q

auxillary label for Ciprodex

A

Shake well

299
Q

storage for fluconazole suspension

A

store at room temp

300
Q

tablet strength for terbinafine

A

250mg

301
Q

Dosing interval for AzaSite

A

1 drop twice daily for 2 days, then 1 drop daily for the next 5 days

302
Q

mupirocin trade name for intranasal ointment

A

Bactroban Nasal

303
Q

trade name for Op. soln and ointment for ciprofloxacin

A

Ciloxan

304
Q

What is Tobradex not indicated fo

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

305
Q

What is varicella zoster?

A

Chickenpox

306
Q

indication for Zymaxid

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

307
Q

Dosage forms of Cefdin

A

tablet

powder for oral suspension - fridge after reconstitution

308
Q

gen for cefixime

A

3rd gen

309
Q

Gen. of cephalexin

A

1st Gen

310
Q

Available strengths for valacyclovir

A

500mg, 1000mg

311
Q

What is tinea pedis?

A

athlete’s foot

312
Q

indications for Zovirax capsule

A

herpes genitalis
herpes zoster
vericella zoster
herpes labialis

313
Q

INstructions for Z-Max to pt’s

A

Drink within 12 hours

Take on empty stomach

314
Q

Indications for Zovirax ready-to-use suspension

A

herpes genitalis
herpes zoster
vericella zoster
herpes labialis

315
Q

tablet trade name for clarithromycin

A

Biaxin

316
Q

Strength for Z-Max

A

2g single dose bottle

317
Q

What does Valtrex convert into?

A

acyclovir

318
Q

dosage form of Altabax

A

ointment

319
Q

strength of terbinafine cream

A

1%

320
Q

trade name for retapamulin

A

Altabax

321
Q

generic for Ocuflox

A

ofloxacin

322
Q

Gen. of Cefdin

A

2nd Gen

323
Q

generic of Levaquin

A

levofloxacin

324
Q

trade tablet name for ciprofloxacin

A

Cipro

325
Q

strength(s) for azithromycin tablet

A

250mg, 500mg

326
Q

strength of mupirocin

A

2%

327
Q

strength(s) of clarithromycin extended release

A

500mg

328
Q

Storage instructions for AzaSite

A

store in fridge at pharmacy-pt can store at room temperature

329
Q

Available strengths for Valtrex

A

500mg, 1000mg

330
Q

dosage form for Spectracef

A

tablet - take with food

331
Q

Gen. of cefuroxime

A

2nd Gen

332
Q

What is herpes zoster?

A

Shingles

333
Q

what is tinea cruris?

A

Jock itch

334
Q

INdication for 1g powder pack Azithromycin

A

chlamydia

335
Q

other dosage form of ofloxacin

A

otic solutioin

336
Q

dosage forms of Zovirax

A 
capsule
tablet
ready-to-use oral suspension
cream
ointment
337
Q

dosage form for gatifloxacin

A

Op. solution

338
Q

Asacol

A

mesalamine

delyaed release tablet

339
Q

Dexilant

A

dexlansoprazole

PPI

340
Q

Prilosec

A

omeprazole

PPI

341
Q

Azulfidine EnTab

A

sulfasalazine

Enteric-Coated

342
Q

Apriso

A

mesalamine

delayed-release/extended-release

343
Q

metoclopramide

A

Prokinetic/Antiemetic

344
Q

Pentasa

A

mesalamine

controlled-release

345
Q

Prevacid

A

lansoprazole

PPI

346
Q

Canasa

A

mesalamine

suppository

347
Q

Zegerid

A

omeprazole, NaHCO3

PPI

348
Q

Rowasa

A

mesalamine

rectal suspension

349
Q

Nexium

A

esomeprazole

PPI

350
Q

Protonix

A

pantoprazole

PPI

351
Q

Azulfidine

A

sulfasalazine

352
Q

AcipHex

A

rabeprazole

PPI

353
Q

Lialda

A

mesalamine

delayed-release tablet

354
Q

Xopenex

A

levalbuterol
Soln. for Nebulization
Inhaled Bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

355
Q

Astepro

A

azelastine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

356
Q

Singulair

A

montelukast

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist

357
Q

Rhinocort Aqua

A

Budesonide

Intranasal corticosteroids

358
Q

Optivar

A

azelastine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

359
Q

Atrovent HFA

A

ipratropium

Inhaled Bronchodilator
Anticholinergic Bronchodilator

360
Q

Proair HFA

A

albuterol

Inhaled bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

361
Q

Xopenex HFA

A

levalbuterol

Inhaled Bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

362
Q

Delsym

A

dextromethorphan polistirex

Antitussive

363
Q

Accolate

A

Zafirlukast

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

364
Q

QVAR

A

Beclomethasone

Inhaled corticosteroids

365
Q

Foradil Aerolizer

A

formoterol

Beta-2 Agonist

366
Q

Generic 1st gen h1 receptor antagonist

A

Chlorpheniramine

367
Q

Dymista

A

Fluticasone & azelastine

Corticosteroid + h1 receptor antagonist

368
Q

Astelin

A

azelastine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

369
Q

Xyzal

A

levocetirizine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

370
Q

Zyrtec

A

cetirizine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

371
Q

Benadryl

A

Diphenhydramine

H-1 receptor antagonist

372
Q

Spiriva HandiHaler

A

tiotropium

Inhaled Bronchodilator
Anticholinergic Bronchodilator

373
Q

Asmanex Twisthaler

A

mometasone

Inhaled Corticosteroid

374
Q

Pulmicort Respules

A

Budesonide

Suspension for nebulization
Corticosteroids

375
Q

Allegra D 24 Hour

A

fexofenadine, pseudoephedrine

376
Q

Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

Budesonide

Inhaled corticosteroids

377
Q

Ventolin HFA

A

albuterol

Inhaled bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

378
Q

Serevent Diskus

A

salmeterol

Beta-2 Agonist
Long Acting

379
Q

Claritin RediTabs

A

loratadine
ODT

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

380
Q

Tussionex

A

chlorpheniramine polistirex, hydrocodone polistirex

H-1 Receptor Antagonist, Analgesic + Antitussive
Extended-release suspension

381
Q

Asmanex Twisthaler

A

Mometasone

Inhaled corticosteroids

382
Q

Proventil HFA

A

albuterol

Inhaled Bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

383
Q

Nasacort AQ

A

Triamcinolone

Intranasal corticosteroid

384
Q

Combivent Respimat

A

albuterol, ipratropium

Beta-2 Agonist, Anticholinergic Bronchodilator

385
Q

Advair Diskus

A

fluticasone, salmeterol

Corticosteroid, Anticholinergic Bronchodilatir

386
Q

Flovent HFA

A

fluticasone

Inhaled Corticosteroid

387
Q

DuoNeb

A

albuterol, irpatropium
Soln. for Nebulization
Beta-2 Agonist, Anticholinergic Bronchodilator

388
Q

Vistaril

A

Hydroxyzine

389
Q

Allegra Allergy 24 Hour

A

fexofenadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

390
Q

Singulair

A

montelukast

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

391
Q

Symbicort

A

budesonide, formoterol

Corticosteroid, Beta-2 Agonist

392
Q

Omnaris

A

Ciclesonide

Intranasal corticosteroids

393
Q

Pulmicort Respules

A

budesonide

Inhaled Corticosteroid

394
Q

Flovent HFA

A

Fluticasone

Inhaled Corticosteroid

395
Q

Clarinex

A

desloratadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

396
Q

Another generic for 1st gen h1 receptor antagonist

A

Cyproheptadine

397
Q

Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

budesonide

Inhaled Corticosteroid

398
Q

Generic for Anticholinergic Bronchodilator
No trade name
Soln. for Nebulization

A

ipratropium

Soln. for Nebulization

399
Q

Advair HFA

A

fluticasone, salmeterol

Corticosteroid, Anticholinergic Bronchodilator

400
Q

Clarinex RediTabs

A

desloratadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

401
Q

AccuNeb

A

albuterol
Soln. for Nebulization
Inhaled Bronchodilator
Beta-2 Agonist

402
Q

Flonase

A

Fluticasone propionate

Intranasal corticosteroid

403
Q

QVAR

A

beclamethasone

Inhaled Corticosteroid

404
Q

Children’s Allegra Allergy

A

fexofenadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

405
Q

Veramyst

A

Fluticasone furoate

Intranasal corticosteroid

406
Q

Nasonex

A

Mometasone

Intranasal corticosteroid

407
Q

Allegra Allergy 12 Hour

A

fexofenadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

408
Q

Accolate

A

zafirlukast

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonst

409
Q

Claritin

A

loratadine

H-1 Receptor Antagonist

410
Q

Allegra D 12 Hour

A

fexofenadine, pseudoephedrine

411
Q

Strength of Zegerid powder for oral suspension (Rx)

A

20mg omeprazole
1680mg NaHCO3

40mg omeprazole
1680mg NaHCO3

412
Q

What is contained in Zegerid?

A

NaHCO3 and omeprazole

413
Q

Indications for sulfasalazine

A

ulcerative colitis

rheumatoid arthritis

414
Q

Dosage forms of metoclopramide

A 
tablet (5mg, 10mg)
oral solution (5mg/5ml)
415
Q

What is the CTZ?

A

Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone - Nausea center in the brain

416
Q

Is Zegerid enteric-coated?

A

No

417
Q

Dosage form of Lialda

A

1.2g delayed-release tablet

418
Q

Dosage form of Pentasa

A

250mg or 500mg controlled-release capsule

419
Q

Dosage form of Apriso

A

0.375g delayed-release/extended-release capsule

420
Q

Trade name for PPI associated with SoluTab

A

Prevacid

421
Q

dosage form of omeprazole (Rx)

A

delayed-release capsule

422
Q

Dosing interval for esomeprazole

A

1 daily

423
Q

What is the prokinetic aspect of metaclopramide?

A

It increases the upper GI tract motility, causing a reduction in heartburn

424
Q

Indications for mesalamine

A

ulcerative colitis

425
Q

Dosing interval for metoclopramide(Prokinetic)

A

4 times daily

426
Q

Dosing interval for Asacol HD

A

Three times daily

427
Q

Strength of omeprazole (OTC)

A

20mg

428
Q

Dosage form of Rowasa

A

4g/60ml rectal suspension for enema

429
Q

Dosing interval for Lialda

A

1 daily

430
Q

Dosage form of Dexilant

A

delayed-release capsule

431
Q

Dosing interval for Prevacid

A

1 daily

432
Q

Dosage form for Asacol HD

A

800mg delayed-release tablet

433
Q

Generic for PPI associated with SoluTab

A

lansoprazole

434
Q

Strength of Prilosec (OTC)

A

20mg

435
Q

Dosing interval for Pentasa

A

4 times daily

436
Q

Mixture in Dexilant

A

R isomer of lansoprazole (Prevacid)

437
Q

Strength of Prevacid (Rx)

A

30mg

438
Q

Dosage form of Canasa

A

1g rectal suppository

439
Q

Strengths of omeprazole (Rx)

A

10mg, 20mg, 40mg

440
Q

WHat is the Antiemetic aspect associated with metoclopramide?

A

blocks seretonin receptors in the CTZ in teh brain, reducing nausea and vomting.

441
Q

Dosing interval for Asacol

A

Three times daily

442
Q

what two therapeutic categories are associated with metoclopramide?

A

Prokintec/Antiemetic

443
Q

What is acid-labile?

A

compound that is destroyed by acid

444
Q

Strength of Prevacid SoluTab

A

15mg

30mg

445
Q

How does dexlansoprazole work?

A

Dual delayed- release formulation
Some is released for immediate relief
Rest is released 4 hours later
Primarily used for nighttime heartburn(GERD)

446
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?

A

A hypersecretory condition where too much gastric acid is produced

447
Q

What PPI would be used for nighttime GERD?

A

Dexilant (dexlansoprazole)

448
Q

Indications for PPI’s

A

GERD
erosive esophagitis
gastric ulcers
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

449
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Involuntary, repetitive movements

450
Q

Strengths Prilosec (Rx)

A

10mg,20mg,40mg

451
Q

What is a special warning associated with sulfasalazine and mesoalamine?

A

These drugs are contraindicated for pt’s allergic to aspiriin

452
Q

Dosing interval for metoclopramide(Antiemetic)

A

Take 30 min. before chemotherapy, then every 2 to 3 hours after therapy as needed

453
Q

What is the mixture of esomeprazole?

A

S isomer of omeprazole

454
Q

Dosage form of pantoprazole

A

delayed-release tablet

455
Q

Dosing interval for Azulfidine EnTab

A

Three times daily

456
Q

Dosage forms of sulfasalazine

A

Tablet - Azulfidine

delayed-release tablet - Azulfidine EnTab

457
Q

Dosing interval for Apriso

A

1 daily

458
Q

Indications for metoclopramide

A

GERD

nausea/vomiting associated with chemotherapy

459
Q

What helps the tablet pass through the stomach?

A

Enteric-coating

460
Q

Strength of Prevacid 24 HR

A

15mg

OTC

461
Q

Dosing interval for PPI’s

A

Take 1 daily, 30 minutes prior to breakfast. Do not take with food-decreases absorption

462
Q

Composition of Nexium

A

gel capsule containing enteric coated granules

463
Q

What is mesalamine?

A

Active component of sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

464
Q

Indications for Azulfidine

A

ulcerative colitis

rheumatoid arthritis

465
Q

Dosage form of AcipHex

A

delayed-release tablet

466
Q

dosage form of Prilosec (OTC)

A

delayed-release tablet

467
Q

Dosage form of Asacol

A

400mg delayed-release tablet

468
Q

Strength of Zegerid-OTC

A

20mg ompeprazole

1100mg NaHCO3

469
Q

What does the NaHCO3 do?

A

neutralizes the gastric acid, providing instant heartburn relief and protecting teh omeprazole of acid degradation

470
Q

BBW for metoclopramide

A

Chronic use may cause tardive dyskinesia

471
Q

dosage form of omeprazole (OTC)

A

delayed-release tablet

472
Q

Dosing interval for Nexium

A

1 daily

473
Q

Dosing interval for Rowasa

A

1 daily-use at bedtime-retain it for 8 hours(overnight)

474
Q

Clinical term for heartburn

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease

475
Q

Dosing interval for Canasa

A

1 daily-Use at bedtime-retain for 1 to 3 hours

476
Q

Dosage interval for Azulfidine

A

Three times daily - take with food

477
Q

dosage form of Prilosec (Rx)

A

delayed-release capsule

478
Q

Dosage form of Protonix

A

delayed-release tablet

479
Q

Dosage form of rabeprazole

A

delayed-release tablet

480
Q

Strength of Zegerid (Rx)

A

40mg omeprazole

1100mg NaHCO3

481
Q

Is Prilosec enteric-coated?

A

yes

482
Q

Dosing interval for lansoprazole

A

1 daily

483
Q

Difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

484
Q

Dosage form of ciprodex

A

Otic suspension

485
Q

Dosage form of Tobradex

A

Op. suspension

Op. ointment

486
Q

What anti fungal is in the imidazole class?

A

Nizoral

ketoconazole

487
Q

Generic associated with HandiHaler dispensing device

A

tiotropium

488
Q

Trade name of drug associated with HandiHaler

A

Spiriva

489
Q

Generic drugs associated with Respimat device

A

Albuterol, ipratropium

490
Q

Trade names associated with Respimat device

A

Proair, Atrovent

491
Q

strength of Zrytec chewable tablets

A

5mg, 10mg

492
Q

strength of Claritin chewable tablet

A

5mg

Drug Info (21 decks)

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