Exam 2 Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What lab finding and assessment would you find a patient who had a UTI and were administering you UA (what would the urine look like)

A
  1. The urine would be cloudy

2. Positive nitrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the proper procedures in urine culture in antibiotic administration?

A

Collect the culture before administering the IV antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the cause of catheter associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A

Indwelling urinary catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a S/S of pyelonephritis?

A

Left sided flank pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the discharge teaching for a female patient that was treated for a UTI?

A

Wipe from font to back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a clinical manifestation that is related to pneumothorax?

A
  1. Chest pain or chest discomfort

2. Tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a S/S of tension pneumothorax?

A

Medial sinal shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the initial treatment of tension pneumothorax?

A

Needle decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the cause of iatrogenic (injury or illness caused by medical treatment or exam) pneumothoresis?

A

Insertion of a central line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is otorrhea?

A

Drainage from the ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is rhinorrhea?

A

Drainage from the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

We have a patient presenting S/S of pneumothorax. How would you assess them? What would you look for?

A
  1. Auscultating their breath sounds
  2. Assess the expansion of their chest
  3. Looking for any deviation in position of their trachea (trachea alignment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the S/S of simple pneumothorax?

A

Diminished breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an epidural hematoma?

A

Blood accumulates between the skill and the dura mater (the thick membrane covering the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cardinal symptoms that this patient with epidural hematoma have?

A

Brief loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the S/S of a basilar skull fracture?

A

Racoon eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a subdural hematoma?

A

Bleeding in the space below the dura mater and above the subarachnoid membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a patient comes into the ER with drainage from the ears and drainage from the nose, what is the most concerning?

A

When you can see clear drainage or CSF halo around the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the priority assessment of a pt coming with a TBI?

A

Their level of consiousness. You need to establish a baseline using the GCS (Glasgow coma scale), and monitor them for deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the early S/S of ICP

A
  1. Restlessness
  2. Decreased LOC
  3. Increased CO2`
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the diagnostic prioritization of a pt with S/S of a stroke?

A

CT Scan

22
Q

What is a tPA and what kind of patients is it used for?

A

A thromolytic - its a powerful clot buster that DISSOLVES the clot and is used for pts with ischemic stroke with in a 4.5 hour window

23
Q

List the modifiable risk factors for stroke?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Obesity
  3. Sedentary lifestyle
24
Q

Describe decorticate posture:

A

Arms are up toward the core and flexed / feet are pointed in

25
Q

Describe decerebrate posture:

A

Everything is extended

26
Q

In the Monroe Kelly Hypothesis, list the 3 main components of the cranium:

A
  1. Blood
  2. CSF
  3. Brain Tissue
27
Q

What is the normal pH value for ABG?

A

7.35 - 7.45

28
Q

What is the normal PaCO2 value?

A

35 - 45 mmHg

29
Q

What is the normal HCO3 value?

A

22 - 26 mEq / L

30
Q

The nurse is evaluating the tuberculin skin test (TST) for a patient who has a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The skin test is positive if the area of induration is at least __ mm?

A

5

31
Q

A diagnosis of pneumonia is typically achieved by which of the following diagnostic test?

A

Chest x-ray

32
Q

The physician orders a urine culture on your patient with a urinary tract infection. In addition, the patient is ordered to start IV antibiotics. How will you proceed with following this order?

A

First, collect the urine culture, and then hang the antibiotic.

33
Q

You’re providing discharge teaching to a female patient on how to prevent urinary tract infections. Which statement is INCORRECT?

A

“Use scented sanitary napkins or tampons during menstruation.”

34
Q

A client is admitted to the ER for head trauma is diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. The underlying cause of epidural hematoma is usually related to which of the following conditions?

A

Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

35
Q

An awake, alert patient arrives at the ED following a fall down a flight of stairs. The physician suspects a basilar skull fracture. Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

A

Rhinorrhea and raccoon eyes

36
Q

An 11 year-old boy with skin lesions on his trunk characteristic of ringworm has been brought to the health care provider. Which aspect of the clinician’s assessment relates most directly to the suspected diagnosis?

A

Potential contact with the fungus from pets or other children

37
Q

A 13 year-old girl has presented to a clinic with her mother explaining that she had an oval-shaped red patch on her chest a week ago, but that more of the lesions are now appearing on her back. On examination, the lesions on her back are in a “Christmas tree” pattern. What is the girl’s most likely diagnosis?

A

Pityriasis rosea

38
Q

The following are types of pneumothoraces except:

A

Direct

39
Q

Clinical manifestations related to pneumothorax include all of the following except:

A

Acrocyanosis

40
Q

Significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurism:

A

Severe head ache
Neucorigidity (stiff neck)
Photophobia (sensitive to light)

41
Q

The following are the main components in the cranium:

A

CSF
Blood
Brain tissue

42
Q

A nurse assesses a patients GCS:

A

Open the eyes spontaneously, obeys verbal commands

and is oriented

43
Q

Which of the following would be priority for this patient with decreasing LOC?

A

Risk for aspiration and ability to protect the airway

44
Q

In the acronym FAST, what does T mean?

A

Time: the patients last known well time

45
Q

For discharge teaching with a patient that had a stroke what are the modifiable risk factors?

A

Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Smoking

46
Q

CO2 level of 52 (high)

A

Hypercapnia

47
Q

The pt has an elevated ICP:

A

Causes vasodilation and increases ICP

48
Q

A pt with left sided weakness, or CVA, what diagnostic test is used to confirm this?

A

CT scan

49
Q

A pt has a GCS of 14 then drops to 10 what does this mean for the pt?

A

They exhibit a deteriorating neurological status

50
Q

All the following are S/S of stroke EXCEPT:

A

Bilateral Joint pain

51
Q

What is the following outcome of a thrombolytic drug therapy for stroke?

A

Dissolves the emboli

52
Q

What is the term used for slurred speech or having a hard time speaking?

A

Dysarthria