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Pathophysiology > Exam 2 Blue Print > Flashcards

Exam 2 Blue Print Flashcards

1
Q

What lab finding and assessment would you find in a patient who has a UTI and were administering a UA (What would the urine look like)?

A
  1. Urine would be cloudy
  2. Positive nitrites (nitrATEs convert into nitrITES)
    (signs to confirm bacteria)
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2
Q

What is the proper procedure if a Dr. orders a urine culture on a patient who had a positive UA and they are wanting to determine what microorganism is causing it? and how to treat it?

A

Collect the culture before administering the IV antibiotic

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3
Q

What are causes of catheter associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A

Indwelling urinary catheter (Foli catheter) {the longer the patient has it the more likely they are to contract a UTI}

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4
Q

What is a sign and symptom of pyelonephritis?

A

Left sided flank pain

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5
Q

What is the discharge teaching for a female patient with a UTI?

A

Wipe from front to back (to prevent contact from urethra and fecal matter)

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6
Q

What is the clinical manifestations related to pneumothorax?

A
  1. Chest pain or discomfort

2. Tachypnea (fast RR)

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7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax?

A

Medial sinal shift

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8
Q

What is the initial treatment of tension pneumothorax?

A

Needle decompression

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9
Q

In iatrogenic pneumothoresis (injury or illness caused by medical treatment or exam) what causes this?

A

Insertion of a central line

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10
Q

What is otorrhea?

A

Drainage from the ears

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11
Q

What is rhinorrhea?

A

Drainage from the nose

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12
Q

If a patient comes into the ER with drainage from the ears and drainage from the nose, what is the most concerning?

A

CSF halo around the blood

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13
Q

What is the priority assessment of a patient coming in with a TBI?

A

Level of consciousness to establish baseline and monitoring them for deterioration (use the GCS)

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14
Q

List the early signs and symptoms of ICP:

A
  1. Restlessness
  2. Decreased LOC
  3. Increased CO2
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15
Q

What is the diagnostic prioritization of a patient with S/S of a stroke?

A

CT scan

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16
Q

What is a tPA?

A

A thrombolytic - clot buster - dissolves a clot

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17
Q

What is a tPA used for?

A

A patient with ischemic stroke with in a 4.5 hour window

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18
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors for a stroke?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Obesity
  3. Sedentary lifestyle
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19
Q

Describe decorticate posturing?

A

Arms are flexed up to the core

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20
Q

Describe decerebrate posturing?

A

Everything and the arms are extended

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21
Q

In the Monroe Kelly Hypothesis, what are the 3 main components in the cranium?

A
  1. Blood
  2. CSF
  3. Brain tissue
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22
Q

We have patient presenting S/S of pneumothorax. How you would assess them and what would you look look for?

A
  1. Auscultating their breath sounds
  2. Assess the expansion of chest (looking for equal movement)
  3. Any deviation in position of the trachea
  4. Tracheal alignment
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23
Q

What is the S/S of simple pneumothorax?

A

Diminished breath sounds

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24
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an epidural hematoma?

A

Blood accumulating between the skull and the dura mater

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25
Q

What is the cardinal symptom that this patient will have (epidural hematoma)?

A

Brief LOC

26
Q

S/S of a basilar skull fracture?

A

Racoon eyes

27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a subdural hematoma?

A

Bleeding in the space below dura mater and above the subdural arachnoid

28
Q

What are the 3 different types of pneumothorax?

A
  1. Tension
  2. Simple
  3. Open (sucking chest wound)
29
Q

What type of isolation is required for TB patients?

A

Airborne precautions

30
Q

What is the organism that causes walking pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

31
Q

PPD tests/ TB skin test, what would a negative skin test look like v.s. a positive skin test?

A 
POS = induration, redness, 5 mm lesion
NEG = no bumps or redness
32
Q

A patient with pneumonia: How would we prioritize our assessment, after the airway, what would be the priority assessment in intervention with a pt with pneumonia?

A

Breathing - pulse ox - if its low we give them O2 oxygen would be a priority for hypoxic pneumonia pt or pneumonia with difficulty breathing

33
Q

When a pneumonia pt comes into the hospital and labs are drawn, what would you expect to see with their CBC in particular?

A

Increased WBC (the source of their infection is bacterial)

34
Q

What is the cause of ringworm?

A

A highly contagious and transmittable fungus {contact with a fungus and that is how ringworm is caused}

35
Q

Pathophysiology of pressure ulcers:

A

Pressure on boney prominences when this happens the blood flow to that area is decreased {if pt has a condition where they cannot shift their weight, this is a problem i.e. the elderly because sensation decreases as we age and they are at an increased risk because of the pressure on those areas}

36
Q

Pathophysiology of burns:

A

Increased capillary permeability when there is a significant burns occurring across the body surface area {causes hypovolemia - which causes edema}

37
Q

What is the Parkland Formula Fluid Calculation:

A

4 mL x % of body tissue that is burned x patients weight in Kg = __________ / divided by 2

38
Q

Pathophysiology of basal cell carcinoma: neoplasm cancer or tumor of the non-keratinized

A

Non- Keratinizing cells of the basal layer of the epidermis (ex: moist areas of the body like the tongue)

39
Q

If the CO2 is on the same side as the pH it means:

A

Respiratory

40
Q

If the HCO3 is on the same side as the pH is means:

A

Metabolic

41
Q

If it is mixed or normal it means:

A

No compensation

42
Q

What is the normal values for pH:

A

{below = acid} 7.35 - 7.45 {above = alk}

43
Q

What is the normal values for paCO2:

A

{below alk} 35 - 45 {above acid}

44
Q

What is the normal values for HCO3:

A

{below = acid} 22 - 26 { above = alk}

45
Q

What are the types of body fluids HIV can be transmitted though?

A
  1. Blood
  2. Breast milk
  3. Bodily secretions and semen/ vaginal fluid
46
Q

How does HIV respond to antiretroviral medications?

A

Increases the CD4 cell count / decrease viral load

47
Q

Pathophysiology of CD4 cells infected by the HIV virus:

A

HIV kills the CD4 - CD4 cell death

48
Q

Infection prevention: In AIDS pt, what would we tell these patients to do to prevent their own infection (to prevent opportunistic infections)

A
  1. Practice good handwashing
  2. Practice good aseptic technique when performing sterile procedures
  3. Be mindful that they are immunocompromised when CD4 levels are low
49
Q

Pt teaching: Nurse teaching pt how to prevent the actual spread of HIV/AIDS to the population:

A
  1. Condoms
  2. Razors - no
  3. Sharing tooth brushes
50
Q

S/S of Meningitis:

A
  1. Stiff neck
  2. Photophobia
  3. Sudden and severe headache and a fever
  4. POS Brazinski sign
51
Q

Define ketogenic diet:

A

High fat - low cholesterol

52
Q

Why would a patient be on a ketogenic diet pertaining to a seizure disorder?

A

This diet produces ketones - which leads to better seizure control

53
Q

List the priority interventions for a pt during a seizure:

A
  1. Protect the airway {airway precautions}
54
Q

Type of isolation precautions for pt with meningitis:

A

Droplet precautions

55
Q

What is the priority assessment for the patient with meningitis?

A

LOC is priority {need to est baseline LOC like using GCS}

56
Q

What is the most common cause or mechanism of spinal cord injury?

A

MVC - motor vehicle crash

57
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of spinal cord injury?

A
  1. Loss of sensation or flaccid paralysis
  2. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
  3. Incontinency
58
Q

What would be assessment priority with pt with spinal cord injury?

A

Airway

59
Q

Pathophysiology of spinal shock:

A
  1. Flaccid paralysis
60
Q

Causes of autonomic dysreflexia:

A

Nauctious stimuli- actual or potential tissue damaging event, ,like MVC, to the spinal cord

Pathophysiology (28 decks)

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