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nursing > Exam 2-Med Surg > Flashcards

Exam 2-Med Surg Flashcards

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1
Q

absorption

A

phase of the digestive process that occurs when small molecules, vitamins, and minerals pass through the walls of the small and large intestine and into the bloodstream

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2
Q

amylase

A

an enzyme that aids in the digestion of starch

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3
Q

chyme

A

mixture of food with saliva, salivary enzymes, and gastric secretions that is produced as food passes through the mouth, esophagus, and stomach

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4
Q

dyspepsia

A

upper abdominal discomfort associated with eating; upset stomach

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5
Q

elimination

A

phase of digestion process that occurs after digestion and absorption, when waste products are evacuated from the body

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6
Q

intrinsic factor

A

a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B12 so that the vitamin can be absorbed

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7
Q

lipase

A

enzyme that aids in the digestion of fats

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8
Q

pepsin

A

a gastric enzyme that is important in protein digestion

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9
Q

trypsin

A

enzyme that aids in digestion of protein

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10
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Can’t absorb B12

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11
Q

What medical emergency can have GI issues?

A

Myocardial infarction

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12
Q

What is referred in terms of pain?

A

Is the pain radiating?

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13
Q

What color would a patient’s stool be after the barium enema?

A

Milky white

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14
Q

What can cause black stool?

A

Bismuth, iron, and black licorice

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15
Q

What can cause red stool?

A

Beets, red gelatin, tomato soup, food coloring

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16
Q

What can cause green stool?

A

Leafy green vegetables, spinach, kale

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17
Q

What does oral cancer typically look like?

A

Raised white or red patches in oral cavity

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18
Q

How long do you have to listen to bowel sounds before charting absent?

A

5 minutes

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19
Q

Order of abdominal assessment:

A

Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation

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20
Q

How does H. Pylori get diagnosed?

A

Breath test or blood test

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21
Q

What could black stool indicate in terms of occult blood testing?

A

Upper GI bleed (peptic)

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22
Q

What could red stool indicate in terms of occult blood testing?

A

Lower GI-such as hemorrhoids or polyp

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23
Q

When preparing for an occult blood test, what should the nurse tell the patient?

A

Avoid red meat, aspirin, NSAIDs 72 hours prior. Avoid Vitamin C. No laxatives, enemas, or suppositories for 3 days prior

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24
Q

What is the FIT-fecal test? Any precautions for testing?

A

The FIT reacts to the human hemoglobin protein. Can detect abnormal sections of DNA from cancer or polyps. Does not require any dietary or medication restrictions

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25
Q

How does a hydrogen breath test work?

A

The patient will ingest a capsule of carbon-labeled urea and a breath sample is completed 10-20 min later. H. pylori quickly metabolizes urea so the carbon dioxide can be measured to determine if it is present.

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26
Q

What should you tell a patient to avoid prior to the hydrogen breath test?

A

No antibiotics or bismuth for 1 month prior, no proton pump inhibitors for 2 weeks before, No antacids for 24 hours prior

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27
Q

What can H. pylori cause?

A

peptic ulcer

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28
Q

How long should a patient be observed after abdominal ultrasonography with anesthesia?

A

1 hour

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29
Q

What is a sign of abdominal bleeding?

A

Washboard or extremely hard abdomen

30
Q

Why should patients increase fluids after a barium enema?

A

Barium will harden up if not eliminated

31
Q

2 things patient should come back for after barium enema?

A

If they do not pass Barium or they have bleeding

32
Q

What kind of allergy should a patient be screened for prior to contrast?

A

Iodine or shellfish

33
Q

What is perforation?

A

When a hole is made somewhere in the GI- MEDICAL EMERGENCY

34
Q

What lab should be reviewed before a CT to check kidney function?

A

Creatinine

35
Q

Contraindications for MRI:

A

internal metal devices (aneurysm clip, pacemaker, cochlear implants), foil backed patches due to risk of burns

36
Q

Can pt eat after an endoscopy?

A

Nothing until gag reflex returns

37
Q

What position for colonoscopy?

A

left side lying with legs drawn to chest

38
Q

What is the most common cause of tooth loss in adults?

A

Periodontal disease

39
Q

If a patient comes in with a concussion and mandibular fracture, what else should they be screened for?

A

C SPINE FRACTURE

40
Q

Lithotripsy

A

a procedure that uses shock waves to disintegrate stone- may cause hemorrhage or swelling

41
Q

Odynophagia

A

acute pain on swallowing

42
Q

Management of GERD

A

low fat diet, avoid caffeine, beer, tobacco, milk; avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bed and elevate the head of the bed by at least 50 degrees

43
Q

What are some symptoms for cancer of the esophagus?

A

Dysphagia, sensation of mass in throat, regurgitation

44
Q

Interventions for tube feeding:

A

Water before and after each med and feeding, every 4 to 6 hours. DO NOT MIX MEDS. do not hang feeding for more than 4 to 8 hours.

45
Q

How much water should be administered with tube feeding?

A

30 mL

46
Q

What position should the patients head be in when receiving a tube feeding?

A

30 degrees

47
Q

When suctioning a patient post neck dissection, the nurse should remember:

A

to NEVER sunction around stitches

48
Q

Achalasia:

A

absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophogas- difficulty with solid food, noncardiac chest pain, and pyrosis (heart burn)

49
Q

What is esophageal perforation and what are some manifestations?

A

MEDICAL EMERGENCY- excruciating retrosternal; pain, dysphagia, infection, fever, leukocytosis

50
Q

What is the medical management for a foreign body in the throat?

A

Intubation if needed to protect airway, Glucagon IV helps to relax esophagus

51
Q
A
52
Q

what is siladenitis?

A

inflammation of the salivary glands

53
Q

medical management of sialadenitis?

A

massage, hydration, warm compress, sialagogues (substances that trigger saliva flow)

54
Q

medical management of sialadenitis?

A

massage, hydration, warm compress, sialagogues (substances that trigger saliva flow)

55
Q

What is sialolithiasis?

A

salivary calculi

56
Q

what is lithotripsy?

A

a procedure that uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone

57
Q

Assessment for patient receiving enteral feeding:

A

tube placement, signs of dehydration, blood glucose, I&O, weekly weights

58
Q

management of esophageal spasm:

A

calcium channel blockers, PPIs especially with symptoms of gerd

59
Q

Management of hiatal hernia:

A

frequent, small feedings; no reclining for 1 hour after feeding; elevate head of the bed 4-8 inches to prevent hernia from sliding up

60
Q

what are some common causes of gastritis?

A

Long term use of NSAIDs and aspirin, steroids. Alcohol use, bile reflux, and radiation therapy

61
Q

What is chronic gastritis caused by?

A

prolonged inflammation, atrophy of gastric tissue, benign or malignant ulcers, or H. Pylori

62
Q

Manifestations of Gastritis:

A

epigastric pain, dyspepsia, anorexia, hiccups, nausea, vomiting. Chronic: fatigue, pyrosis (heart burn), sour taste in mouth, pernicious anemia

63
Q

Hematemesis nursing assessment:

A

monitor hypotension, elevated heart rate, promote fluid balance, pt could be pale, diaphoretic-could be in shock

64
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

erosion of a mucous membrane that forms an excavation in stomach, pylorus, duodenum, or esophagus (ASSOCIATED WITH H. PYLORI)

65
Q

What can a deep peptic ulcer cause?

A

GI bleed-melena, hematemesis, hypotension, elevated heart rate

66
Q

Most common site for peptic ulcer formation:

A

duodenum

67
Q

Most common site for peptic ulcer formation:

A

duodenum

68
Q

What position should the pt be in for abd assessment?

A

supine

69
Q

signs of perforation or penetration

A

EMERGENCY
sudden, severe abd pain; vomiting, collapse, extremely tender and rigid abdomen, hypotension and tachycardia

70
Q

what is excoriation?

A

redness, skin breakdown. can lead to ulcers and sepsis

71
Q

what is steatorrhea?

A

fat in stool

72
Q

what are the manifestations of appendicitis?

A

rebound tenderness in lower right abd, belly button pain, fever , constipation or diarrhea

nursing (12 decks)

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