Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UCLA EMT > Exam 1: EMS Operations > Flashcards

Exam 1: EMS Operations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

What is certification?

A

an exam used to ensure all healthcare providers have at least the same basic level of knowledge and skill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is licensure?

A

a process by which states ensure an applicant competency in an examination setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is certification reciprocity?

A

transfer certification from one state to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define clinical care?

A

describes the various pieces of equipment and the scope of practice for using that equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is medical direction?

A

given by a medical director who defines the EMT’s scope of practice | acts as a liasion between EMS and medical community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 ways EMTs obtain medical direction?

A

online and offline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an offline method of obtaining medical direction?

A

via protocols and standing orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define protocol.

A

comprehensive guide outlining EMT’s scope of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define standing orders.

A

parts of a protocol that designate the required actions EMTs must take for a specific complaint/condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an online method of obtaining medical direction?

A

contacting medical control over phone or radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does in the integration of health services mean?

A

the care EMTs provide should be continued at the ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 national levels of EMS training?

A

EMR, EMT-Basic, EMT-Intermediate (AEMT), and paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 common types of BSI/PPE?

A

gloves, mask, eye protection and a gown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List some medical conditions or pathogens which would make an EMT don a mask.

A

tuberculosis | COVID-19 | airborne droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List some conditions which would make the EMT where a face shield?

A

Vomiting, blood splatters, COVID-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How much particulates does an N95 mask filter?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe proper hand-washing techniques.

A

wash hands with soap and warm water for about 20 seconds, make sure to get under the fingernails, between fingers and back of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the steps in preparing for your shift.

A

Clock in, check ambulance outside in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe your responsibilities as an EMT.

A

Protect patient and deliver high-quality emergency medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the safe driving habits while responding in an ambulance with lights and sirens?

A

no speeding | patients restained with shoulder restraints | wear your seatbelt and remain seated as much as possible | learn how ambulance accelerates, turns, sways and stoops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the process of approaching a school bus in an ambulance with lights and sirens.

A

Let the school bus pass | turn off lights and sirens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When do ambulances do not have the right of way?

A

train tracks | blocked intersections with no way to oppose | school buses with lights activated | pedestrians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the type of patient who would benefit from helicopter transport.

A

critical patients | away from hospital | need prolonged extrication (ie: trapped at a mountain) | limb replantation (time sensitive) | hyperbaric chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3 techniques to improve radio communication.

A

short, simple language, no codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Components of scene size up

A

PENMAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the 4 resources an EMT has to help identify an unknown hazardous material.

A

placards, fixed facilities, ERG guidebook, NFPA 704 system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is consent?

A

permission to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 types of consent

A

expressed, implied, involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

informed consent = tell the patient everything about what is happening and why you are treating them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 ways expressed consent may be given?

A

verbal, written, or signals/movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is implied consent?

A

applies only to patients who are unconscious or unable to make an informed consent

32
Q

What type of consent apply to unaccompanied minors?

A

implied consent if a true emergency exists = must treat patient

33
Q

What is involuntary consent?

A

against patient’s will despite if they are conscious

34
Q

Who does involuntary consent apply to?

A

mentally ill, in behavioral crisis, developmentally delayed

35
Q

Who can police personnel give consent for?

A

detained patients

36
Q

In what situations would using restraints apply?

A

patient is combative and a danger to themselves and others

37
Q

Why do we never position a patient in a prone position?

A

Can potentially close their airway

38
Q

Who has the right to refuse treatment?

A

People 18yo+ who are ANOx4

39
Q

What must you do when patients refuse treatment

A

explain risks and consequences of their refusal, encourage treatment, ask them to sign a refusal of care form, document refusal, have a witness available and sign

40
Q

What is a “Do Not Resuscitate” (DNR) order?

A

an advanced directive that gives permission not to resuscitate

41
Q

What kinds of patients might have a DNR?

A

cancer patients, those in hospice, have life-threatening conditions

42
Q

How does a DNR impact the care an EMT may provide?

A

unable to perform CPR or Ventilations but may treat other problems such as a sprained ankle

43
Q

What must be present on the DNR in order for it to be valid?

A

Physician signature and patient or health proxy signature

44
Q

When would an EMT NOT follow a DNR order?

A

if no DNR is given or the patient decides they want to be resuscitated

45
Q

List the criteria for not providing any interventions or CPR in a patient?

A

if they have a DNR OR present with definitive signs of death.

46
Q

What are the 4 definitive signs of death?

A

rigor mortis, putrification, lividity, and decapitation

47
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

stiffening

48
Q

What is putrification?

A

body decomposition

49
Q

What is lividity?

A

blood settling

50
Q

Discuss the importance of patient management at a crime scene and how an EMT would go about moving items at the scene?

A

patient care is top priority after scene safety. if need to move objects, ask PD or personnel or let them know.

51
Q

Explain findings that would make the EMT think there was presence of a weapon of mass destruction.

A

Everyone will present with the same symptoms and general appearance

52
Q

Describe the steps of a primary assessment including treatment taken.

A

PENMAN (C-Spine stabilization) | GI = AVPU (unconscious no pulse but breathing = CPR) and LOC | ABCDs

53
Q

When does a duty to act legally apply?

A

responding to a call or have begun treatment

54
Q

What is standards of care?

A

manner in which you must act

55
Q

What is negligence?

A

failure to provide the same care that a person with the same level of licensure would provide in the same situation

56
Q

What are the 4 things that need to be present in order to be charged with negligence?

A

duty to act | breach of duty | damage to the patient | your actions caused the damages

57
Q

What is abandonment?

A

unilateral termination of care by EMT without patient consent or transferring care to someone with the same or higher level of licensure

58
Q

What is assault?

A

verbal threats , unlawful placing person in fear of immediate bodily harm

59
Q

What is battery?

A

unlawful touching a person (can be charged if you treat a patient without consent)

60
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

unauthporized confinement of a person

61
Q

what is defamation?

A

communication of false information that damages reputation of a person

62
Q

What is libel?

A

written defamation

63
Q

What is slander?

A

spoken defamation

64
Q

What are the 7 cases in which special mandatory reporting occurs?

A

abuse | sexual assault | injury while committing a felony | domestic violence | exposures to infectious diseases | crime scene | death

65
Q

What must an EMT encourage a patient to not do in a sexual assault case?

A

not shower or bathe

66
Q

What must the EMT avoid doing when removing clothing of a patient at a crime scene?

A

don’t cut through bullet holes and stab wounds | dispose bloody clothes in a paper bag

67
Q

What is ethics?

A

philosophy of right and wrong, moral duties, IDEAL PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOR

68
Q

What is morality?

A

code of conduct affecting character, conduct and conscience

69
Q

What is bioethics?

A

specifically addresses issues that arise in healthcare

70
Q

What criteria must be met to be considered an MCI situation?

A

3+ patients | place of demand on the system to require mutual aid | overwhelms capabilities of an agency’s normal first response

71
Q

In a START triage, who would qualify as Yellow?

A

Repirations < 30/min, CR < 2s, able to follow commands can’t walk

72
Q

In a START triage, who would qualify as Red?

A

RR > 30/min, CR > 2s OR unable to follow commands

73
Q

In a START triage, who would qualify as Black?

A

dead/expectant = those who do not have an open airway, no respirations

74
Q

Signs and Symptoms of nerve agent exposure?

A

SLUDGEM = salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, emesis, twitching eyes (miosis)

75
Q

List the 4 conditions in which rapid extrication is necessary?

A

AMS, inadequate ventilation, shock (hypoperfusion) and dangerous weather conditions

UCLA EMT (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions