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Organ Histology-- Anthony > Exam 1: Ch.2 CT > Flashcards

Exam 1: Ch.2 CT Flashcards

1
Q

What does CT consists of?

A

supportive cells and ass. ECM

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2
Q

What is the ECM composed of?

A

ground substance and fibers

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3
Q

What are the four general functions of CT?

A
  1. Provide structural support
  2. Provide a medium for exchange
  3. Defense/protection
  4. Storage of adipose
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4
Q

What are the four characteristics of CT?

A
  1. Most derived from mesenchyme
  2. Support cells separated by matrix
  3. Support cells produce matrix
  4. Cells adhere to matrix
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5
Q

What are the main three component of the ground substance?

A
  1. Glycosaminoglycans (GAG’s) = mucopolysaccharides
  2. Proteoglycans
  3. Adhesive Glycoproteins
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6
Q

What is the important general trait of GAG’s?

A

hydrophilic

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7
Q

What are the two types of GAG’s?

A
  1. sulfated GAG’s

2. non-sulfated GAG’s

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8
Q

What are examples of the Sulfated GAG’s?

A
  • keratan sulfate
  • heparin sulfate
  • dermatin sulfate
  • chondroitin sulfate
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9
Q

Are the sulfated GAG’s or the non-sulfated GAG’s larger?

A

Sulfated GAG’s = smaller molecules

Non-sulfated GAG’s = larger molecules

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10
Q

What are examples of non-sulfated GAG’s?

A

Hyaluronic Acid = HA = Hyaluronan

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11
Q

Which type of GAG’s are covalently bonded to proteins?

A

Sulfated GAG’s

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12
Q

Which type of GAG’s forms a dense molecular network and holds onto water?

A

Non-sulfated GAG’s (like Hyaluronic acid)

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13
Q

We know non-sulfated GAG’s, like hyaluronic acid, hold only water, but what is that important?

A

important for allowing diffusion in some tissues

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14
Q

Give me two positive aspects of inflammation.

A
  1. increased fluidity will aid cell movement

2. increases numbers of defensive cells

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15
Q

Give me a negative aspect of inflammation.

A

excessive swelling (edema) can damage blood vessels, nerves, and cells

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16
Q

Where does the extra fluid and defensive cells come from when there is inflammation?

A

leaky capillaries and venules ( NOT bigger blood vessels)

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17
Q

What part of the ground substance is the protein core with many sulfated GAG’s attached?

A

proteoglycans

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18
Q

What are two examples of the adhesive glycoproteins in ground substance?

A

laminin and fibronectin

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19
Q

What are three types of fibers found in the ground substance?

A
  1. collagen
  2. elastic
  3. reticular
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20
Q

What is the MC CT protein?

A

collagen

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21
Q

What type of collagen accounts for ~90% of the total body collagen?

A

Type I

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22
Q

What is collagen type I known for?

A

its great tensile strength, but does NOT stretch

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23
Q

What pathology is a group of genetic disorders caused by defective or reduced collagen that involves unstable joints, hypermobility, and easily dislocation?

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

often skin and blood vessels affected too

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24
Q

As we age, what two things happens to our collagen fibers?

A
  1. fiber production slows

2. fibers produced are weaker

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25
Q

What vitamin is necessary for the proper cross-linking (bonding) w/in the collagen I fiber?

A

Vitamin C

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26
Q

What happens to the collagen if we have a lack of vitamin C?

A

weaker collagen I produced –> lead to more rapid fiber break down

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27
Q

What disease is caused by a vitamin C deficiency?

A

Scurvy

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28
Q

What two things is Elastic fibers composed of?

A
  1. elastin

2. microfibrils

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29
Q

Elastic fibers can stretch what percentage of their resting length?

A

150%

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30
Q

What commonly produces elastic fibers? What are they important in?

A

fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

important in blood vessels and lungs

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31
Q

T/F. Elastic fibers are more complex than collagen I fibers, therefore harder for cells to make.

A

False– elastic fibers are LESS complex than collagen I and therefore are EASIER for cells to make

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32
Q

What affect does aging have on elastic fibers?

A

as age increases the number of elastic fibers will decrease

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33
Q

T/F. In general there are fewer pathologies associated with elastic fibers.

A

True

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34
Q

What is the hereditary condition of CT, bones, muscle, ligaments, and skeletal structures that is characterized by undeveloped elastic fibers called? What 4 things does it result in?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

  1. irregular and unsteady gate
  2. tall lead body type with long extremities
  3. abnorm. join flexibility, flat feet, stooped shoulders and dislocation of optic lens
  4. aorta usually dilated and may become weakened, allowing an aneurysm to develop
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35
Q

What type of fibers are easy to produce and are essentially the same as collagen III?

A

reticular fibers

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36
Q

Where are the common places to find reticular fibers?

A

liver, bone marrow, and lymph nodes

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37
Q

How long to reticular fibers typically last?

A

~3 days (need to replace freq.)

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38
Q

How does aging impact reticular fibers?

A

they are not affected

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39
Q

What is the first fiber produced during wound healing?

A

reticular fibers

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40
Q

Can you name all 10 cells in CT?

A
  1. Fibroblast
  2. FIbrocyte
  3. Myofibroblast
  4. Adipocytes
  5. Plasma Cells
  6. Macrophages
  7. Mast Cells
  8. Leukocytes
  9. Mesenchyme cells
  10. Reticular Cells
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41
Q

What are fibroblasts usually derived from?

A

mesenchyme cells

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42
Q

What cell type did we emphasize that was a VERY IMPORTANT cell type in ordinary CT?

A

fibroblasts

fixed cell that can move somewhat, may change into other cell types under special conditions

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43
Q

Fibroblasts only occasionally divide, when would be the case that they do?

A

during wound healing and when stimulated by local growth factors

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44
Q

What are the two main structural functions of fibroblasts?

A
  1. Produce and maintain matrix (fibers, ground substance)

2. Healing

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45
Q

Describe how fibroblasts are involved in wound healing.

A
  1. produce growth factors

2. Scar formation

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46
Q

Scar tissue is what type of tissue? Describe its characteristic when mature.

A

dense irregular CT

almost avascular and contain fibrocytes

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47
Q

T/F. When a scar forms it is 70% stronger than the original tissue.

A

False–it is 70% AS STRONG as the original tissue (its weaker)

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48
Q

Where are locations that scar tissue is common?

A

tendons, ligaments, epithelium, cartilage, capsules of organs, cardiac muscle

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49
Q

What are the two defensive functions of fibroblasts?

A
  1. Produce cytokines and enzymes

2. Can phagocytize when it is really needed

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50
Q

What is a mature less active fibroblasts that will appear flat and is long-lived?

A

fibrocytes (have lower energy and oxygen requirements)

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51
Q

What is the function of fibrocytes?

A

maintain matrix

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52
Q

What can a fibrocyte produce?

A

Hyaluronic acid, ground substance, and reticular fibers

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53
Q

T/F. Fibrocytes can produce new collagen I and elastic fibers.

A

FALSE–they can NOT produce these (therefore why tendons and ligaments do not heal well)

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54
Q

What type of cell possesss features of fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells?

A

myofibroblast

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55
Q

What do myofibroblasts function during?

A
  1. wound closure

2. tooth eruption

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56
Q

T/F. Adipocytes do not divide or change into other cell types in adults.

A

True

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57
Q

What are Adipocytes derived from?

A

mesenchyme cells producing pre-adipocytes

58
Q

What are the two general functions of Adipocytes?

A
  1. lipid storage

2. regulate energy metabolism–> produce LEPTIN (circulating satiety hormone)

59
Q

What type of cell in CT derived from B lymphocytes?

A

Plasma cells (large cells with spherical “clock faced” nucleus)

60
Q

How long to plasma cells live? Where are they found?

A

short lived (2-3wks)

CT and lymphatic tissues/organs (not typically found in blood)

61
Q

What is the function of plasma cells?

A

Produce Antibodies (“GAMED”)

62
Q

Please list all the anitbodies and….

A

????

63
Q

What are large cells with an indented or kidney bean shaped nucleus, often containing residual bodies in their cytoplasm?

A

Macrophages

*very important defensive cell

64
Q

What are macrophages derived from? Can they divide?

A

monocytes

yes

65
Q

What system are Macrophages a part of?

A

Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS) / Reticuloendothelial System (RES)

66
Q

Do cell members of the Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS) arise from a common ancestor? What are they all able to do?

A

yes, common ancestor in bone marrow

able to phagocytize and display particular receptors

67
Q

What are examples of members in the Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS)?

A

Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, monocytes, microglia (CNS), Langerhans cells, osteoclasts

68
Q

What are the four main functions of macrophages?

A
  1. Phagocytosis of Debris and Microbes
  2. Act as an APC to T helper cells
  3. Create foreign body giant cells
  4. Release cytokines and other products
69
Q

What are foreign body giant cells?

A

created by macrophages; is the permanent fusion of many macrophages

70
Q

What do foreign body giant cells form in response to?

A
  • sizable foreign substance

- some pathogens (i.e. TB, leprosy, syphilis, granulomas, yaws)

71
Q

What type of cell is large and contains cytoplasmic granules and is found in CT proper, by small blood vessels and under epithelium?

A

Mast cells

72
Q

How long do Mast cells live? Where are they derived from? What were they once thought to be derived from?

A

few months

bone marrow precursor

thought were from basophils

73
Q

What are the three main functions of mast cells?

A
  1. Influence/ mediate events (Inflam, simple allergy, Anaphylaxis, Asthma)
  2. To release primary mediators
  3. To produce and release secondary mediators
74
Q

What “events” do Mast cells mediate/influence?

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Immediate Hypersensitivity Response (=simple allergy)
  3. Anaphylaxis (sever allergy)
  4. Asthma (most types)
75
Q

We know mast cells release primary mediates, what are those primary mediators?

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Heparin
  3. ECF = Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor
  4. NCF = Neutrophil Chemotactic Factor
76
Q

We know mast cells release secondary mediators, what are those secondary mediators?

A
  1. Leukotienes

2. others– cytokines

77
Q

What primary mediator is the on switch and has a flash reaction?

A

Histamine

78
Q

What are the effects of histamine? (3)

A
  1. increase permeability of capillaries and venules
  2. vasodilation of arterioles and small arteries (increase blood to area)
  3. contraction of viscercal smooth muscle
79
Q

What primary mediator is the off switch and is slow to take effect? What is its effect?

A

Heparin; binds to and inactivated histamine

80
Q

What primary mediator attracts eosinophils?

A

ECF = eostinophil chemotactic factor

81
Q

ECF will attract eosinophils, but what will the eosinophils do? (4)

A
  • inhibit leukotrienes
  • produce factor that inhibits mast cell degranulation
  • phagocytize IgE-allergen complexes and mast cell granules
  • secretes histaminase
82
Q

Knowing what eosinophils will do once attracted to the site by ECF, what is the main conclusion?

A

will help to LIMIT the effects of histamine and leukotrienes

83
Q

What can destroy parasitic worm larvae?

A

Eosinophils

84
Q

What primary mediator attracts neutorophils?

A

NCF = Neutrophil Chemotactic Factor

85
Q

What secondary mediator has the same effects as histamine? But what is the exception?

A

Leukotrienes, but MUCH (1000’s of times) more powerful

86
Q

What will leukotrienes do?

A

(= a secondary mediator)

will extend and amplify the effects of histamine **

87
Q

What are the four stimuli that will activate Mast cells?

A
  1. Direct mass cell trauma
  2. Phagocytosis
  3. IgE-allergen complex
  4. Complement process/molecules
88
Q

Describe the First Exposure: Primary Immune Response of mast cells.

A

Elicits IgE formation that binds to mast cells

  • some degranulation (weak)
  • Memory cells (B and T) are produced
89
Q

Describe the Secondary Exposure to same antigen: Secondary Immune Response.

A

Allergen binds to “sensitized” mast cells and mast cells degradulate
- Rxn is quicker, more intense, and longer lasting

90
Q

Describe the order of events when there is a Basic Inflammatory Reaction, like a cut in the skin. (5 steps)

A
  1. Stimulus = phagocytosis/direct trauma/ complement system (Ex: dead cells, debris, broken fibers)
  2. Mast cells degranulate (local rxn)
  3. Histamine reacts first (increase permeability and dilation)
  4. Leukotrienes takes effect (extend histamine effect)
  5. Heparin and ECF react last (so will NCF)
91
Q

Describe the steps that occur in a Immediate Hypersensitivity Response, a simple allergy.

A
  1. Stimulus = IgE/allergen complex (ex: Hay fever)
  2. Mast cells degranulate and produce various substances
  3. Localized inflamm. response at site of allergen contact
92
Q

What are the steps that occur during a Anaphylaxis reaction?

A
  1. Stimulus = Massive IgE production (bee venom, peanut oil, shellfish, penicillin, etc.)
  2. Systemic mast cell and basophil degranulation and secretion
  3. Systemic inflamm response
  4. Anaphylactic Shock
93
Q

What does Anaphylactic Shock lead to? What is it caused by?

A

leads to circulatory shock –> then cardiovascular collapse

Extensive internal bleeding

94
Q

What type of asthma is it when the allergens are typically in the air and often are known?

A

Extrinsic asthma = allergic asthma

95
Q

When is usually the onset of extrinsic asthma?

A

childhood

96
Q

What type of asthma is the allergen typically unknown? When is the onset usually for this type?

A

Intrinsic asthma

often adult (40+ yrs)

97
Q

What can intrinsic asthma be divided into?

A

Chemically induces
EIA (exercise induced)
Nocturnal

98
Q

What type of asthma has varied causes, such as may follow respiratory illness or due to nerve stimulation?

A

Intrinsic asthma

99
Q

What are two things that

asthma may be stimulated by?

A
  1. IgE/allergen complex
    and/or
  2. Secondary factors: fatigue, endocrine changes, odors, emotions, foods, etc.
100
Q

What is the Primary Problem associated with asthma? What are secondary difficulties caused by?

A
  1. release of leukotrienes

2. inflammation in the lungs

101
Q

What are all the cells that are leukocytes (WBCs)?

A 
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils 
Basophils

(“never let monkeys eat bananas”)

102
Q

What type of leukocyte (WBC) is the most common?

A

Neutrophils

103
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

become macrophages in CT

104
Q

What do neutrophils do? Where are they attracted to?

A

phagocytize and are attracted to sties of acute inflammation

105
Q

What do eosinophils do? Where are they attracted to?

A

combat parasitic worm larvae and are attracted to sites of allergic inflammation

106
Q

What type of leukocyte is similar to mast cells and initiate, maintain, and influence inflammation?

A

basophils

107
Q

What is the 2nd MC type of leukocyte?

A

Lymphocytes

108
Q

What type of WBCs (leukocytes) are attracted to sites of chronic inflammation? What type of immunity are they involved in?

A

Lymphocytes; involved in humoral and cell-mediated immunities = acquired immunity

109
Q

What type of cells are adult stem cells that have sparse pale staining cytoplasm with an oval nucleus?

A

mesenchyme cells

110
Q

What is the function of mesenchyme cells?

A

to change into another type of cell

111
Q

Can mesenchyme cells divide? Do they exist in adults? Can they produce ECM?

A

yes can divide;

exist in adults, but numbers decreased

limited ECM production

112
Q

What type of cells are derived from mesenchyme cells?

A

Reticular cells

113
Q

What is the function of reticular cells?

A

to make reticular fibers when needed on a PERMANENT BASIS

114
Q

What are the four different classifications of CT proper?

A
  1. Loose CT
  2. Dense CT
  3. Reticular CT
  4. Adipose
115
Q

What are the 4 general characteristics of Loose CT?

A
  1. larger number of cells and cell types
  2. Fewer fibers
  3. increased amount of ground substance
  4. Quite vascular
116
Q

What are the two types of Loose CT and where are they found?

A
  1. Loose Areolar

2. Loose irregular

117
Q

Where is loose areolar CT found?

A

greater and lesser omenta; considered “filler” CT

i.e. around blood vessels

118
Q

Where is loose irregular CT found?

A

dermis– papillary layer; beneath epithelium in organs

119
Q

What are the 4 general characteristics of Dense CT?

A
  1. fewer cells and cell types
  2. many fibers
  3. decreased amounts of ground substance
  4. less vascular (exception)
120
Q

What is the exception to dense CT being considered less vascular?

A

dense irregular CT in the dermis –has move vascularity

121
Q

What is the primary cell type in Reticular CT? Fiber type? What does it provide?

A

reticular cell; reticular fiber

provides support in highly cellular areas/organs

122
Q

Give three examples of where reticular CT is found.

A

lymphatic organs, endocrine organs, and bone marrow

123
Q

What is the primary cell type in adipose? What does this primary cell type develop from?

A

Adipocytes; develop from mesenchyme cells

124
Q

T/F. Adipose CT is quite vascular and contains areas of loose areolar CT.

A

True

125
Q

What are the two types of adipose tissue?

A
  1. White Adipose

2. Brown Adipose

126
Q

What is the primary cell type of White Adipose tissue?

A

unilocular white adipocytes– one large droplet

127
Q

Where is white adipose found?

A
  • around kidney and heart
  • within liver
  • bone marrow
  • hypodermis
128
Q

What are the three general functions of White adipose?

A
  1. Lipid storage within adipocytes
  2. Produce adipokines (cytokine hormones)
  3. Store large amount of lipase
129
Q

For white adipose, what 3 things does the lipid storage w/in adipocytes serve to do?

A
  1. energy
  2. thermal insulation (i.e. hypodermis of skin)
  3. Protect/cushion organs (i.e. kidney perinephric fat
130
Q

What is an important adipokine produced by white adipose? What what are the two major functions of that adipokine?

A

Leptin

  1. Inhibit appetite
  2. regulates formation of new adipocytes
131
Q

What does the storage of large amounts of lipase in white adipose tissue serve to do?

A
  1. break-down triglycerides

2. used to split triglycerides to release free fatty acids for exchange other fatty acids (FAs renewed every 2-3 wks)

132
Q

T/F. Obesity that onsets during adulthood will involve the increase in number of white adipocytes.

A

False— existing adipocytes increase in size (DO NOT increase in number)

133
Q

What do adipocytes produce?

A

leptin

134
Q

Describe what occurs with the adipocytes for childhood obesity.

A

number of adipocytes can increase as well as size

obese children may have 3x more fat cells than normal kids

135
Q

Describe the cell type of Brown adipose compared to white adipose.

A

Brown adipocytes are smaller and multiocular

136
Q

Do adults have a lot of Brown adipose? Where is it primarily found?

A

Very limited amounts; around kidney, adrenals, aorta, and mediastinum

137
Q

What percentage of the newborn’s body weight is due to Brown Adipose? Where is it primarily found?

A

2-5%

back, neck, and shoulders

138
Q

T/F. Brown adipocyte numbers increase with the cold.

A

True

139
Q

What is the function of Brown adipose?

A

thermogenesis (generates heat)

140
Q

Does Brown adipocytes receive direct sympathetic innervation?

A

Yes

  1. nerves to cells
  2. ANS promotes brown adipocyte differentiation and prevents cell apoptosis
141
Q

General Rules for CT:
1. An increase in the number of cell types should lead to an increase in _____ _____.

  1. An increased _____ should lead to an increased healing potential.
A
  1. healing potential

2. vascularity

142
Q

What are three Specialized CT?

A
  1. Cartilage
  2. Bone
  3. Blood

Organ Histology-- Anthony (11 decks)

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