Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RTT Patient Care Fall 24 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Emotional Intellegence

A

The ability to evaluate, perceive and control emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Gerontology

A

The study of older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an inpatient?

A

Someone who has been admitted to the hospital for diagnostic studies or treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a outpatient

A

A patient who goes to a health care facility for treatment but does not stay overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is patient assessment

A

The evaluation and determination of the status of a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is patient autonomy

A

Patients ability and right to make independent decisions regarding medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why should a patient understand the purpose of their treatment? (3)

A
  1. So they show up
  2. So they ask questions
  3. So they want to be there
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Should you discuss rad dose with patients?

A

Yes, they deserve to know all aspects of their treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which treatments need a special diet? (5)

A
  1. Head and neck
  2. GI
  3. GU
  4. Abdomen
  5. Pelvis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can RT nurses help patients?

A

Inform them of medication options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the types radiation used in health care (4)

A
  1. Photon
  2. Electron
  3. Proton
  4. Gamma Knife
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the dose differences (4)

A
  1. CT
  2. MRI
  3. PET
  4. X-Ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is horizontal communication

A

Communication between people on the same hierarchical level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a real world/post grad horizontal communication example

A

Therapist to another therapist or staff

Current would be classmates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is vertical communitcation

A

Communication between different hierarchial levels (your boss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Types of communication (4)

A
  1. Written
  2. Verbal
  3. Visual
  4. Non-verbal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Written communication is

A

Recorded information that can be read by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Example of non-verbalcommunication

A

Nodding head to show that you agree or engaaged in conversation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Factors that may impair a patients communication skill are (2)

A
  1. Grieving
  2. Emotional Status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_____ and ____ communication may vary across different cultures

A
  1. Verbal
  2. Non-verbal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Communication may differ with different _______, _______ and _______

A
  1. Cultural beliefs
  2. Values
  3. Practices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5 stages of greif

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Barganing
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When communicating with elderly patients you should

A

Speak loudly and clearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why should a caretaker be present when giving a patient instructions (2)

A
  1. They may have dementia
  2. To ensure best possible PT care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is important to remember for communicaton for adolescents (2)

A
  1. They are building self esteem
  2. Maintain as much privacy for the PT as is safe and allowed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should you do/remember when speaking with children?

A
  1. Speak to them on their level
  2. Speak in terms they can understand (laymans terms)
  3. Make sure the parent is present, but talk to the child
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What assessments should you make before tranfering a patient (5)

A
  1. Strenght
  2. Range of motion
  3. Pain
  4. Cognitive abilities
  5. Movement dysfunctions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When tranfering a patient you should always ______ equipment

A

Stabilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should you secure before tranfering a patient?

A

All Lines
1.IV
2. Peripheral/Port,PICC
3. Urinary Catheters
4. Any other drains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When in doubt of tranfering a patient you should use a _____

A

Assistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Always lift patients with your

A

legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is independent transfer

A

Patient needs no assistance with movement or transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is partial tranfer

A

Patient needs some assistance with movement or transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is dependant tranfer

A

Patient needs full assistance with movement or transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is standby assistance

A

Patient can transfer on theor own but may require verbal cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is close guarding tranfer

A

Patient can tranfer on their own but has a likelyhood of needing assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is contact guarding tranfer

A

Pateint can tranfer on their own but needs constant contact to ensure saftey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is minimal assistance

A

When patients can do 75% of the transfer or activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is moderate assistance

A

When patients can do 50% of the transfer or activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is maximum assistance

A

When patients can do 25% of the transfer or activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When tranfering feet should be at _____ width

A

shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When lifting keep back ____ and ____ at the knees

A
  1. Upright
  2. Bend
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Avoid ____ or ____ when moving a patient

A
  1. Pulling
  2. Lifting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When moving a patient or heavy object you should ___ or ___

A
  1. Roll
  2. Push
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The point at which body weight is balanced is known as ____ or ____

A
  1. Center of gravity
  2. Body weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is the body center of gravity located?

A

S2/ Mid portion of pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Equipment used for pateint tranfers are (5)

A
  1. Wheel Chairs
  2. Stretchers
  3. Hydraulic Lift
  4. Gait Belts
  5. Sliding Board
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What angle should a wheel chair be when moving a patient to the table?

A

45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the weigh capacity for hydraulic lifts

A

450lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

________ acts as a supporting bridge when seated slide tranfers are preformed

A

Sliding boards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When postioning patients pads can be placed under what body prominces (3)

A
  1. Sacrum
  2. Heels
  3. Mid thoracic curvature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Lordotic =

A

Concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Kyphotic =

A

convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vital signs that are part of PT assessement include (4)

A
  1. Blood Pressure
  2. Pulse
  3. respiration
    4.Tempature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In Rad oncology when will a patient have their vitals taken

A

Weekly when the visit with the doctor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

___ is the blance between heat produced on body tissue and heat loss to the environment

A

Body Tempature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The ___ controls body tempature

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Factors that can change body tempature include (8)

A
  1. Environment
  2. Time of day
  3. Age
  4. Weight
  5. Hormone Levels
  6. Physical activity
  7. Disease
  8. Injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Normal body tempature for adults 14 and over is

A

97.8 - 98.6 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A patient whos body tempature is elevated above normal levels is said to have a ___. Aka ___.

A
  1. Fever
  2. Pyrexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

As body tempature increases so does the demand of ___

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A person can die when body temp goes above ___ to ___

A

105.8 - 111.2 F

63
Q

A person can die when body temp goes below ___

64
Q

What are the 4 areas of the body to measure temp

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Ear (tympanic)
  3. rectum (Anal)
  4. Armpit (Axillary)
65
Q

What is the most relaible site to take temp?

66
Q

9 locations to measure pulse

A
  1. Apical
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Femoral
  5. Popliteal
  6. Temporal
  7. Dorsalis Pedis
  8. Posterior Tibial
  9. Brachial
67
Q

Apex of the heart is called

68
Q

Carotid =

69
Q

Femoral =

70
Q

Popliteal =

A

Posterior knee

71
Q

Temporal =

A

front of ear

72
Q

Dorsalis pedis =

A

top of foot

73
Q

Posterior tibial =

A

inner side of ankle

74
Q

Brachial =

A

groove of elbow

75
Q

Avg. adult pulse rate

A

60 - 90 BPM

76
Q

Abnormally rapid heart rate is called

A

Trachycardia (over 100 bpm)

77
Q

Abnormally slow heart rate is called

A

Bradycardia

78
Q

Which pulse is most convient to take on an adult

A

Radial pulse

79
Q

How long should you wain when taking a pulse

80
Q

Function of the ___ is to exchange o2 and co2

A

respitory system

81
Q

Avg. adult respiration is

A

15 - 20 breath/min

82
Q

Blue tint to skin is know as

83
Q

Another work for shortness of breath

84
Q

Blood ____ affects its resistance to flow

85
Q

Blood pressure depends on (5)

A
  1. Peripheal resistance
  2. Pumping action of heart
  3. Blood voulme
  4. Blood viscosity
  5. Velles wall elasticity
86
Q

The amount of resistance of blood flow when ejected from the left ventricle (Systole) is known as

A

Blood pressure

87
Q

Other factors that can change blood pressure (6)

A
  1. Age
  2. Weight
  3. Temp
    4.Disease
  4. Excercise
  5. Stress
88
Q

Why is blood pressure higher when taken by a doctor

A

the stress of knowing blood pressure is being taken raises blood pressure

89
Q

Normal BP range for adults systolic and dystolic

A
  1. 110 - 140
  2. 60 -80
90
Q

A patient with higher than normal systolic and dystolic blood pressure is said to be

A

Hypertensive

91
Q

A patient with lower than normal systolic and dystolic blood pressure is said to be

A

Hypotensive

92
Q

2 types of bp equipment are

A
  1. Sphygmomanometer
  2. Stethoscope
93
Q

When taking BP the first sound u hear is ___ pressure and the second is ___ Pressure

A
  1. Systolic
  2. Diastolic
94
Q

Patents legs should ___ ___ ___ when taking BP

A

Not be crossed

95
Q

Percentage of patients who did not die from cancer during a certain period of time after diagnosis is called

A

Disease specific survival

96
Q

Percentage of cancer patients who have survived a period of time after diagnosis compared to those who do not have cancer is called

A

Relative survival

97
Q

Percentage of patients with a specific of cancer and stage who did not die from any cause during a period of time after diagnosis is called

A

overall survival

98
Q

Percentage of patients who have no signs of cancer after treatment is called

A

Disease free survival

99
Q

Legal document that states how you want medical decisions to me made in event that you can not

A

Advanced directive

100
Q

What are the 3 types of advanced directives

A
  1. Mediacl power of attorney
  2. Directive to physicans
  3. DNR
101
Q

Document that lets others make medical decsions for you if you are unable to

A

Medical power of Attorney

102
Q

Document that allows you to state your wishes about medical care in terminal and irreversiable condition cases

A

Directive to physicians

103
Q

Document states that you do not want to be resuscitated

A

Out of hospital DNR

104
Q

Where do you check if a patient is DNR

105
Q

Hospice maily focuses on ___ ___ ___ for patients

A

Quality of life

106
Q

T/F hospice is usually started late for oncology patients

107
Q

_____ is the lack of proper nutrition

A

malnutrition

108
Q

Three types of malnutrition are

A
  1. Starvation
  2. Chronic disease
  3. Acute disease
109
Q

Ex of starvation - pure chronic starvation

A

Anorexia nervosa

110
Q

Ex of chronic disease - related malnutriton (2)

A
  1. Organ failure
  2. Pancreatic cancer
111
Q

Ex of acute disease - injury related (4)

A
  1. Major burns
  2. Closed head injury
  3. Trauma
  4. Infection
112
Q

Six indicators of malnutrition

A
  1. Insufficent energy intake
  2. Weight loss
  3. Loss of muscle mass
  4. Local fluid accumilation
  5. Decreased functional status (hand grip strenght test)
113
Q

_____ is the loss of appetite or desire to eat

114
Q

____% - ____% of cancer patients have anorexia at diagnosis

115
Q

Anorexia can be a ____ ____ of treatment or secondary to the tumor itself

A

Side effect

116
Q

Chemo and radiation can worsen anorexia due to (3)

A
  1. Taste change
  2. Nausea
  3. Vomiting
117
Q

___ and ___ can make anorexia worse and lead to malnutrition

A
  1. Anxiety
  2. Depresion
118
Q

Progressive wasting syndrome is called

119
Q

Progressive wasting sighns

A

Significant loss of body fat and muscle

120
Q

What can increase risk of cachexia

A

GI tract tumors

121
Q

Sever muscle depletion is called

A

Sarcopenia

122
Q

Patients with lower skeletal muscle indes at diagnosis typicall have a ___ prognosis

123
Q

Patients with sarcopenia have a lower survial rate when undergoing ___

A

Chemotherapy

124
Q

Sacropenia is thought to occure in ___% of patients with advanced stage cancer

125
Q

Patients undergoing rad therapy with sarcopenia can experience these 3 things

A
  1. Treatment initerruptions
  2. Dose reductions
  3. Increased side effects
126
Q

Head and neck patients may require a ____ for nutritional support

A

PEG tube (enteral nutrition)

127
Q

Besides head and neck patients may require a ___ for nuritional support

A

Intravenous infusion of nutrients (parental nutrition)

128
Q

What does PEG stand for and what is it

A
  1. Percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy
  2. Feeding tube
129
Q

A patient my need a PED if they can’t (2)

A
  1. Cant swallow
  2. Get all nutrition by mouth
130
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 100 is

A

Normal
No complaints
No evidence of disease

131
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 90 is

A

Able to do normal activity
Minor signs of disease

132
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 80 is

A

Able to do normal with effort activity
some signs of disease

133
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 70 is

A

Unable to do normal activity
Cares for self

134
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 60 is

A

Requires some assistance but able to care for most of needs

135
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 50 is

A

Requires considerable assistance and frequent medical care

136
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 40 is

A

Disabled
Requires special care and assistance

137
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 30 is

A

Severly disabled
Hospital admission is indicated
Death not imminent

138
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 20 is

A

Very sick
Hospital admission necessary

139
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 10 is

A

Morinund
Fatal processes

140
Q

Karnofsky Performance scale 0 is

141
Q

Any substance that alters physical function is a ___

142
Q

___ is administered with therapeutic intent

A

Medication

143
Q

T/F All medications are drugs, but not all drugs are medications

144
Q

Seven rights of drug safty

A
  1. Right patient
  2. Right Medication
  3. Rigth dose
  4. Right time
  5. Right rout
  6. Right documentation of delivery
  7. Right reason or indication
145
Q

What are the responsibilities of a therpaist is an emergency (3)

A
  1. Call a code
  2. Deliver O2 and perform CPR
  3. Know location of emergency supplies
146
Q

Most common contrast used in GI exams

A

Barium Sulfate

147
Q

What are 2 administration routs for barium sulfate

A
  1. Oral
  2. rectal
148
Q

Baruim sullfate coats the lining of

A

Alimentary Organs

149
Q

Barium sufate absorbs x-rays, so it creats high levels of ___

150
Q

Barium sulfate requires additives to ___ ___ and ___ ___

A
  1. Facilliate ingestion
  2. Prevent clumping
151
Q

If barium irritates the colon, what does that cause?

152
Q

Barium can cause a rare disease called known as ___ (fluid overload) or ___ ___ where there is an excess of fluid volume in blood

A
  1. Hypervolemia
  2. Pulmonay edema
153
Q

___% of people have some sort of reaction to contrast

154
Q

Routs of druf admisinstration (4)

A
  1. Oral
  2. Rectal
  3. Parenteral
  4. Mucous membrance

RTT Patient Care Fall 24 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions