evidenced based practice: assessment and treatment Flashcards

1
Q

what is a multidisciplinary team

A

team members represent different disciplines, each member conducts their own eval and write separate reports. There is little interaction

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2
Q

what is a transdisciplinary team

A

multiple specialists work together in the initial assessment but only one or two provide services

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3
Q

what is an interdisciplinary team

A

tem members from multiple disciplines collaborate write an evaluation and intervention plan

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4
Q

what percentage of a sample will have scores within 1 standard deviation

A

68%

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5
Q

what are percentile ranks

A

show the percentage of subjects who scores at or below a specific raw score.

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6
Q

what does a score at the 25th percentile mean

A

75% scored better

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7
Q

why are SLPs turning to functional assessment

A

reimbursers are requiring documentation of functional outcomes of treatment

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8
Q

how does a clinician target functional communication during as assessment

A
  1. observe client with amily and peers
  2. arrange a child-caretaker interaction
  3. arrange for peer interactions
  4. talk with 2 or 3 peers about how the child interacts
  5. observe in classroom, cafeteria, playground with
    peers
  6. observe patient interaction with health care providers and family while assessing in medical settings
  7. emphasize conversational interaction. Do no make clinical judgments based solely on imitative or picture naming
  8. observe and record conversation in naturalistic situation
  9. create meaningful tasks
  10. use sentences that include names of family members, activities the client enjoys
  11. document variations in the disorder in natural settings
  12. examine the effect the client produces when he or she attempts to communicate
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9
Q

what are client specific assessments

A

alternative to standardized test

  1. generate data that are helpful in developing client specific treatment
  2. evoke speech-language samples over time by use of culturally appropriate client specific materials instead of standard stimuli
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10
Q

how do you establish a baseline for client specific assessment

A

establish baselines of targeted behaviors just before they are taught

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11
Q

what is criterion referenced assessment

A

performance is evaluated against a standard of performance called a criterion

  1. may be helpful when the norms of standardized tests do not apply to a particular client.
  2. they allow for more in depth evaluation of the patient
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12
Q

what is authentic assessment

A

speech and language samples in everyday settings

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13
Q

what is minimal competency core

A

a variation of authentic assessment
it takes age and specific context into account
the least amount of skill a typical speaker is expected to display

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14
Q

what is contrastive analysis

A

used to establish whether a speech pattern is part of a speaker’s cultural background or is a disorder
2. requiresknowledge of dialect

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15
Q

what is dynamic assessment

A

evaluates a child/s ability to earn when provided with istruction

  1. test-teach-retest
  2. demonstrates the modifiability of deficient skills
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16
Q

describe a comprehensive and integrated assessment

A
  1. clinician retains necessary elements of the traditional approach (cases history, interview, language sample, orofacial exam, and hearing screening)
  2. standardized tests may be used
  3. clinician uses a client-specific stimulus material, sample communication in natural settings, and evaluate each skill in depth
  4. targets are functional and meaningful
  5. clinician may expand data to include reading and writing samples, copies of academic records, reports from teacher or other professionals, video of conversation with others
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17
Q

what is the directmethod of response reduction

A

reducing behaviors by immediately providing a corrective feedback

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18
Q

what are discrete trials

A

each opportunity to produce a response is counted separately. They are more efficient in establishing target behaviors but are less efficient than naturalistic methods

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19
Q

what is escape

A

a behavior that reduces or terminates an aversive event after having come in contact with that event

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20
Q

what is an evoked trial

A

no modeling is given. Pictures, questions and other stimuli are used to provoke a response. Evoked trials follow modeled trails

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21
Q

what is an exemplay

A

specific target response that illustrates a broader target behavior. Individual items trained in therapy sessions: /s/ is an exemplar of the word soup

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22
Q

what is extinction

A

withholding reinforcers to reduce a response: appropriate in reducing behaviors as crying

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23
Q

what is fading

A

when the controlling power of a stimulus is gradually reduced while the response is maintained (making modeling less and less audible to client until withdrawn)

24
Q

what are functional outcomes

A

effects of treatment that are generalized and personally meaningful to clients. They are qualitative. Related to quality of life

25
Q

what are indirect methods of response reduction

A

reducing undesirable behaviors by positively reinforcing and thus increasing desirable behaviors

26
Q

what are probes

A

procedures to assess generalized production of responses without reinforcing them. Involve a criterion to be met before shifting training to a more complex level

27
Q

what are prompts

A

additional verbal or nonverbal that increase the probability of a target response (the word start with a t…)

28
Q

what is punishment

A

reducing undesirable behaviors by withdrawal of stimuli. Includes corrective feedback, time-out and response cost

29
Q

what is response cost

A

reducing responses by withdrawing reinforcers contingent on each response (take token away for every incorrect production)

30
Q

what is shaping

A

a method of teaching nonexistent responses that are not even imitated. The target response is broken down into initial, intermediate, and terminal components and those are taught in an ascending sequence

31
Q

what is time out

A

a brief period of silence, inactivity, averted eye contact, and lack of reinforcement imposed on a response to be reduced (cancellation)

32
Q

what is continuous reinforcement

A

all correct responses are reinforced

33
Q

what is intermittent reinforcement

A

reinforcing some responses and not others

34
Q

what is differential reinforcement

A

teaching the client to give different responses to different stimuli (plural response to plural stimuli)

35
Q

what is differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors

A

reinforcing a desirable behavior as an alternative to an undesirable one. (teaching a child to verbally request instead of whining)

36
Q

what is differential reinforcement of low rates of responding

A

decreasing undesirable behavior gradually by reinforcing progressively lower frequencies of that behavior (reinforcing a child for asking fewer interfering questions during treatment)

37
Q

what is differential reinforcement of incompatable behaviors

A

reinforcing a desirable behavior that cannot coexist with an undesirable behavior

38
Q

what is differential reinforcement of other behaviors

A

specifying one behavior that will not be reinforced while reinforcing many unspecified desirable behaviors

39
Q

what is an automatic reinforcer

A

sensory consequence of a behavior that reinforce that behavior (sensation for autistic kid who bangs their head against the wall)

40
Q

what is backup reinforcer

A

given at end of treatment in exchange for tokens earned in session

41
Q

what is a conditioned generalized reinforcer

A

reinforcer whose effect does not depend on motivational state of the client

42
Q

what are secondary reinforcers

A

praise, smiles, and approval that strengthen response because of past experience

43
Q

what are negative reinforcers

A

events that are aversive and reinforce a response that terminates, avoids, or postpones them

44
Q

what are positive reinforcers

A

events that follow a response and strengthen them

45
Q

what are primary reinforcers

A

effects that do not depend on past learning or conditioning.
Biologically determined because of survival value
useful in teaching infants, and toddlers with severe ID
response to verbal mands

46
Q

what is the normative strategy for treatment

A

age-based norms that dictate the selection of speech and language targets.

47
Q

what is the client specific strategy for treatment

A

behaviors that improve communication and meet the social, academic, and other demands made on the clinet will be targeted

48
Q

what is the functional communication strategy

A

target behaviors are selected that are the most useful to enhance demands of daily living

49
Q

what is the integrated approach to target behavior selection

A

targets are appropriate or the client’s age, ethnocultural background, individual uniqueness, and communication requirements
places more emphasis on the client and less on age-appropriateness

50
Q

that is the treatment sequence

A

1 response complexity: starts at simple level and grows more complex

  1. degree of structure: treatment is more structured in initial stages
  2. response modes: starts with imitation of modeled: modeling then withdrawn; progresses to spontaneous production in less structured environment
  3. multiple targets: multiple phonemes may be taught in a certain sequence; gentle onset and airflow management and slow speech for fluency
  4. training and maintenance:
  5. shifts in treatment contingencies: initially client reinforced for every correct response. Schedule changes to intermittent
51
Q

how do you increase maintenance

A
  1. select targets that are more likely to be produced in natural settings
  2. use a variety of stimuli
  3. give sufficient treatment with varied exemplars
  4. before dismissal, reinforce the skills in naturalistic conversation
  5. teach self-monitoring
  6. fade initial continuous reinforcement to intermittent and last use only social reinforcers
  7. teach family members to stimulate, prompt, and reinforce correct responses
  8. teach the client to prime others for reinforcement
  9. follow up with booster treatment if needed
52
Q

what is the procedure for follow up treatment

A
  1. record extended conversation to analyze continued production of treated behaviors
  2. determine a follow up schedule
53
Q

what is a follow up schedule timeline

A

first follow up at 3 months
second at 6 months
third at 1 year
subsequent assessments as necessary

54
Q

what is a booster treatment

A

treatment offered any time after initial dismissal
may be identical to the original treatment
may be a modified version
may be a different form know to be more effective
may be much less extended

55
Q

what are the 7 steps of all treatment programs

A
  1. select functional targets. Select short and long term goals. Make these objective, measurable, functional, and ethnoculturally relevant
  2. establish baselines
  3. plan a comprehensive treatment that specifies what the client will be required to do, what the clinician will do
  4. imprelemtn program wile managing behavioral contingencies that decrease undesirable responses
  5. implement a maintenance program. Teach client to self monitor and train key people. Arrange for booster
  6. follow up with client to assess maintenance over time
  7. conduct booster treatment if necessary