Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Review > Ethical Guidelines > Flashcards

Ethical Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

Beneficence

A

do no harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Core principle of patient advocacy

A

Beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of beneficence

A
  • educating patient on new prescription
  • encouraging smoking cessation
  • requesting doctor for stronger pain medication for patient who c/o severe pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

avoiding harm

protect patient from harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nonmaleficence example

A

-not prescribing medications for a patient with certain risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Utilitarianism

A
  • obligation to act in a way that is useful to or benefits the majority
  • to use a resource for the benefit of most
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Example of utilitarianism

A
  • WIC program

- Would cost society more if women, infant, or children, are harmed by inadequate food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Justice

A
  • quality of being fair and acting with a lack of bias

- fair and equitable distribution of societal resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Justice example

A

-Homeless man triaged and treated as the same as a patient with health insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dignity

A

quality or state of being worthy of ethical and respectful treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dignity example

A
  • secure hospital gowns so patients are not exposed

- foley catheter bags should be placed on other side of bed so others don’t see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fidelity

A
  • obligation to maintain trust in relationships

- Keeping one’s promise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fidelity example

A

-relationship between patient and provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Confidentiality

A
  • obligation to protect the patient’s identity, personal info, test results, medical records, conversations, and other health information
  • protected by HIPAA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PHI

A

protected health information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is included in PHI

A
  • name, address, date of birth, social security number

- individual’s past, present, or future physical/mental health and provision of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autonomy

A
  • obligation to ensure that mentally competent adult patients have the right to make their own health decisions
  • express treatment preferences
  • a mentally competent patient can accept or refuse, even if their children disagree
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Accountability

A

-health care providers are responsible for their own actions and do not blame others for their mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Paternalism

A
  • situation in which one person interferes with or overrules the autonomy of another
  • occurs when provider makes a decision for a patient because they believe it is in the patient’s best interest
  • patient is powerless
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Veracity

A

-obligation to present information honestly and truthfully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ANA code of ethics for nurses contains what

A

-goals
-values
and ethical precepts that direct the profession of nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ombudsman

A
  • a person who acts as an intermediary between the patient and the organization
  • investigates and mediates the complaint form both sides and attempts to achieve a fair conclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Guardian ad litem

A

-individual assigned by a court to act in the best interest of the ward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ward

A

-usually a person who is a child, or someone who is frail or vulnerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Living will

A
  • document that contains the patients instructions and preferences regarding health care if the patient becomes seriously ill or dying
  • ensure a copy is available in the chart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Health care power of attorney

A
  • document that indicates if a patient becomes incapacitated in the future, their preferences for medical care are listed
  • goes into affect when patients doctor has determined that he or she is physically unable to communicate in a willful manner
  • must be signed in presence of two adult witnesses who must also sign the document to be legal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Health care power of attorney can make financial decisions T/F

A

False

only for health care decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is health care power of attorney also known as

A

advance directive for medical decisions,
health care proxy,
durable medical power of attorney
health care surrogate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Power of attorney

A
  • document where patient designates a person who has the legal authority to make all decisions for them
  • encompasses health care decisions as well as finances and other aspects of their life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Power of attorney is also known as

A

durable power of attorney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Power of attorney can make health and financial decisions for the patient T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Covered entities

A
  • organizations subject to the Privacy Rule by HIPPA
  • all health care providers
  • health insurance companies
  • health care plans
  • labs
  • hospitals
  • SNFs
  • third-party administrators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a third-party administrator

A
  • organization that processes claims and administrative work for another company
  • health insurer, health plan, retirement plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HIPAA requirements

A
  • all providers are required to provide each patient with a copy of their office’s HIPAA policy to be signed
  • must be reviewed and signed annually by the patient
  • patients have the right to view their medical files
  • a mental health provider has the right to refuse patients’ request to view their psychiatric and mental health records
  • Providers have up to 30 days to comply if patients request to view their records
  • Patients are allowed to correct errors in their medical records
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is patient consent not required

A
  • to contact the health plan/insurance company that is paying for their medical care
  • to contact a third party that the insurance company or doctor’s office hires to assist in payment
  • to perform certain health care operations
  • contact collection agency for unpaid bills
  • report abuse/neglect or domestic violence
  • consult with other HCP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can HCP leave lab results on patient’s phone?

A

Only if patient has given permission or requested to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Are mental health records treated differently under HIPAA?

A

Yes

  • should be separated from other medical records
  • separate consent form is needed to release psychotherapy records
38
Q

Exceptions of mental health records and HIPAA

A
  • duty to warn: if patient poses serious and imminent harm to others
  • when patients do not object and are given an opportunity, HIPAA allows provider to share and discuss patients mental health info with family members and others involved in their care
39
Q

Are sign in sheets on the front office a HIPAA violation

A

No, only if the diagnosis is not listed

-can show names, dates, and times

40
Q

Is calling in a patient from the waiting room a HIPAA violation

A

No, only if the patients first name is used

if more than one person with the same name, use the first letter of last name

41
Q

Is leaving a voicemail a HIPAA violation

A

No

  • provide name and contact and limit to 60 seconds
  • when a patients phone number is listed, is expresses consent for phone calls to be made
42
Q

Information that can be left on voicemail

A
  • appointment reminders
  • notifications about prescriptions
  • preoperative and postoperative instructions
43
Q

HIPAA violation? Hospital staff wanting info on patients progress

A
  • Yes

- if they are not part of the health care team, no information can be released

44
Q

HIPAA violation? Family member calls and wants information on patients progress

A

Yes

-Put on hold and ask patient about the call, if they give permission, can speak with family member

45
Q

Minor criteria

A

-<18 years

46
Q

Do minors need to give consent to release records to their parents

A

-No

47
Q

Affordable Care Act

A
  • goal of expanding health insurance
  • prevents health insurance company from rejecting people with preexisting health conditions
  • penalty for employers and individuals who choose not to participate in the national health plan
48
Q

COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985)

A
  • aka COBRA coverage
  • provides continuation of coverage of preexisting group health insurance from the employer for workers and families who lose their coverage for a fixed period of tie
  • coverage generally offered for 18 months
49
Q

Managed care plans include..

A

HMO

PPOs

50
Q

HMO (health maintenance organization)

A
  • patients assigned a primary who is the gatekeeper
  • set copay per visit
  • participating HCP is paid a set fee per patient monthly
  • HCP must provide a referral for specialists and consults who are in the HMO network
  • Out of network physicians are not covered and reimbursed at a lower rate
51
Q

PPO (Preferred provider organization)

A
  • patient can visit any provider in the network without a referral
  • not assigned a PCP
  • can choose their own
  • Usually more expensive than HMOs
52
Q

What are Medicare and Medicaid under

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS

53
Q

Medicare part A is for

A

inpatient hospitalization

54
Q

When is Medicare part A automatic

A

at age 65 if patient has paid premiums

  • automatically deducted from pay-check by employer
  • If not paid, not eligible (full-time housewife)
55
Q

When is Medicare part A covered at any age

A

persons with end-stage renal disease

56
Q

Which religious groups do not participate in Medicare

A

Amish

Mnnonites

57
Q

Which medically necessary services will Medicare part A cover

A
  • inpatient hospitalization
  • inpatient psychiatric hospitalizations
  • hospice care
  • home health care
  • skilled nursing facility care
58
Q

What will Medicare part A NOT cover

A

-custodial care such as nursing homes and retirement homes

59
Q

What is Medicare part B for

A

outpatient insurance

  • voluntary program with monthly premiums
  • must enroll during the general enrollment period
60
Q

What will Medicare part B cover

A
  • medically necessary services
  • outpatient visits (walk-in clinics, urgent care, ED)
  • lab and other tests (EKG, xrays, CT)
  • durable medical equipment
  • second opinions
  • kidney dialysis, self-dialysis equipment
61
Q

What does Medicare part B NOT cover

A
  • most eyeglasses and eye exams (except after cataract surgery implants)
  • hearing aids
  • most dentures and dental care
  • cosmetic plastic surgery unless medically necessary
  • OTC drugs and most prescriptions
62
Q

Does Medicare part B cover preventative services

A

some

  • AAA screen
  • flu shot, Pneumovax and Prevnar 13 (once in a lifetime)
  • hep B vaccine series
  • Hep C screening
  • screening colonoscopy
  • routine pap
  • prostate cancer screening
  • bone density screening, if at risk
  • HIV screen, STI
  • physicals annually
  • smoking cessation and treatment
  • alcohol screen
  • DM screen
  • CVD screen
63
Q

What is medicare part C

A

aka Medicare Advantage

  • cover both inaptient and outpatient care (both A and B)
  • some plans cover some prescription drugs
  • administered by private health insurance companies approved by Medicare
64
Q

What is medicare part D

A
  • prescription drug benefit
  • Only individuals who are enrolled or eligible for A and B are eligible
  • All prescription drugs have a preferred formulary and must be used otherwise won’t be covered
65
Q

Who is Medicaid for

A
  • low-income individuals and families who meet the federal poverty-level
  • children, pregnant women, adults, seniors, and individuals with disabilities
66
Q

What will Medicaid over

A

healthcare and prescription drugs

  • substance use disorder
  • family planning services
  • maternal and infant health programs
67
Q

What is the children’s health insurance programs

A

-cover uninsured infants to adolescents and pregnant women

68
Q

Case managers

A
  • usually experienced RNs who act as coordinators for the outpatient management of patients with certain diagnoses
  • mainly done by telephone
69
Q

Patient-centered medical home (PCMH)

A
  • aka primary care medical home
  • another way to deliver patient-centered primary care
  • patient and family considered important members of health care team
  • coordinated to ensure smooth transition between home and hospital, home health agency, and community services.
  • 24/7 access to health care team through any method
70
Q

Quality improvement programs

A
  • monitoring, identifying problems, measuring outcomes, and establishing new parameters for improved performance.
  • goal to improve quality of care, decrease complications, decrease hospitalizations, lower patient mortality, decrease system errors, increase patient satisfaction
71
Q

Risk management

A

-process to identify risky practices to minimize adverse patient outcomes and corporate liability

72
Q

Accreditation

A
  • voluntary process
  • nongovernment association evaluates and certifies that an organization meets the requirements and excels in its class
  • ANCC
73
Q

Joint commission

A

-achieving certification means that a facility has met or surpassed an organization’s strict requirements

74
Q

Sentinal event reporting

A
  • patient safety event not related to natural course of patients illness that results in any of:
  • death
  • permanent harm
  • severe temporary harm with intervention required to sustain life
75
Q

Examples of sentinal events

A
  • suicide that occurs in facility or within 72 hours of discharge
  • unanticipated death of an infant
  • discharge of infant to the wrong family
  • rape or assault of staff, visitor, or vendor
  • invasive procedure on wrong patient
  • unintended retention of foreign object
  • fire, flame, or unanticipated smoke or heat during an episode of patient care
76
Q

Root cause analysis (RCA)

A
  • process to identify contributing factors that result in an error
  • When an SE occurs, an RCA is recommended
  • focus on system rather than blaming individuals
77
Q

Outcomes analysis

A
  • analysis and tracking of patient outcomes by using outcome measures
  • surveys, questionnares
78
Q

Majority of hospice care occurs where

A

in patients home

79
Q

What is the goal of hospice care

A

palliative, not curative

80
Q

How is hospice care covered

A

under Medicare part A
Medicaid
most health insurance plans

81
Q

Eligibility criteria for hospice

A
  • need certification by HCP the patient is terminal and has <6 months to live
  • patient rapidly declining or exhibits worsening symptoms
  • needs assistance with >2 ADLs
  • patient accepts palliative care, not curative.
82
Q

Respite care

A
  • short term respite for primary caregiver

- reimbursed by Medicare

83
Q

Healthy male symbol

A

-empty square

84
Q

Diseased male

A

filled square

85
Q

healthy female

A

empty circle

86
Q

diseased female

A

filled circle

87
Q

death symbol

A

diagonal dash across circle or square

88
Q

What part of Medicare covers ambulance for emergency care only

A

B

89
Q

Will Medicare part B cover ambulance for transportation needs

A

no

90
Q

What is the utilitarian principle

A
  • using limited societal financial resources on programs that will positively affect the largest number of people and have the lowest possible negative outcomes
  • not used to refer to an individual or one person
91
Q

What office enforces HIPAA breach notification rules

A

Office for Civil Rights

Review (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions