ER 20+21 Flashcards

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1
Q

importance of the mesonephric duct?

urogenital sinus?

A

Mesonephric duct is important for development of the male reproductive system

female vagina is partially formed from the urogenital sinus

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2
Q

gonadal ridges?

A

appear during week 5 on the medial aspect of the mesonephros

male and female are indistinguishable before week 7

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3
Q

important of primordial cells?

A

migrate from the umbilical vesicle to the gonadal ridges to initiate development of gonads

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4
Q

how are genders differentiated when is it done?

SRY gene?

A

sex determination is done by week 12

female: ovaries develop by regression of medulla
male: testes develop from regression of the cortex and differentiation of medulla

testis determining factor encoded by SRY gene leads to male development (testis)

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5
Q

congenital inguinal hernia?

A

the connecting portion of the process vaginalis does not obliterate

leaves a patency where intestines may herniate through

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6
Q

hydrocele

A

the process vaginalis contains a small amount of fluid before it obliterates

the fluid is usually reabsorbed

if not.. hydrocele

identified by transillumination

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7
Q

cryptorchidism and ectopic testis

A

cyto:
testes do not descend
lead to infertility and high risk for germ cell cancer

ectopic:
testes are in an abnormal place

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8
Q

Role of testosterone and AMH?

mesonephric ducts?

A

testosterone: stimulates in mesonephric ducts to transition into male genital ducts (from the leydig cells)

AMH: development of the paramesonephric ducts into female genital ducts is inhibited by AMH from sertoli cells

mesonephric ducts give rise to epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles

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9
Q

how is the prostate developed?

A

Endodermal outgrowths from the prostatic urethra differentiate into glandular tissue

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10
Q

development of the uterus

endo and myometrium?

A

the cranial portion of the paramesonephric duct becomes the uterine tubes

the caudal portion fuses together- from the uterine canal to give rise to the uterus.

endo and myometrium is formed from the splanchnic mesenchyme

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11
Q

double uterus?

bicornuate uterus?

unicornuate?

Bicornuate uterus with rudimentary horn?

A

double:
no or minimal fusion of the paramesonephric ducts

bicornuate:
if incomplete fusion is only superior

unicornuate:
incomplete development of one of the mesonephric duct

Bicornuate with:
One paramesonephric duct is inhibited and
this duct does not fuse with the second duct

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12
Q

vaginal agenesis

A

failure of the sinovaginal bulbs to develop and form the vaginal plate

the absence of the vagina is usually accompanied by no uterus
the development of the uterus induces the formation of the sinovaginal bulbs

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13
Q

vaginal atresia

A

failure of the canalization of the vaginal plate

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14
Q

imperforate hymen

A

failure of the inferior end of the vaginal plate to perforate

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15
Q

canal of nuck

A

the process vaginalis remains patent

this is subject to both herniation and hydrocele

females

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16
Q

targeted screening and population screening

A

target: screening of populations known to be at risk
Ex: affected person in family or high risk ethnic groups

population:
screening all members of a population regardless of family history (breast exam)

17
Q

purpose of prenatal screening?

A

usually used to detect 3 abnormalities:

trisomy 21 and 18 ]

neural tube defects

18
Q

alpha fetal protein?

A

synthesized in yolk sac, fetal GI and fetal liver

detectable at 6 weeks
peak at 12-14 weeks

can be used as a screening marker

19
Q

first trimester test? date ?

second trimester test? date?

A

first:
11-14 weeks + 1 day

look for pregnancy associated plasma protein A
human chorionic gonadotropin

second: 14 weeks + 2days to 20 weeks

triple test:
AFP, estriol, and HCG

Quad test:
inhibin A

20
Q

Low serum AFP,
low estriol
low PAPP-A
high β-hCG and high Inhibin A

A

trisomy 21

21
Q

Low serum AFP, estriol, PAPP-A and β-hCG

A

trisomy 18 (edward syndrome)

22
Q

first trimester test often shows reduced PAPP-A and β-hCG

second trimester doesn’t help with this diagnosis

A

trisomy 13 (patau syndrom)

23
Q

cell- free DNA (non-invasive prenatal screening)

A

used to detect aneuploidy (trisomy)
may be used to detect mutation

challenges:
young maternal age
twins
previous pregnancy

24
Q

neural tube effects can be best diagnosed by?

A

best diagnosed at 18 weeks with ultrasound and increased AFP

25
Q

Enlarged nuchal translucency 11-14 weeks

A

associated with trisomy

26
Q

chorionic villus sample

A

10-14 weeks

involves the removal of fetal cells by aspiration from the inner surface of placenta

direct chromosomal analysis by FISH

27
Q

amniocentesis

A

15-18 weeks

amniotic fluid is aspirated with the help of ultrasound

fetal cells are pelleted and used for chromosome analysis

supernatant can be used for AFP testing

28
Q

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

A

usually done after 18 weeks

Performed when there is a delayed suspicion of a
chromosomal abnormality usually detected by
ultrasound in 2nd trimester

29
Q

PKU screening

A

First to be screened by using quantitative mass spectrometry or tandem MS

elevated levels of Phe in the blood

treated by Phe restriction

30
Q

sickle cell detection and treatment

A
hemoglobin electro 
DNA test (PCR-RFLP) 

treatment:
prevention of sickling crisis by blood transfusions and use of hydroxyurea

31
Q

detecting thalassemia?

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin and hemoglobin electrophoresis

32
Q

cystic fibrosis detection and management

A

sweat test
DNA test
IRT test

manage:
Antibiotics to combat respiratory infections, gene therapy, management of associated malabsorption

33
Q

SCID detection and management

A

RT-qPCR can detect

manage: bone marrow transplant