Equine Dentistry Textbook Flashcards
What is a “loph” structure of a tooth?
Ch 1, evolution
“loph” is a complex ridge formed between cusps as enamel is worn away
Properly label the cusps and lophs of this maxillary cheek tooth
Ch. 1 Evolution
Ch. 1 Evolution
Properly label the cusps of this mandibular cheek tooth
Ch. 1 Evolution
Nervous horses may benefit from which anxiolytic drug prior to dental procedures?
A. Tramadol
B. Trazodone
C. Detomidine
D. Ketamine
Easley Textbook, ch 23
Trazodone
Dose 2.5-10mg/kg orally twice daily. Recommend testing dose a few days prior to procedure
Acepromazine is another anxiolytic given IV 20-30 minutes prior to procedure
Which of the following are common side effects of alpha-2-agonists?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, decreased GI motility, and polyuria
B. Tachycardia, hypertension, decreased GI motility, and anuria
C. Bradycardia, hypotension, increased GI motility, and polyuria
D. Bradycardia, hypertension, decreased GI motility, and polyuria
Easley Textbook, ch 23
D. Bradycardia, hypertension, decreased GI motility, and polyuria
What is the duration of the following opioids?
Buprenorphine
Morphine
Butorphanol
Easley Textbook, ch 23
Buprenorphine duration is 8-12 hours
Morphine duration 4-6 hours
Butorphanol duration 30-60 min
Lidocaine is commonly used for its analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antiendotoxaemic properties. However, toxicity is possible; whatis a sign of toxicity and a good indicator lidocaine infusion should be stopped?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
Muscle fasciculation
What are the following locoregional anaesthetic drug time to onset and durations:
Lidocaine
Mepivicaine
Bupivicaine
Easley Textbook, ch 23
Lidocaine - < 2 min, 1-2 hours
Mepivicaine - <2 min, 1.5-3 hr
Bupivicaine - 5-10 min, 3-8 hours
Maxillary nerve block desensitizes which structures?
Easley Texbook, ch 23
Ipsilateral maxillary teeth and gingiva, soft tissues rostral to infraorbital foramen, and nasal vestibule
+/- lacrimal nerve → lubricate ipsilateral eye every 30 minutes during procedure
The infraorbital nerve block desensitizes which structures?
Easley Texbook, ch 23
Ipsilateral maxillary teeth and gingiva, soft tissues rostral to infraorbital foramen, and nasal vestibule
If only passed slightly into foramen, doesn’t always anaesthetise molars
The inferior alveolar nerve block desensitizes which structures?
Easley Texbook, ch 23
Ipsilateral mandibular alveolar mucosa, teeth, gingiva, skin and labial mucosa rostral to mental foramen
The mental nerve block desensitizes which structures?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
ipsilateral alveolar mucosa, incisors and canine teeth, and labial mucosa, skin, and gingiva rostral to mental foramen
Mental nerve block desensitizes only the ipsilateral lower lip
What are some nerve block complications for the maxillary nerve block?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
retrobulbar hematoma, decreased lacrimation of ipsilateral eye
What are some nerve block complications for the infraorbital nerve block?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
puncture of adjacent blood vessels, abscess
What are some nerve block complications for the inferior alveolar nerve block?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
lingual anaesthesia, abscess, lingual trauma
What are some nerve block complications for the mental nerve block?
Easley Textbook, ch 23
abscess, muzzle trauma
Thermal damage will occur when pulp temperature is increased by how much?
Easley Textbook, ch 24
5.5 C
The risk of pulpar thermal damage is influenced by all of the following, except which?
A. Presence or absence of water cooling
B. Burr grit coarseness
C. Contact time
D. Depth of secondary dentin
Easley Textbook, ch 24
B. Burr grit coarseness
Burr speed is another influence thermal damage
Which direction do secondary dentinal tubules run?
Easley Textbook, ch 25
Coronal to apical
If an overgrown tooth is reduced to the level of the adjacent teeth how often will you expose at least one live pulp?
Easley Textbook, ch 25
58%
Which of the following statements is true regarding the enamel of incisors?
A. They contain mostly type I enamel and are less resistant to wear than cheek teeth
B. They contain mostly type II enamel and are less resistant to wear than cheek teeth
C. They contain mostly type I enamel and are more resistant to wear than cheek teeth
D. They contain mostly type II enamel and are more resistant to wear than cheek teeth
Easley Textbook, ch 25
B. They contain mostly type II enamel and are less resistant to wear than cheek teeth
What is the rate of eruption for teeth that are completely out of occlusion?
Easley Textbook, ch 25
0.5cm-2cm / year
Which of the following has the correctly paired definition?
A. Bacterial Adhesions - biofilm adhering to the teeth
B. Dental Plaque - proteinaceous layer that is between 0.5-1µm thick
C. Acquired pellicle - proteinaceous layer that is between 0.5-1µm thick
D. Acquired pellicle - proteinaceous layer that is thicker than 10µm
Ch 8
C. Acquired pellicle - proteinaceous layer that is between 0.5-1µm thick
Which of the following bacteria is most associated with equine infundibular caries?
A. Streptococcus
B. Olsnella
C. Veillonella
D. Acidaminococcus
Ch 8
D. Acidaminococcus
other 3 are associated with peripheral caries
In the following image what grade caries is present in the rostral infundibulum (marked R)
Ch 10
Grade 3
Which hard dental tissue is most susceptible to a decrease in pH?
Ch 10
Cementum
Cementum affected at pH 6.7
Dentine affected at pH 6.0
Enamel affected at pH 5.5
What malocclusion is shown in this image?
Ch 10
Shear mouth – 200s occlusal angle at 45 degress
What are the criteria for PD stage in Easley’s Ch 10?
Ch 10
Grade 0 - Normal
Grade 1 -gingivitis only (no interdental pocket or attachment loss)
Grade 2 - Gingivitis +interdental periodontal pocket < 10 mm depth with minor periodontal attachment loss at buccal or lingual/palatal margins
Grade 3 - Gingivitis + interdental periodontal pocket > 10 mm depth with moderate periodontal attachment loss at buccal or lingual/palatal margins
Grade 4 - Gingivitis + extensive periodontal pocket(s) > 10 mm with major periodontal attachment loss at buccal or lingual/palatal margins
What makes up equine pulp stones?
Ch 10
In equine teeth, pulp stones can more correctly be termed false pulp stones because they are composed of concentric layers of calcified tissue without any internal tubular structure.
These pulp stones occur both within viable equine pulp (free stones) and later embedded in areas replaced with secondary dentine and eventually can be seen on the occlusal surface.
What are the grades of peripheral cemental caries and the tissues involved in each?
Ch 10
0 - Normal tooth i.e. no macroscopic peripheral caries visible
1.1 - Only cementum affected: lesions appear as superficial erosions or pitting lesions or even as extensive erosions of the cementum surface, although there is still some underlying cementum left.
1.2 - Only cementum affected: more severe peripheral caries where the cementum is completely lost in some areas of the tooth, exposing the underlying (but unaffected) enamel.
2 - Cementum and underlying enamel are affected.
3 - Cementum, enamel and dentine are affected.
4 - Tooth integrity is affected (e.g. secondary dental fracture present).
What are the black arrows indicating in this incisor histopath image?
Ch 10
irregular but phasic growth of irregular cementum
What feature of campylorrhinis lateralis can be life threatening?
Ch 9
Nasal septum deviation
Wry nose
All features: Diagonal incisor occlusion, Focal cheek teeth overgrowths, Nasal septum deviation, Shortening of the incisive bones
The prevalence of hypodontia is estimated to be:
Ch 9
< 1%
A supernumerary tooth that is characterised by a simple, usually conical shaped crown with a single root is known as which type of supernumerary tooth?
Ch 9
Haplodont supernumerary tooth
Define a Tuberculate supernumerary tooth
Ch 9
A tooth with complexly-shaped clinical and reserve crowns with multiple raised tubercles with deep occlusal indentations on the occlusal surface.
What is a connate supernumerary tooth
ch 9
composed of two or more tooth elements joined together, possibly arising from the fusion of two or more tooth germs or alternatively from a partial splitting of an embryonic tooth into two or more parts – not necessarily supernumerary
Image from Dixon VCNA 2005 “Supernumerary Teeth in the Horse”
What does partial diastema widening entail?
Easley ch 26
only the occlusal 4 – 6 mm of the interdental space is widened (~40-50% of the clinical crown height)
What is normal equine dental drift, and which type of diastema should it prevent?
Easley ch 26
Normal equine cheek teeth have significant dental drift i.e. > 25 mm, in particular mesial (rostral) drift of the Triadan 11s over 10 years (2.83 cm per Liuti 2017)
Should prevent secondary diastemas
What instrument is shown here?
Easley ch 26
Equine periodontal (“diastema”) forceps
What % of horses have at least 1 dental abnormality on exam by the age of 15+ yo?
Easley ch 27
95.4%
At what age do incisors start to decrease in length?
Easley ch 27
13-15 yo
What abrasion pathology is shown in this image and is almost a normal finding in aged donkeys?
Easley ch 27
“Smile mouth”
What portion of the incisor is most comonly affected by EOTRH lesions?
Easley ch 27
Apical 1/3-1/2
What is the prevalence of infundibular caries and which tooth do they affect the most?
Easley ch 27
Up to 90% of horses over the age of 15 yo
Triadan 09s
Which of the following congenital abnormalities has NOT been associated with dentoskeletal malocclusions:
Limb contracture
Cleft palate
Umbilical hernia
Angular limb deformity
Easley ch 31
Angular limb deformity
What is the most common equine congenital craniofacial abnormality? % prevalence?
Easley ch 31
MAL2
2-5%
Injuries to which of the following structures is NOT associated with the development of MAL3
Nasal bones
Incisive bones
Palatine process of the maxillae
Nasal septum
Easley Ch 31
Nasal septum
Which structure is NOT involved in campylorrhinus lateralis?
Premaxillae
Frontal bone
Vomer bone
Nasal septum
Easley ch 31
Frontal bone
When using a removable functional bite plate for treating MAL2 how many hours a day does the foal need to wear the appliance?
Easley ch 31
16 hours
What is the best age to place a functional orthodontic appliance on a foal with MAL2?
Easley ch 31
8-12 weeks
After deciduous 02s erupt
In Easley’s 2016 paper: Orthodontic correction of overjet/overbite in 73 foals (EVJ) what was the mean reduction in over jet malocclusion?
Easley ch 31
9.9mm
In Easley’s 2016 paper: Orthodontic correction of overjet/overbite in 73 foals, what was the mean reduction in overbite malocclusion?
Easley ch 31
8.4mm
What genetic markers have been noted in horses and donkeys as possible areas affecting skeletal malocclusions?
Easley ch 9
Horses: chromosomal region ECA13 –> MAL2
Donkeys: polymorphism MATN1 –> MAL3
In Klaus’ 2013 papers on surgical correction of brachygnathia, what surgery and fixation device as used?
Easley ch 31
Osteotomy and external fixator (type 1)
