Endocrine Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

what line in the pituitary gland in

A

midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where is skull is the pituitary gland

A

in the sella turcica, is closey related to the sphenoid sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what connects the pituitary gland to the brain

A

the pituitary stalk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what structures surround the pituitary gland

A

optic chiasms superiorly
carotid arteries laterally
hypothalamis superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does a bone scan do

A

makes map of osteoclast activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what can cause peripheral vision loss

A

eye, optic nerve, chiasm, optic tract, brain

any pathology/ injury in these areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what retina does peripheral vision hit

A

medial retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which field of vision crosses the optic chiasm

A

peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when pituitary adenomas are more likely to be hormonally active

A

microadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can show whether a pituitary adenoma is functional

A

contrast scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why is the thyroid easy to image

A

as superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the thyroid anterior to

A

the trachea and the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the thyroid deep to

A

the strap muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the thyroid medial to

A

common carotid arteries and internal jugular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what nerve runs along the back of the thyroid

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is at risk in thyroid surgery

A

parathyroid glands and the recurrent laryngeal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is inferior to the thyroid

A

sternum, great vessels and aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what can cause a midline neck mass in adults

A

enlarged thyroid gland (benign, malignant, mets), enlarged lymph nodes, thryoglossal cyst, cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the diffuse and focal causes of hyperthyroidism

A

diffuse- graves, thyroiditis

focal- dominant nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do differentiate the cause of hyperthyroidism

A

radioisotope studies and ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what can be combined with ultrasound for investigating the thyroid

A

fine needle aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when in thyroid problems in fine needle aspiration done

A

in euthyroid patients with goitre/palpable nodules

in hyperthryoid patients with focal masses/ radioisotope uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does thyroid scintigraphy do

A

show pattern and quantity of tracer uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what would thyroid scintigraphy show for graves

A

homogenously increased tracer uptake

25
Q

what would thyroid scintigraphy show for hypothyriodism

A

reduced tracer uptake

26
Q

what would thyroid scintigraphy show for thyroiditis

A

homogenously reduced tracer uptake

27
Q

what would thyroid scintigraphy show for a functional nodule

A

focal uptake increased

28
Q

where are the adrenal glands

A

retoperitoneal, suprarenal

29
Q

what imaging can show the adrenal glands

A

CT and MRI

30
Q

what are the two limbs of the adrenal gland

A

medial and laternal

31
Q

where in relation to adrenal glands in the IVC

A

right adrenal gland lies posterior to the IVC

32
Q

what does the left adrenal gland lie lateral to

A

aorta and left diaphragmatic crus

33
Q

what should you think if there is a SOLID mass in the adrenal glands

A

metastasis- lung most common

34
Q

give examples of flat bones

A

skull, pelvis, sternum

35
Q

what is trabeculae

A

cancellous bone- made of spongey, porous bone tissue

loosely packed in the medulla - condense towards the cortex

36
Q

what is hypertrophic periosteal osteoarthroplasty

A

when endocrine problem causes the laying done of more bone layers

37
Q

what bones undergo endochondral ossification

A

long bones (femur, metatarsal)

38
Q

describe enchondral ossification

A

start as cartilage, osteoblasts replace the cartilage with oestoid which mineralises to form bony trabeculae

39
Q

where do cartilagnous bones ossify

A

firstly in the diaphysis and then within the epiphysis

40
Q

how is bone girth increased

A

cells from periosteum lay down cicrumferential new bone on the periphery of existing cortex

41
Q

how is bone length increased

A

cartilage proliferation at the growth plates between the metaphysis and epiphysis

cartilage then ossifies

42
Q

how do you describe bone abnormalities

A

diffuse or focal

43
Q

what are the types of focal bone abnormalities

A

traumatic, neoplastic (lytic bone destruction or sclerotic bone formation)
inflammatory
degenerative

44
Q

what are the types of diffuse bone abnormalities

A

bones too brittles (osteoporosis)

bones too soft (rickets and osteomalacia, pagets)

45
Q

what is process behind osteoporosis

A

reduction in trabecular density, common in post menopausal females

46
Q

what are the secondary causes of osteoporosis

A

steroids, early menopause, anorexia

47
Q

where are common sites for osteoporotic fractures

A

proximal femur, sacrum and pubic rami, thoracolumbar vertevral bodies, distal radius

48
Q

what does osteoporotic bone look like

A

lucent

49
Q

will a vertbral fracture involving the posterior parts of the vertebrae be osteoporotic

A

no- more likely to be due to a metastatic deposit

50
Q

what is the cause and outcome of rickets

A
Vitamin D deficiency
Non-ossification of soft osteoid
Bone deformity, pain and growth abnormality
Widened growth plates
Irregular, flared metaphyses
51
Q

what is the cause and outcome of osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D deficiency
Non-ossification of soft osteoid
Bone deformity, pain and tendency to partial fractures
Poor cortico-medullary differentiation

52
Q

what causes pagets

A

increased bone turnover with unknown cause

53
Q

what are the features of pagets

A
single or multiple bones affected
initial lytic phase results in well defined lucency
latter sclerotic phase with
enlarged bone
increased density
coarse trabecular pattern
54
Q

what does a lytic bone lesion look like

A

Medullary lucency and loss of trabeculae

loss of conrtex

55
Q

what can cause a lytic bone lesion

A

GCT, metastasis, simple bone cysts, osteomyelitis, +++ loads more

56
Q

what should you think of in a sclerotic bony metastatic disease in a man

A

prostate

57
Q

what are features of a sclerotic bone lesion

A

Subtle medullary density and loss of trabeculae
Spreading zone of density which includes cortex
Featureless white bone
Expansion beyond normal bone limits, with cortical destruction and potential for pathological fracture

58
Q

are sclerotic bone lesions malignant or benign

A

can be both