Drugs For Disorders Of Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

_____________ digests fibrin

A

Plasmin; inactive plasminogen must be converted to active plasmin

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2
Q

Families of drugs used to reduced clotting

A
  • platelet aggregation inhibitors (anti platelet drugs)
  • anticoagulants
  • thrombolytics
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3
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of actions that allow for the inhibition of platelet aggregation

A
  • Cyclooxygenase inhibitors
  • ADP receptor blockers
  • phosphodiesterase inhibitors
  • blockers of platelet GP IIb/IIIA receptors
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4
Q

Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of ________ by _______________ of the enzyme ________

A
Thromboxane A2 (causes platelet degranulation and aggregation) ; Irreverisble acetylation ; 
COX
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5
Q

What kind of protein receptor is involved in the aggreagation and activation of platelets?

A

Gq protein → Phosopholipase C → IP3 and DAG → release of calcium from ER activation PKC which then activates Phospholipase A2 → which activates the receptor (G2b/G3b) allowing for fribonrgen to bind and platelets aggregate

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6
Q

_______ forms bridges between adjacent pallets because it is ________

A

Fibrinogen; bivalent

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7
Q

What drugs are ADP receptor blockers?

A

Clopidogrel & Ticlopidine

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8
Q

Mechanism of ADP receptor blockers

A

Irreversible inhibitors of P2Y12 which is a subtype of ADP receptor

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9
Q

Of the ADP receptor blocker drugs, ___________ has fewer adverse effects than ____________

A

Clopidogrel; ticlopidine

Clopidogrel is preferred over ticlopidine

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10
Q

Clopidogrel is a prodrug that is converted to the active form by __________

A

CYP2C19

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11
Q

An individual who is a poor CYP2C19 metabolizer will have _________ plasma levels of clopidogrel

A

Low; CYP2C19 is used to convert the prodrug form to the active form of clopidogrel

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12
Q

Concurrent use of clopidogrel and ______________ should be avoided

A

Omeprazole (CYP2C19 inhibitor) because then cannot get the active form of clopidogrel

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13
Q

Drugs that are phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

Dipyridamole: used for stroke prevention
Cilostazol: used for intermittent claudication

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14
Q

↑ _______ promotes dormant platelets while ↑ _________ leads to activation and aggregation of platelets

A

CAMP; calcium

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15
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors cause an ↑ in _____________

A

CAMP; causes platelets to remain dormant

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16
Q

Drugs that are blockers of platelet GP 2B/3A receptors

A
  • Abciximab
  • Eptifibatide
  • Tirofiban (most popular)
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17
Q

Platelet GP 2B/3A receptor blockers are used for prevention of _____________

A

Cardiac ischemic complications after a MI

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18
Q

Classes of anticoagulant drugs based on mechanism (4)

A
  • indirect thrombin & factor Xa inhibitors
  • direct thrombin inhibitors
  • direct factor Xa inhibitors
  • Vitamin K antagonists
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19
Q

Drugs that are indirect thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors:

A

Heparin: unfractionated and low molecular weight (enoxaparin)
Fondaparinux

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20
Q

Administration method of heparin

A

Injected; rapidly active

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21
Q

UFH vs LMWH: Which one has higher, lower, or equal of the following

  • efficacy
  • bioavailability
  • half life
  • dosing requirements
A

Efficacy: equal
Bioavailability, half life: LMWH has higher (longer half life)
Dosing requirements: LMWH has less frequent dosing req.

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22
Q

Mechanism of action of heparin

A

Heparin acts a cofactor for antithrombin III and accelerates its normal function of inhibitor clotting factor pretenses: thrombin, IXa, and Xa

23
Q

What clotting factors does antithrombin III inhibit?

A

Thrombin, IXa, and Xa

24
Q

Difference in the mechanism of action between UFH and LWMH

A

UFH efficiently inactivates BOTH thrombin and Xa

LMWH has less effect on thrombin but efficiently inactivates Xa

25
__________ is not necessary to accelerate the inactivation of clotting factor ______ by antithrombin III
Ternary complex; Xa | LMWH cannot form a ternary complex but this is why both UFH and LMWH efficiently inhibit factor Xa
26
_____________ is used to monitor heparin levels
APTT assay (activated partial thromboplastin time) which tests for integrity of the intrinsic and common pathways
27
Potency of LMWH can be assessed with __________ usually in ________ patients
Anti-factor Xa assays; obese
28
Uses of heparin
DVT, pulmonary embolism, MI and drug of choice for pregnant women
29
In heparin induced thrombocytpenia type II, ________ binds to the heparin causing it to be immunogenic and then ______ binds to the immune complex and activates platelets causing degranulation and activation and release of more platelet factor 4
Platelet factor 4; IgG
30
Heparin induced thomrbocytopenia type 2 can result in thrombocytopenia and ________
Thrombosis
31
Therapy for heparin induced thrombocytopenia type II
Discontinue heparin and administers a DTI or fondaparinux
32
Antidote for excessive heparin administration
Protamine sulfate
33
Warfarin inhibits ___________
Vitamin K epoxide reductase
34
How long does it take to see the effect of warfarin?
6-60 hours because that is the half life of the circulating clotting factors
35
Fondaparinux is a specific inhibitor of ___________ and is approved for prevention and treatment of _______
``` Factor Xa (negligible antithrombin activity) DVT ```
36
Peak warfarin effect is seen ________
72-96 hrs
37
Antidote to excessive warfarin administration
Vitamin K
38
Monitoring of warfarin levels is done by _____________ which tests the integrity of the ____________ pathways of coagulation
Prothrombin time; extrinsic and common pathways
39
Adverse effects of warfarin
- hemorrhage - cutaneous necrosisdue to ↓ activity of protein C which is an anticoagulant factor that requires vitamin K - teratogenic if taken during pregnancy
40
Cutaneous necrosis is an adverse effect of taking what drug?
Warfarin
41
Which one should be used for pregnant patients: heparin or warfarin
Heparin
42
Drugs that are parenteral DTI’s (direct thrombin inhibitors) and how are they monitored?
- desirudin - bivalirudin - argatroban APTT
43
Oral DTI drugs
Dabigatran etexilate (prodrug)
44
Benefits of oral DTI
Produces a predictable response and does not need to be routinely monitored like you would need to with Heparin
45
Drugs that are director factor Xa inhibitors
Apixaban & rivaroxaban | - do not req. monitoring and given orally
46
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOAC’s) _________________ (3) are replacing warfarin for treating stroke and preventing embolism is atrial fibrillation because:
Dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban DOAC’s have equal efficacy and ↓ bleeding rates, dont need to be monitored, rapid onset of action, predictable pharmacokinetics, wider TW, and fewer drug interactions
47
Thrombolytic drugs and mechanism
``` Streptokinase Urokinase Alteplase Reteplase Tenecteplase ``` Promote conversation of plasminogen to plasmin
48
Urokinase is formed by ___________
Kidney; found in the urine
49
_____________ causes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin and is “fibrin selective” unlike streptokinase and urokinase; Explain fibrin selective
T-Pa (tissue plasminogen activator) which is a serine protease produced by endothelial cells T-Pa only converts plasminogen to plasmin when the plasminogen is bound to fibrin
50
___________ and _________ are recombinant variants of t-Pa with a longer half life
Reteplase and tenecteplase
51
Classes of drugs used to treat bleeding
- Plasminogen activator inhibitors - protamine sulfate - vitamin K - plasma fractions
52
Drugs that are plasminogen activation inhibitors
Aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid
53
Protamine sulfate can be used as an antidote for excessive administration of _________ because ______
Heparin; | Charge-charge antagonism: protamine sulfate is very positively charged while heparin is negatively charged
54
Plasma fractions are given to __________
People with genetic defects such as factor XIII or Factor IX deficiencies (hemophilia)