Antibacterials 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Chloramphenicol is a ____________ spectrum and inhibits _________

A

Broad spectrum; protein synthesis

Bactiostatic

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2
Q

Chloramphenicol binds to ______ and inhibits __________

A

50S; peptidyltransferase

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3
Q

What is an adverse effect of chloramphenicol?

A

Bone marrow toxicity

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4
Q

Presence of ___________ codes for resistance against chloramphenicol

A

Acetyltransferase

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5
Q

What is the method of resistance for chloramphenicol?

A
  • presence of a factor that codes for acetyltransferase

- changes in membrane permeability

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6
Q

When is chloramphenicol used clinically?

A

Only for serious infections due to the severe toxicity (last resort)

  • used against VRE
  • eye drops
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7
Q

Chloramphenicol inhibits ________ and thus can have a lot of drug interactions

A

Hepatic oxidases (3A4 and 2C9)

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8
Q

What is a unique adverse effect of choloramphenicol?

A

Gray baby syndrome (cyanosis) due to drug accumulation because they don’t have well developed livers yet

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9
Q

MOA of clindamycin

A

Same as macrolides: binds to 50S and blocks translocation

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10
Q

clindamycin is used against _________

A

Primarily Gram positive anaerobic (and aerobic) bacteria and bacteriodes

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11
Q

Most _______________ and ________are intrinsically resistance to clindamycin

A

Gram negative aerobes; enterococcus

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12
Q

Clindamycin has cross resistance with ______

A

Macrolides

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13
Q

Can clindamycin used to treat MRSA?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Clinical applications of clindamycin

A

Used as an alternative for pencillin allergic patients (like macrolides)

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15
Q

Adverse effects of clindamycin

A
  • fatal pseudomembranous colitis (C difficile)
  • GI irritations
  • skin rashes
  • neutropenia and impaired liver function
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16
Q

What antibiotics can cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A
  • clindamycin

- ampicillin

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17
Q

Drugs that are in the class of streptogranins (protein synthesis inhibitors)

A

Quinupristin and Dalfopristin

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18
Q

Which antibacterial have a postantibiotic effect?

A

Stretogranins and Aminoglycosides

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19
Q

MOA of streptogranins

A

Bind to 50S ribosome

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20
Q

Clinical applications of streptogramins

A
  • gram positive cocci
  • multi drug resistance bacteria (MRSA, VRE)
  • can attack intracellularly because they penetrate macrophages and polymorphonucleocytes (PMP’s)
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21
Q

Streptogramins can have drug interactions because they can inhibit _________

A

CYP3A4

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22
Q

Linezolid is mainly bacteriostatic but is bacteriocidal against ______ and _________

A

Streptococci and Clostridum perfringens

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23
Q

MOA of linezolid

A

Inhibits the 70S invitation complex by binding to the 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit

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24
Q

Linezolid has a similar MOA as _______ but what is the difference?

A

Aminoglycosides; they both inhibit the initiation complex except Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit

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25
Clinical applications of linezolid
- mainly gram positive organisms including MRSA and VRE | - moderate activity against mycobacterium tuberculosis
26
Linezolid is also a weak ______
MAOI
27
Linezolid is well tolerated for short term but what are some long term administration adverse effects?
- bone marrow suppression especially thrombocytopenia - optic and peripheral neuropathy - lactic acidosis - serotonin Syndrome (it is a weak MAOI)
28
Fidaxomicin has activity against _________
ONLY gram positive; NO action on gram negative
29
MOA of fidaxomicin
Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to bacterial RNA polymerase
30
Clinical applications of fidaxomicin
Treatment of C. Difficile in adults
31
_______________ is a bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors that is used in people > 18 because safety and effectiveness in people younger have not been established
Fidaxomicin
32
Mupirocin’s route of administration is __________ and has activity against ________
Topical/intranasal; | Most gram positive cocci including MRSA
33
Mupirocin binds to _________ and inhibits protein synthesis
Bacterial isoleucyl tRNA synthetase
34
Clinical applications of mupirocin
Intranasally: eradicate nasal colonization of MRSA in adult patients and healthcare workers Topically: impetigo or secondary infected traumatic skin lesions
35
_____________ (skin condition) is treated using mupirocin
Impetigo
36
Adverse effects of mupironcin
Mainly local and dermatology effects such as burning, edema, tenderness, dry skin, etc
37
Classes of drugs that affect nucleic acid synthesis
- fluoroquinolones - sulfonamides - trimethoprim
38
Describe the type of bacteria that is mainly affected as you move from 1st to 4th generation of fluoroquinoles
↑ activity against gram positive and ↓ activity against gram negative Opposite of cephalosporins
39
MOA of fluoroquinolones
Broad spectrum, bacteriocidal and enter bacteria via porins Inhibits DNA replication via topoisomerase II and topoisomerase IV
40
Fluoroquinoles inhibit ____________ and _________
Topoisomerase II and IV
41
Mechanism of resistance against fluoroquinoles
- chromosomal mutation that encode subunits of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV or ones that regulate expression of efflux pumps - cross resistance with other drugs
42
What drug is a 1st generation fluoroquinolone
Nalidixic acid
43
What is a 2nd generation fluorquinolone drug and what is its antimicrobial spectrum
Ciprofloxacin; | Synergistic activity with β lactams
44
What is a 3rd generation fluoroquinolone drug and what does it have good activity against
Levofloxacin; excellent activity against S. Pneumonia
45
What are the two 4th generation fluoroquinolone drugs
Moxifloxacin and gemifloxacin
46
What are the three drugs that are used against meningitis
- ceftriaxone - rifampin - ciprofloxacin
47
What are the respiratory fluoroquinolones
3rd and 4th generation: - levofloxacin - moxifloxacin - gemifloxacin Can be used to treat atypical pneumonia because those bacteria dont have cell walls
48
When are respiratory fluoroquinolones used for treatment
Used to treat pneumonia but when first line agents have failed (macrolides w/ or w/o tetracyline) Or in the presence of comorbidities
49
___________ and _______ absorption are affected by divalent cations
Fluoroquinoles and tetracyclines
50
Most fluoroquinolones are excreted via __________ except ________
Renal; moxifloxacin
51
Which fluoroquinolone would you prescribe to a patient with renal dysfunction
Moxifloxacin because it is excreted in the bile
52
What are the adverse effects of fluorquinolones
- Connective tissue problems (avoid in pregnancy, nursing mothers and under 18) - peripheral neuropathy - QT prolongation - GI distress - CNS, rash, photosensitivity - superinfection
53
Connective tissue problems is an adverse effect to taking ______
Fluoroquinolones
54
What type of patients CANNOT take fluoroquinolones?
Pregnant, nursing mothers and patients under 18 years old
55
What drugs have an adverse effect of QT prolongation
- fluoroquinolones: moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin, levofloxacin - macrolides
56
______, _______, and ______ enhance the toxicity of fluoroquinolones
Theophylline, NSAIDS and corticosteroids
57
What are the drug interactions of 3rd and 4th generation fluoroquinolones
- ↑ serum levels of: warfarin, caffeine and cyclosporine
58
What are the drugs in the sulfonamide family and what kind of bacteria do they act against
- sulfamethoxazole - sulfadiazine - sulfasalazine Bacteristatic against gram positive and negative
59
MOA of sulfanomides and how is it specific to bacteria?
Inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis; They are synthetic analogs of PABA and thus are competitive inhibitors of dihydropteroate synthase (this enzyme is only used by bacteria to create folate)
60
Sulfonamides are compete with PABA for the enzyme ________
Dihydropteroate synthetase
61
Mechanisms of resistance against sulfonamides
- altered dihydropteroate synthase - ↓ cellular permeability - enhanced PABA production - ↓ intracellular drug accumulation
62
What are some clinical applications of sulfonamides and what are they used for?
Topical: ocular and burns Oral: simple UTI’s
63
What is sulfasalazine used to treat?
- ulcerative colitis - enteritis - IBD (This one is oral NON absorbable)
64
Unique adverse effects of sulfonamides
- Crystalluria (nephrotoxicity) - hypersensitivity reactions - hematopoietic disturbances (especially in those with G6PD deficiency) - kernicterus in newborns and infants
65
What drugs can cause kernicterus
Ceftriaxone and sulfonamides
66
Sulfonamides can displace drugs such as _____, ______, and _______ from albumin
Warfarin, phenytoin, and methotrexate
67
Trimethroprim is a potent inhibitor of _________
Bacterial dihydrofolate reductase | Inhibits purine, pryrimidine, and AA synthesis