DNA Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Describe the structure of DNA

A

It’s made up of nucleotides, composed of a sugar molecule phosphate group and nitrogenous base, nucleotides are held together by a weak hydrogen bonds, DNA joints to form a double helix, the order of the nitrogenous bases determines the genetic code, DNA is about 2 to 3 m long, DNA has deoxyribose sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the structure of RNA

A

Composed of a chain of nucleotides, made up of rubber sugar, single-stranded, can fold its self turning the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name and describe the types of DNA

A
  • nuclear DNA form very long strands which are bound to proteins and histone’s
  • mitochondrial DNA located in the mitochondria and form circular molecules which are not bound to proteins there are five molecules of mitochondrial DNA In each mitochondria which contain 37 jeans 24 of these jeans code for making transfer RNA which are used in protein synthesis and the other 13 or instructions for making enzymes for cell respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name and describe the types of RNA

A

Messenger RNA- made in the nucleus and takes genetic code to the cytoplasm allowing for genetic code to be read by ribosomes

Ribosome RNA: 60% of ribosome or RNA insure correct alignment of mRNA and tRNA ribosome or RNA also have an enzymatic role in the formation of a peptide bond between the amino acids

Transfer RNA- small molecule of RNA containing 70 to 90 nucleotides each tRNA molecule is able to carry a specific amino acid which plays a role in protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the role of DNA

A

The genetic coding DNA provides instructions of protein synthesis the sequence of the bases in DNA controls the order of amino acids meaning it affects the type of proteins that can be produced They also determine the structure of the cell and how it functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the types of jeans and how they interact

A

Promoter gene: indicates which structural gene will be transcribed for protein synthesis so the RNA polymerase will bind to the gene then transcribe the structure gene if this gene is turned off the structure gene will be turned off meaning the gene is off.

Structural gene: the nucleotide sequence which codes for a specific proteins at the ribosome

Regulator Gene: inhibits or enhances transcription by either producing molecules which repress molecules meaning proteins are produced to block the promoter or structural gene therefore RNA polymerase cannot find meaning no transcription occurs or it will produce proteins which in Hants RNA polymerase binds into jeans therefore increase transcription and protein synthesis can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication

A

Two strands of DNA are separated by enzyme heck delays this can be done due to the week hydrogen bonds each strand has each strand has been separated in half of the original information and is a template For the nucleotide which will form on the next new strand the new strand or form identical to the original the formation results and two identical strands are in a polymerase as the new nucleotides to the UK strand and DNA ligase joins the short sections of DNA together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain the process of transcription

A

Transcription is when genetic instructions are copied or transcribed from the DNA and mRNA molecule

Initiation: where transcription is initiated by a chemical messenger e.g. a hormone and binds to the relevant site forming part of the Epigenome RNA polymerase then binds to the promoter site

Elongation: RNA then moves from a 5 to 3 direction on the double helix unwinding it RNA polymerase as a complimentary free nucleotides to form an mRNA strand at the start sequence

Termination: RNA polymerase reaches a stop triplet in the DNA and stops copping mRNA strand is then released and undergoes splicing to remove entrance and join extras together mRNA leaves through the nuclear poor and the double helix reforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the process of translation

A

Translation is the production of proteins using information which is coded in the mRNA molecule of the cytosol

  1. Binds to ribosomes am I in a bind to ribosomes at the code on binding site the ribosome then moves along the RNA and when it reaches a star code on AUG and translation begins
  2. Translation TRNA in the cytoplasm has a complimentary anti-codon for the mRNA codons  anti-codons correspond to the specific amino acid and tRNA Kalex amino acids to bring to the ribosomes
  3. Peptide bonds amino acid delivered to the ribosome and I joined by peptide bonds which uses 1 ATP this forms a polypeptide chain
  4. Stop codon: when ribosome reaches a stop code on translation is complete and the mRNA strand is released and the polypeptide chain is sent to the Gogli apparatus for packaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the stages of the cell cycle

A

G1 phase the first growth phase where the cell produces new proteins grow normal tasks will end when the sale starts duplicating

S phase The synthesis phase the DNA molecule forms exact copies of each other

G2 phase: The second growth phase this is the prep for cell division 

M phase: This is the miotic phase when the cell divides into two daughters cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the process of mitosis

A

Interphase this is the period between nuclear divisions the sale will go through G1, S and G1 during S phase the DNA forms exact copies of themselves meaning quantity of DNA in the nucleus doubles

Prophase in the first phase 2 pairs of centrioles are visible and move to either side or polls of the cell the microtubules then radiate from the same time the nucleus disappears the nuclear membrane begins to breakdown the chromatin threats of DNA become tightly coiled this is seen as the chromosomes coil the long delicate DNA and makes the DNA easily distributed to the daughter cells to chromatids are identical the DNA molecules produced in interphase and the centrioles are A joint network called spindle fibres

Metaphase: chromatid pairs line in the middle attached the spindle fibres the spindle fibres contract and pull the chroma zones in a single alignment along the equator

Anaphase the pair of chromatids separate for you from The centromere due to the contractions the chromatids are independent and now known as chroma zones chroma zones pull away from each other and move to separate poles

Telophase: The chroma zones now will reach the polls and form tight groups the spindle fibres disappear and the chroma zones on coil becoming chromatin once again nuclear membrane reforms and the nucleus reforms

Cytokinesis division of the cytoplasm until cytoplasm develops between the two nuclei furrows deep in between the two cells pinching off making them to separate cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain what differentiation is

A

When different jeans are activated during mitosis it causes the cells to differentiate into specialised cells so it can perform specific functions for example like muscle cells and stomach cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain what a totipotent, pluripotent and multi potential stem cell all are

A

totipotent: they have the potential to create any cell necessary for embryonic development including the embryo and other cells which nourish the embryo

Pluripotent: gives rise to any of the cells in the body embryonic stem cells aporia potent as they differentiate to form or cells of the individual

multi potent: have the potential to form numbers of different cells for example blood cells and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the process of meiosis

A

 first division the homologous pairs separate and two daughters cells form with 23 chromosomes each with 2 chromatids the second division of chromatids separate

Prophase one the chromosomes become visible as long threads chroma zones have gone through replication so they each have two chromatids the chroma zones move so that the homologous chromosomes move next to each other and contract to become thicker

Metaphase one homologous pairs moved the equator with spindle fibres

Anaphase one each homologous chromosomes separates moving to separate ends of the spindle fibres resulting in 23 chromosomes moving to each end

Telophase 1: the chromosomes Decondense  and cytokinesis occurs forming to daughter cells

Prophase two: new spindle fibres for each new daughter cells have one chromosome

Metaphase two: sister chromatids moved to the centre of the cell and align on the metaphase plate

Anaphase two: spindle fibres contract causing chromatids to separate and are pulled to opposite poles

Telophase 2: spindle fibres contract sister chromatids are separated and move to opposite ends

Cytokinesis the cytoplasm splits into two and forms for haploid cells from the original cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain what a stem cell is

A

They don’t have a pet any particular role they have the potential to develop into any cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly