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USMLE 1 > DIT Rapid-Fire Facts > Flashcards

DIT Rapid-Fire Facts Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
0
Q

Most common cause of congenital malformations in the US

A

Alcohol use during pregnancy

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1
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

Folate deficiency

*most common vitamin deficiency in the US

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2
Q

Most common cause of congenital mental retardation in US

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

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3
Q

Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens discoloration

A

Marfan Syndrome

-defect in fibrillin (scaffold for elastin)

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4
Q

Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport syndrome

-defect in Type IV collagen (BM)

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5
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead

A

Bell’s palsy

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6
Q

Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

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7
Q

“Worst headache of my life”

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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8
Q

Lucid interval following head trauma

A

Epidural hematoma

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9
Q

Bloody CSF on LP

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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10
Q

Most common cause of subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of bridging veins

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11
Q

Most common cause of epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery

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12
Q

Toe extension upon stimulating the sole of the foot with a blunt instrument

A

Babinski sign

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13
Q

Hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, positive Babinski sign

A

UMN Lesion

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14
Q

Hyporeflexia, decreased muscle tone, muscle atrophy

A

LMN lesion

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15
Q

Depigmentation of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease

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16
Q

Chorea, dementia, atrophy of caudate and putamen

A

Huntington’s disease

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17
Q

Eosinophilia inclusions of cytoplasm of neurons

A

Levy bodies

  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Lewy body dementia
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18
Q

Conjugate lateral gaze palsy, with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia

-occurs with multiple sclerosis

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19
Q

Degeneration of the dorsal columns

A

Tabes dorsalis

-Tertiary syphilis

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20
Q

Demyelinating disease in young women

A

Multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

Mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

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22
Q

Newborn with arm paralysis following difficult labor

A

Erb palsy

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23
Q

Pupil that accommodates but doesn’t react to light

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil

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24
Q

Most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s

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25
Q

Second most common cause of dementia

A

Multi-infarct dementia

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26
Q

Extracellular amyloid deposits in grey matter

A

Senile plaques - Alzheimer’s

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27
Q

Intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Neurofibrillary tangles - Alzheimer’s

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28
Q

Intracellular spherical aggregates of tau protein, seen on silver stain

A

Pick bodies - Pick’s disease

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29
Q

Treatment for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

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30
Q

Treatment for tonic-colonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, Valproic acid, Carbamazepine

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31
Q

Amyloid deposits in the gray matter of the brain

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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32
Q

Drooling farmer

A

Organophosphate poisoning

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33
Q

Inability to breast feed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance, secondary hypothyroidism

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

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34
Q

Infertility, galactorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Prolactinoma/ Pituitary adenoma

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35
Q

Most common causes of Cushing syndrome

A
  1. Exogenous cortisol
  2. Ectopic ACTH
  3. ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (Cushing Disease)
  4. Cortisol secreting Adrenal adenoma
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36
Q

Most common tumor of adrenal gland

A

Benign adrenal adenoma

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37
Q

Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults

A

Pheochromocytoma

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38
Q

Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in kids

A

Neuroblastoma

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39
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal adenoma

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40
Q

Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone (K+ sparing diuretic, acts as an aldosterone antagonist)

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41
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Irreversible a-antagonist: phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine + B-blocker

*DO NOT give B-blocker alone bc will worsen HTN

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42
Q

Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, parathyroid hyperplasia (hyperparathyroidism)

A

MEN 2A

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43
Q

Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, mucosal neuromas

A

MEN 2B

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44
Q

Adrenal disease associated with skin pigmentation

A

Addison’s disease

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45
Q

HTN, Hypokalemia, Metabolic alkalosis, Low plasma renin

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s Syndrome)

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46
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma

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47
Q

Cold intolerance

A

Hypothyroidism

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48
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

-Orphan-Annie eye nuclei

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49
Q

Amyloid deposits in gray matter of the brain

A

Alzheimer’s disease senile plaques

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50
Q

Drooling farmer

A

Organophosphate poisoning/ Cholinergic toxicity

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51
Q

Standard treatment for DKA

A

IV Fluids, IV Insulin, K+ replacement

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52
Q

Standard treatment for Type I DM

A

Insulin, low sugar diet

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53
Q

Standard treatment for Type II DM

A

Oral hypoglycemics, probably insulin, low sugar diet, weight loss

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54
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

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55
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

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56
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure –> hypocalcemia

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57
Q

Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental removal during thyroidectomy

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58
Q

Facial spasm when tapping on the cheek

A

Chvostek sign

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59
Q

Parathyroid, pancreatic, pituitary tumors

A

MEN 1

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60
Q

Dysphagia, glossitis, iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

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61
Q

Hematemesis with retching

A

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

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62
Q

Mucin-filled cell with a peripheral nucleus

A

Signet ring cell

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63
Q

Most common type of stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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64
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer

A

Krukenburg tumor

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65
Q

Gastric ulceration and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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66
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma

A

Cushing ulcer

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67
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

Curling ulcer

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68
Q

Pancreatic jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer

-esp of head of pancreas

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69
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones, Alcohol

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70
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol abuse

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71
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

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72
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/ Anti-gliadin / Anti-endomysial antibodies

A

Celiac sprue

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73
Q

Vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects

A

Folate

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74
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

Fatty Liver Disease

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75
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory Bodies- Alcoholic Hepatitis

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76
Q

Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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77
Q

Severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate

A

Crigler-Najjar-I

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78
Q

Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert Syndrome

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79
Q

Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome

NO JVD

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80
Q

Green/yellow corneal deposits

A

Wilson’s disease

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81
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson’s disease

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82
Q

Cirrhosis, diabetes, hyperpigmentation

A

Hemochromatosis

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83
Q

Treatment for chronic hepatitis

A

IFN-a

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84
Q

Most common cancer of the appendix

A

Carcinoid tumor

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85
Q

Most common surgical emergency

A

Appendicitis

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86
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of the mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

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87
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner Syndrome

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88
Q

Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness

A

Appendicitis; McBurney’s sign

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89
Q

“Apple core” lesion on barium enema

A

Colorectal carcinoma

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90
Q

Corneal clouding, coarse facies, HSM, skeletal abnormalities,restricted joint movement +/- mental retardation

A

I- cell disease

Deficiency in phosphotransferase –> deficiency in M6P

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91
Q

Nuclear localization sequence is rich in which AAs

A

Lysine, Arginine, Proline

NLS is necessary for protein entry into nucleus

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92
Q

Mutation in Nuclear Lamins leads to

A

Progeria

Muscular dystrophy

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93
Q

Bronchiectasis, recurrent sinus infections, infertility, situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome

-defect in dyenin arm leads to immobile cilia

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94
Q

PDGF, Growth factors, Insulin, Insulin-GF act on what receptor

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor

  • bind Extracellular ligand, conformation change, intracellular domain transfers phosphate group from ATP to selected tyrosine side chains
  • autophosphorylation is 1st step in signaling cascade that uses this receptor
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95
Q

What are the two most abundant substances in plasma membranes

A

Cholesterol, Phospholipids

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96
Q

Labile cells

A

Bone marrow, gut epithelium, skin, hair follicles, germ cells
-constantly regenerate therefore G0 is absent and G1 is short

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97
Q

What are the mechanisms of cell injury

A
  • ATP depletion
  • Mitochondrial damage
  • Ca2+ influx
  • Accumulation of oxygen free radicals
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98
Q

Enzymes that handle oxygen free radicals

A

Superoxide dismutase, Catalase, Glutathione peroxidase

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99
Q

Elevated ESR

A
  • Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • Temporal arteritis
  • Disease activity in RA and SLE
  • Infection, Inflammation i.e. Osteomyelitis
  • Malignancy
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100
Q

Cell that generates fibrinogen and CRP

A

Hepatocyte

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101
Q

Metals that facilitate generation of oxygen free radicals

A

Iron, Copper

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102
Q

Blue sclera, multiple fractures with minimal trauma, hearing loss, dental imperfections, presentation can be confused with child abuse

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

  • Type I: AD, mutation in alpha chains of Type I collagen or mutation/defect in glycosylation of preprocollagen to form procollagen
  • Type II: AR, mutation in Type II collagen, often die in utero
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103
Q

Joint instability, Hypermobile joints, Hyperextensible skin, vascular sx, organ rupture, berry aneurysm, aortic aneurysm, tendency to bleed

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

  • defect in collagen synthesis- typically Type I&III
  • Type III collagen defect —> vascular sx, risk of organ rupture
  • Type V collagen defect —> hyperextensible skin
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104
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

Dysfunction in microtubule polymerization leads to defect in lysosomes and phage some formation

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105
Q

Lipofuscin granule

A

Result of free radical lipid peroxidation; brown pigmented residual body within cell

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106
Q

Amino acids modified in the Golgi apparatus

A

Serine, Threonine, Asparagine

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107
Q

Incr AFP

A

Anencephaly or abdominal wall defect

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108
Q

Main inhibitory NT in brain

A

GABA

-decr levels in Huntingon’s disease and Anxiety

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109
Q

Main inhibitory NT in SC

A

Glycine

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110
Q

Main excitatory NT in brain

A

Glutamate

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111
Q

NT levels in Anxiety disorder

A

Incr. NE

Decr. GABA, 5-HT

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112
Q

Principle NT in REM Sleep

A

ACh

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113
Q

Acetylcholinesterases used to treat Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil, Galantamine, Rivastigmine

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114
Q

Group of genes responsible for skeletal development

A

HOX genes

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115
Q

Drugs used to treat urge incontinence

A

Oxybutinin, Tolteridine, Darifenacin, Solifenacin, Trospium

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116
Q

Substances that inhibit NE Reuptake

A

Cocaine, TCAs

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117
Q

Substances that stimulate NE release from neurons

A

Amphetamine, Ephedrine, Tyramine, Ca2+, ATII (maybe)

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118
Q

Pancreatic beta cells

A

Insulin

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119
Q

Pancreatic alpha cells

A

Glucagon

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120
Q

Pancreatic delta cells

A

Somatostatin

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121
Q

Estradiol

A

Ovaries

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122
Q

Estriol

A

Placenta

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123
Q

Estrone

A

Adipose tissue

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124
Q

Anterior pituitary hormones

A

GH, FSH, LH, ACTH, PRL, TSH

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125
Q

Posterior pituitary hormones

A
  • Oxytocin: made in paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

- ADH/Vasopressin: made in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

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126
Q

Hypothalamic hormones

A

TRH, CRH, GnRH, GHRH

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127
Q

Adrenal cortex- Zona Reticularis

A

Testosterone

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128
Q

Adrenal cortex- Zona Fasciculata

A

Glucocorticoids

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129
Q

Adrenal cortex- Zona Glomerulosa

A

Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

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130
Q

What are the side effects of glucocorticoid use

A
  • Iatrogenic Cushing disease: moon facies, buffalo hump, truncal obesity, muscle wasting, easy bruising, thin skin
  • Insomnia, Psychosis
  • Acne, Glaucoma
  • Osteporosis, Glucose intolerance/ Diabetes, Peptic ulcer
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131
Q

MEN 2A and 2B are associated with what gene mutation

A

Ret

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132
Q

Neuroblastoma is associated with what gene mutation

A

N-myc oncogene overexpression

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133
Q

What is the main synthetic mineralocorticoid given to stimulate aldosterone receptors in patients with Aldosterone deficiency

A

Fludrocortisone

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134
Q

Tumors that secrete EPO

A
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Hemangioblastoma
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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135
Q

Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

- b>a; a1, a2, b1, b2

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136
Q

Drug of choice for cardiogenic shock

A

Dobutamine

-b1>b2, a

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137
Q

Drug of choice for septic shock

A

Norepinephrine

-a1>a2>b1

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138
Q

What abnormalities are often found with an Arnold-Chiari malformation?

A

Syringomyelia, Myelomeningocele

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139
Q

Classic presenting symptoms of Syringomyelia

A

Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution (C8-T1) in the upper extremities/ back

-severe cases that expand to involve the anterior horn –> weakness and atrophy of the muscles of the hand

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140
Q

Increased AFP

A

Anencephaly, Failure of abdominal wall to close, Hepatocellular carcinoma

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141
Q

Decreased AFP

A

Down syndrome

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142
Q

4 major dopaminergic pathways

A
  • Mesocortical
  • Mesolimbic
  • Nigrostriatal
  • Tuberoinfundibular
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143
Q

Blocking Mesocortical pathway

A

Incr. negative symptoms of psychosis

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144
Q

Blockage of Mesolimbic pathway

A

Relief of psychosis

-target of Dopamine antagonists

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145
Q

Blockage of Nigrostriatal pathway

A

Parkinsonism sx

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146
Q

Stimulation of Nigrostriatal pathway

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms

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147
Q

Blockage of Tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

Incr. release of Prolactin from pituitary –> Hypogonadism –> Amenorrhea in women, Decr. Libido, Gynecomastia, Galactorreha in men

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148
Q

Treatment of Prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonist- Bromocriptine

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149
Q

Degeneration of basal nucleus of Meynert, decr. CNS ACh

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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150
Q

What are the thalamic nuclei

A
  • Paraventricular
  • Supraoptic
  • Anterior
  • Preoptic
  • Suprachiasmatic
  • Dorsomedial
  • Posterior
  • Lateral
  • Mamillary
  • Ventromedial
  • Arcuate
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151
Q

Arcuate nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-releasing hormones (CRH, GHRH, GnRH, TRH) affect anterior pituitary

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152
Q

Ventromedial nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-satiety; stimulated by leptin

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153
Q

Lateral nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-hunger; inhibited by leptin

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154
Q

Posterior

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-hearing, sympathetic nervous system

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155
Q

Dorsomedial nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

  • GI
  • stimulation –> savage behavior, obesity
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156
Q

Suprachiasmatic

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-circadian rhythm

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157
Q

Preoptic area

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-GnRH

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158
Q

Anterior nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-cooling, parasympathetic nervous system

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159
Q

Supraoptic nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-makes ADH

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160
Q

Paraventricular nucleus

A

Hypothalamic nucleus

-Makes oxytocin

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161
Q

What secondary messenger do FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH use

A

cAMP

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162
Q

What secondary messenger does CRH use

A

cAMP

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163
Q

What secondary messenger do GHRH, TRH, GnRH, Oxytocin and ADH use

A

IP3

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164
Q

What molecules use cGMP as a secondary messenger

A

AMP, NO

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165
Q

What molecules act on tyrosine kinase receptors

A

Insulin, IGF-1, GH, PDGF, FGF, Cytokines, Prolactin

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166
Q

Decreases endocrine and exocrine secretion, reduces splanchnic blood flow, reduces gastric motility and gallbladder contraction, inhibits secretion of most gastrointestinal hormones

A

Somatostatin

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167
Q

What do LH, FSH, TSH and hCG have in common

A

a-subunit

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168
Q

Clinical features of acromegaly

A
  • large hands and feet
  • deep voice
  • impaired glucose tolerance
  • coarse facial features, large tongue, incr. spacing of teeth
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169
Q

Caused by Cystic fibrosis

A

Meconium ileus

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170
Q

Caused by adhesions

A

Small bowel obstruction

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171
Q

“Bulls eye” on ultrasound

A

Intussusception

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172
Q

Common in post op

A

Intestinal ileus

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173
Q

Currant jelly stool

A

Intussusception

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174
Q

GI pain out of proportion to exam

A

Ischemic colitis

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175
Q

Impaired defection with alternating diarrhea and constipation

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

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176
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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177
Q

Diverticulum that contains 2 types of epithelium? What are those types?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum- pancreatic and gastric epithelium

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178
Q

Pneumatosis intestinalis

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

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179
Q

AST > ALT

> 2:1

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

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180
Q

Incr. GGT, Incr. ALP

A

Biliary tract disease

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181
Q

Incr. ALP

A

Bone formation, obstructive hepatobiliary disease, Hepatocellular carcinoma, bone disease

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182
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Ascites, hepatomegaly, no JVD

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183
Q

Decr. Ceruloplasmin, kayser- fleischer rings

A

Wilson’s disease

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184
Q

Cirrhosis, Diabetes Mellitus, Skin pigmentation

Incr. Ferritin, decr. TIBC, incr. Transferring saturation

A

Hemochromatosis

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185
Q

a1-anti trypsin deficiency affects what organs

A

Liver –> Cirrhosis

Lungs –> Panacinar emphysema

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186
Q

Treatment of Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillinamine or Trientine

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187
Q

Treatment of Hemochromatosis

A

Repeated phlebotomy, deferasirox, deferoxamine

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188
Q

Charcot’s Triad of Cholangitis

A

Jaundice, Fever, Right upper quadrant pain

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189
Q

Reynold’s Pentad

A

Jaundice, Fever, RUQ pain, hypotension, altered mental status

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190
Q

+ Murphy sign

A

Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpating d/t pain

-occurs with Cholecystitis

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191
Q

Fructose intolerance

A

Aldolase B deficiency

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192
Q

Essential Fructosuria

A

Fructokinase

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193
Q

Classic Galactosemia

A

Galactose-1-phosphotransferase

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194
Q

What structures run through the cavernous sinus

A

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

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195
Q

Hartnup disease

A

Autosomal recessive; deficiency of neutral amino acid transporters in proximal renal tubular cells and on enterocytes

Can lead to pellagra like sx

196
Q

Lack of NADPH Oxidase

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

197
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of HMP shunt (pentose phosphate pathway)

A

G6P-Dehydrogenase deficiency

198
Q

Defect in fructokinase

A

Essential Fructosuria

199
Q

Deficiency of Aldolase B

A

Fructose intolerance

200
Q

Hereditary deficiency of galactokinase

A

Galactokinase deficiency

201
Q

Absence of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferas

A

Classic Galactosemia

202
Q

Most common urea cycle disorder

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

-X-linked recessive

203
Q

Decr. Phenylalanine hydroxylase or decr. BH4

A

Phenylketonuria

204
Q

Homogentisate oxidase deficiency

A

Alkaptonuria

205
Q

Cystathione synthase deficiency

A

Homocystinuria

206
Q

Decr. affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate

A

Homocystinuria

207
Q

Hereditary defect of renal PCT and intestinal amino acid transporter for cysteine, ornithine, lysine, arginine

A

Cystinuria

208
Q

Decr. a-ketoacid dehydrogenase

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

209
Q

Want are the symptoms of PKU

A

Intellectual disability, growth retardation, seizures, fair skin, eczema, musty body odor

210
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Glycolysis

A

Phosphofructokinase

211
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Gluconeogenesis

A

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

212
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for TCA cycle

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

213
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Glycogen synthesis

A

Glycogen synthase

214
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Glycogenolysis

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

215
Q

Mineral compounds used to treat esophageal reflux

A

Aluminum hydroxide, Magnesium hydroxide, Calcium carbonate

216
Q

Side effects of glucocorticoid use

A

Osteoporosis, glucose intolerance/ diabetes, insomnia, psychosis, glaucoma, acne, peptic ulcer, iatrogenic Cushing syndrome (moon facies, buffalo hump, thin skin, truncal obesity, easy bruising, muscle wasting)

217
Q

Cofactors required for Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate, Lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, NAD

218
Q

Cofactors required for a-ketoglutarate

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate, Lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, NAD

219
Q

CTLs against donor MHC

A

Acute rejection

  • cell mediated
  • occurs in weeks-months
220
Q

T-cells perceive donor MHC as non-self

A

Chronic rejection

  • Ab mediated
  • occurs in months-yrs
221
Q

Preformed Abs to Donor Ags

A

Hyperacute rejection

-immediate

222
Q

Stomach biopsy reveals neutrophils above BM, loss of surface epithelium, fibrin containing purulent exudate

A

Acute Gastritis

223
Q

Stomach biopsy reveals lymphoid aggregates in lamina propria, columnar absorptive cells, atrophy of glandular structures

A

Chronic Gastritis

224
Q

Diffuse thickening of gastric folds, elevated serum gastric levels, biopsy reveals glandular hyperplasia without foveolar hyperplasia

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

225
Q

Receptors found on gastric parietal cells that regulate acid secretion

A 
H2: responds to histamine
CCK-B: responds to gastric 
M3: responds to ACh
Prostaglandin receptor
Somatostatin receptor
226
Q

Two most common causes underlying hospital administration for a bleeding peptic ulcer

A

H. pylori, NSAIDs

227
Q

PMNs don’t respond to IFN-y and chemotactic stimuli

A

Job Syndrome- Hyper IgE

228
Q

Small intestine mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria (filled with PAS + granules and rod shaped bacilli seen on EM)

A

T. whippeli; Whipple disease

229
Q

Total or subtotal atrophy of small bowel villi, plasma cell and lymphocyte infiltration into the lamina propria and epithelium, hyperplasia/elongation of crypts

A

Celiac sprue

230
Q

Classic symptoms of Carcinoid Syndrome

A

Bronchospasm, Diarrhea, Flushing, R. Sided heart disease

231
Q

Common causes of Small Bowel Obstruction

A
  • adhesions (75%)
  • hernia
  • cancer (metastatic colorectal carcinoma)
232
Q

Signs of Portal HTN

A

Ascites, esophageal varies, portosystemic shunts, hepatosplenomegaly, Hematemesis, Caput medusae, melena

233
Q

Risk factors for development of Hepatocellular carcinoma

A
  • Budd-Chiari Syndrome
  • Hemochromatosis
  • a1-Antitrypsin deficiency
  • Wilson’s disease
  • Hepatitis B & C
  • Alcoholic Cirrhosis
  • Aflatoxin, Aspergillus
  • Hepatic adenoma
234
Q

Treatment for Chronic Hepatitis

A

IFN-a

235
Q

Antibodies present in Autoimmune Hepatitis

A

ANA(+)
Anti-microsomal (+)
Anti-smooth muscle (+)
Anti-mitochondrial (-)

236
Q

Treatment of severe Cirrhosis

A
  • Lactulose: treat encephalopathy
  • Vitamin K: maximize clotting potential
  • Diuretics: decrease ascites and edema
  • B-blocker: prevent bleeding from esophageal varices
237
Q

Increased bilirubin production occurs in which disorders

A

Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Hemolytic Anemia
  • Sickle Cell disease
  • Hematoma breakdown
238
Q

Impaired bilirubin uptake and storage occurs in which disorders

A

Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Post viral Hepatitis
  • Tx with Rifampin
239
Q

Decreased UDP-GT activity occurs in which disorders

A

Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Gilbert Syndrome
  • Crigler-Najjar Type I & II
  • Neonatal physiologic jaundice
240
Q

Impaired transport of bilirubin occurs in which disorders

A

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
  • Rotor Syndrome
241
Q

Biliary epithelial damage occurs in which disorders

A

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Hepatitis
  • Cirrhosis
  • Liver failure
242
Q

Intrahepatic biliary obstruction occurs in which disorders

A

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
  • Sclerosing Cholangitis
  • Arsenic
  • Tx with Chlorpromazine
243
Q

Extrahepatic biliary obstruction occurs in which disorders

A

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemias:

  • Pancreatic neoplasm
  • Pancreatitis
  • Cholangiocarcinoma
  • Choledocholithiasis
244
Q

GI Problems associated with a Down Syndrome

A
  • Duodenal Atresia
  • Hirschsprung disease
  • Annular pancreas
  • Celiac disease
245
Q

Chorioretinitis, Hydrocephalus, Intracranial Calcifications

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

246
Q

Most common site of colonic diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

247
Q

“String sign” on contrast X-Ray

A

Crohn’s disease

248
Q

“Lead pipe” appearance of colon on contrast X-Ray

A

Ulcerative Colitis

249
Q

Causes of Eosinophilia

A

Drugs, Neoplasia, Atopic (asthma, allergy, eczema), Addison’s disease, Acute Interstitial Nephritis, Collagen vascular disease (SLE, Churgg-Strauss), parasites (Ascaris –> Loeffler eosinophilia pneumonitis)

250
Q

Most common infections seen in Chronic Granulomatous Disease

A

Catalase + organisms:

  • Pseudomonas
  • S.aureus
  • Klebsiella
  • E.coli
  • Aspergillus
  • Candida
251
Q

Eczema, recurrent URI, high serum IgE

A

Hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)

252
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

253
Q

Nephrotoxic/Ototoxic drugs

A

-Vancomycin, Aminoglycosides, Loop Diuretics, Cisplatin

254
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

-d/t metabolite: Acrolein

255
Q

+ Hams test

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

256
Q

X-linked immunodeficiencies

A
  • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  • Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
  • Chonic Granulomatous dz
  • Hyper IgM syndrome
257
Q

Most common infections seen in Chronic Granulomatous disease

A

Catalase + organisms:

-Pseudomonas, S. aureus, Klebseilla, E. coli, Aspergillus, Candida

258
Q

Eczema, recurrent URI, high serum IgE

A

Hyper IgE syndrome/ Job syndrome

259
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

260
Q

Boy with self-mutilating behavior, mental retardation, gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

-HGPRT Deficiency

261
Q

Elevated Uric acid levels

A
  • Gout
  • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
  • Tumor lysis syndrome
  • Use of loop or thiazide diuretics
262
Q

Bluish colored lines on gingivae

A

Lead poisoning- Burton’s lines

263
Q

Treatment of choice for Rickets or Osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D

264
Q

Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, spots on the skin

A

Scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency)

265
Q

Most common vitamin deficiency in the US

A

Folate

266
Q

Hyper segmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia

267
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, poly neuropathy

A

B1 (thiamine) deficiency - Beri-Beri

268
Q

Patient presents with convulsions and irritability. What vitamin deficiency is causing these symptoms

A

B6

269
Q

Dark purple modules on the skin in an HIV PT

A

Kaposi sarcoma

270
Q

Large cells with owls eye inclusions

A

CMV

271
Q

Treatment for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

272
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

273
Q

Drug used to prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

TMP/SMX

274
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

S. aureus, B. cereus

275
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

276
Q

Ring enhancing brain lesion in an HIV PT

A

Toxoplasma gondii

277
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

278
Q

Most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

279
Q

Most common helminthic infection in the US

A

Enterobius vermicularis

280
Q

Second most common helminthic infection in the US

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

281
Q

Most common bacteria implicated in exotoxin-mediated food poisoning

A

S. aureus, B. cereus

282
Q

Branching gram positive rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces

283
Q

Inactivated EF2 via ADP ribosylation

A

C. diptheriae

284
Q

a & y toxins

A

C. Perfringens

285
Q

Lethal factor and edema factor

A

B. Anthracis

286
Q

Most common urea cycle disorder

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

287
Q

Calcified granuloma in the lungs, hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex

288
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

Pott’s disease- M. Tuberculosis in vertebrae

289
Q

Standard treatment for TB

A

Rifampin + INH + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + B6 (INH will cause B6 deficiency so must supplement)

290
Q

Lactic acidosis is a rare but worrisome side effect of what medication

A

Metformin

291
Q

Most common side effect of sulfonylureas is

A

Hypoglycemia

292
Q

Closes K+ channel on B-cells which leads to depolarization, Ca++ influx and then insulin release

A

Sulfonylureas

293
Q

Inhibits a-glucosidase at intestinal brush border

A

a-glucosidase inhibitor

-Acarbose

294
Q

Standard treatment for T. Pallium

A

Pencillin G

295
Q

Cellulitis from a dog or cat bite

A

Past rubella multicoda

296
Q

A non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Painless chancre- Primary syphilis

297
Q

Moist, smooth, flat, white genital lesion

A

Condyloma lata- Secondary syphilis

298
Q

Large bulls-eye rash

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

-early Lyme dz

299
Q

Gummas, aortitis, tabes dorsalis, Argyll-Robertson pupil, Charcot joints

A

Tertiary syphilis

300
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for immediate anti-coagulantion

A

Heparin or LMWH (Enoxaprin, Dalteparin)

301
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for long term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

302
Q

Preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy

A

Heparin

303
Q

Causes hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Fe deficiency, Thalassemia, Pb poisoning

304
Q

Hyper segmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia: B12 or a Folate deficiency

305
Q

Skull x-Ray shows “hair on end” appearance

A

Marrow hyperplasia

  • B thalassemia
  • Sickle cell disease
306
Q

Basophils stippling of RBCs

A

Pb poisoning

307
Q

Painful cyanosis of the fingers and toes with painful hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutinins

-IgM

308
Q

Red urine in the morning, fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

309
Q

Basophils nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

-Asplenic PTs

310
Q

Autosplenectomy

A

Sickle-cell disease

311
Q

Drug used to treat Sickle cell disease

A

Hydroxyurea

312
Q

Antiplatelet antibodies

A

ITP

313
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier disease

314
Q

Most common lymphoma in the US

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

315
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

316
Q

Particularly associated with EBV

A

Burkett lymphoma

Hodgkin lymphoma

317
Q

Associated with long term Celiac disease

A

Intestinal T-cell lymphoma

318
Q

Lymphoma equivalent of CLL

A

SLL

319
Q

“Starry sky” pattern d/t phagocytosis of apoptotic tumor cells

A

Burkitt lymphoma

320
Q

Associated with Sjogren syndrome, Hashimoto thyroiditis, H. Pylori

A

Marginal cell MALToma

321
Q

Cancer most commonly associated with a non infectious fever

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

322
Q

“Smudge cells”

A

CLL

323
Q

“Punched out” lytic bone lesions

A

Multiple Myeloma

324
Q

Sheets of lymphoid cells, with a “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma

325
Q

RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins

A

Multiple Myeloma

-Rouleaux formation

326
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike

A

Multiple Myeloma

  • MGUS
  • Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
327
Q

Reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

Auer-rods

-AML

328
Q

Large B-cells with bilobed nuceli and prominent “owls eye inclusions”

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

-Hodgkin lymphoma

329
Q

Chronic sinusitis, infertility, situs inversus

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

-dyenin arm defect leads to immotile cilia

330
Q

Elevated D-dimers

A

Pulmonary embolism, DVT

331
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s triad

332
Q

Blue bloater

A

Chronic bronchitis

  • hypoxemia
  • hypercapnia
333
Q

Pink puffer

A

Emphysema

-dyspnea, hyperventilation

334
Q

Curshmann’s spirals

A

Asthma

-shed epithelial cells

335
Q

Most common cause of pulmonary hypertension

A

COPD

336
Q

What are the two HIV envelope proteins? What drugs interfere with them?

A
  • gp41- Enfuvirtide

- gp120- Maraviroc

337
Q

Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

Sarcoidosis

338
Q

Vasculitic, glomerulonephritis

A

Goodpasture’s or Wegener’s

339
Q

Honeycomb lung on x-Ray

A

Interstitial fibrosis

340
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s

341
Q

“Tennis racket” shaped cytoplasmic granules

A

Birbeck granules

-Eosinophilic granuloma

342
Q

Most common cause of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella, E. Coli, Pseudomonas

343
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH

A

Small cell lung cancer

344
Q

Iron containing nodules in the alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies

-Asbestos

345
Q

Continuous machine like heart murmur

A

PDA

346
Q

“Boot shaped heart”

A

Tertralogy of Fallot or RVH in an adult

347
Q

Rib notching

A

Coarctation of the aorta

348
Q

Most common congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

349
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

RHF d/t pulmonary disease

350
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Passive congestion of liver d/t RHF or Budd-Chiari syndrome

351
Q

Pitting edema

A
  • excess amount of fluid in absence of additional colloid

- often seen in legs

352
Q

Non-pitting edema

A

-colloid in interstitial fluid balances the excess fluid

353
Q

Low output failure

A

Hypovolemia, Heart failure

354
Q

High output failure

A

Sepsis/Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic

355
Q

Incr SVR, Decr CO

A

Hypovolemic shock

356
Q

Incr. CO, compensatory decr. SVR

A

Sepsis/ Anaphylactic shock

357
Q

Decr. CO, compensatory Incr. SVR

A

Heart failure

358
Q

Decr. SVR and CO

A

Neurogenic shock

359
Q

Bounding pulses, head bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

360
Q

Most common congenital heart murmur

A

MV prolapse

361
Q

Irregularly irregular, no p-waves

A

Atrial fibrillation

362
Q

Sawtooth pattern on EKG

A

Atrial flutter

363
Q

PR > 200ms

A

1st degree heart block

364
Q

Incr. PR until dropped beat

A

Mobitz I

365
Q

No warning before dropped beat

A

Mobitz II

366
Q

Atria and ventricles contract independently of each other

A

3rd degree heart block

367
Q

Delta waves on EKG

A

Wolff-Parkinson White

368
Q

Wide QRS after long pause

A

Ventricular escape beat

369
Q

Wide QRS and tachycardia

A

Ventricular tachycardia

370
Q

Torsades de pointe

A

Undulating amplitude of QRS

371
Q

Erratic rhythm on EKG

A

Ventricular fibrillation

372
Q

Splinter hemorrhages

A

Bacterial endocarditis

373
Q

Retinal hemorrhages

A

Roth spots

-Bacterial endocarditis

374
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral valve

375
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in an IV drug used with bacterial endocarditis

A

Tricuspid valve

376
Q

Granulomatous nodules in the heart

A

Aschoff bodies

377
Q

Most common cardiac tumor in adults

A

Metastasis

Left atrial myxoma

378
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

379
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

Lupus in US

Tuberculosis in developing countries

380
Q

Cold, pale, painful digits

A

Raynaud phenomenon

381
Q

c-ANCA

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

382
Q

p-ANCA

A

Microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome

383
Q

Treatment for Berger disease

A

Smoking cessation

384
Q

Treatment for temporal arteritis

A

High dose steroids

385
Q

Bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget disease of the bone

386
Q

Vertebral compression fracture

A

Osteoporosis

387
Q

Positive anterior drawer sign

A

ACL injury

388
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

Gout

389
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis

390
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

391
Q

Arthritis, dry mouth, dry eyes

A

Sjogren syndrome

392
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

A

Pseudogout

393
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Gout

394
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone beneath

A

Enburnation

-suggestive of osteoarthritis

395
Q

Keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

396
Q

Most common malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

397
Q

Bamboo spine on X-ray

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

398
Q

HLA-B27

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

399
Q

Anti-smith and Anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

SLE

400
Q

Anti-histone antibodies

A

Drug induced lupus

401
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

CREST scleroderma

402
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

403
Q

Facial rash and Raynaud phenomenon in a young woman

A

SLE

404
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE

A

Lupus Nephritis

405
Q

Most common cardiac manifestation of SLE

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

406
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV PTs

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

407
Q

Prophylaxis for Cryptococcus in AIDS PTs

A

Fluconazole

408
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDS PTs

A

TMP-SMX

409
Q

Treatment for Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral K+ iodide or Itraconazole

410
Q

Treatment for oral candidiasis

A

Nystatin or Fluconazole

411
Q

Treatment for Systemic Candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

412
Q

Most common medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

413
Q

Most common bacteria in a PT with struvite kidney stones

A

Proteus mirabilis, S.aureus

414
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV PT

A

Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8)

415
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions in monocytes

A

CMV infection

416
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

Type A cowdry bodies

-HSV, VZV, CMV

417
Q

Aplastic anemia in a PT with sickle cell dz

A

Parvovirus B19

418
Q

Child with fever and “slapped cheek” rash on the face that spreads to his body

A

Fifth’s disease (Parvovirus B19)

419
Q

Fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis

A

Measles virus (Rubeola)

420
Q

Small, irregular blue-gray spots on buccal mucosa surrounded by a base of red

A

Koplik spots- Measles

421
Q

Most common etiology of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella > E. coli, Pseudomonas

422
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in neonates

A

Group B Strep > E. coli

423
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in children

A

S. pneumo, N. meningitidis

424
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumo

425
Q

Osteomyelitis in an IV drug abuser

A

S. aureus, Pseudomonas

426
Q

Osteomyelitis in a sickle cell PT

A

Salmonella

427
Q

Most common reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

428
Q

Non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Primary syphilis chancre

429
Q

Painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion with exudate

A

Chancroid- H. ducreyi

430
Q

Stippled vaginal epithelial cells on wet mount prep of vaginal discharge

A

Clue cells- Gardernella

431
Q

Common tx for Syphilis

A

Penicillin G

432
Q

Common tx for Trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

433
Q

Common treatment for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline/ Azithromycin

434
Q

Common treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

435
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand’s disease

-incr. PTT and bleeding time

436
Q

Keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

437
Q

Most common malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

438
Q

Most common medication for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

439
Q

Most common medication for Bulimia nervosa

A

Fluoxetine

440
Q

Medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

441
Q

Most effective treatment for alcohol abuse

A

Alcoholics anonymous

442
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

443
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

Desmopressin

444
Q

Treatment for Nephrogenic DI

A

HCTZ, Indomethacin, Amiloride

445
Q

Treatment for lithium-induced Nephrogenic DI

A

Amiloride

446
Q

Modular hyaline deposits in glomeruli

A

Kimmelsteil-Wilson lesions

447
Q

Glomerulonephritis + Pulmonary Vasculitis

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome

448
Q

Red cell casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

449
Q

Waxy casts

A

Chronic renal failure

450
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of kidney

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

451
Q

Most common renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma

452
Q

Most common type of renal stone

A

Calcium stones

453
Q

Type of renal stone associated with Proteus vulgaris

A

Struvite stone

454
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate adenocarcinoma

455
Q

Most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

456
Q

Most common treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil

457
Q

Dysplastic cervical cells with enlarged, dark nuclei

A

Koilocytes

458
Q

DES exposure

A

Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

459
Q

Most common tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

460
Q

Most common gynecological malignancy in the US

A

Endometrial carcinoma

461
Q

Most common gynecological malignancy worldwide

A

Cervical cancer

462
Q

Chocolate cyst of the ovary

A

Endometriosis

463
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

464
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

465
Q

Disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-Exner bodies

-Granulosa-theca cell tumors

466
Q

Incr. AFP on amniocentesis

A
  • Neural tube defect
  • Anencephaly
  • Incorrect dating of pregnancy
467
Q

Most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Down syndrome

468
Q

Second most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Fragile X

469
Q

Horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

470
Q

Rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly with prominent occiput and small jaw

A

Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)

471
Q

Most common cancer in women in the US

A

Breast cancer

472
Q

Most common benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

473
Q

Most common malignant breast tumor

A

Infiltrating ducal adenocarcinoma

474
Q

Blue dome cyst in the breast

A

Fibrocystic change

475
Q

Treatment for ER+ breast cancer

A

SERM: Tamoxifen

476
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash on areola and nipple

A

Paget dz of Breast

477
Q

Breast pathology with histological “leaf-like projections”

A

Phyllodes tumor

478
Q

Treatment of Vertigo

A

Meclizine

-antihistamine H1

479
Q

What drug inhibits 17,20 desmolase

A

Ketoconazole

  • used to decr steroid synthesis in tx of PCOS to prevent hirsutism
  • s.e. Gynecomastia, Amenorrhea
480
Q

Non-steroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at testosterone receptor

A

Flutamide

-used to tx Prostate cancer

481
Q

MOA Spironolactone

A

Inhibits steroid binding, 17a hydroxylase and 17,20 desmolase

  • used to decr steroid synthesis in tx of PCOS to prevent hirsutism
  • s.e. Gynecomastia, Amenorrhea
482
Q

What drug decreases contraction frequency in women during labor

A

Terbutaline
-b2 agonist: relaxes uterus

Mg and CCBs decrease muscular contractions

NSAIDs decr. PG synthesis and decr. inflammation

483
Q

Hypertensive crisis

A

Occurs when PTs on MAOIs ingest food with tyramine

484
Q

MAOIs are contraindicated with

A

SSRI, TCA, Meperidine, Dexteomethorphan, St. John’s wort

485
Q

Doxepin and Amoxapine are in what drug class

A

TCAs

486
Q

Which TCA has a high seizure incidence

A

Desipramine

487
Q

Treatment for Serotonin Syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine- 5-HT2 receptor antagonist

Cooling, Benzos

USMLE 1 (13 decks)

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