Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OBGYN microbiology > diagnostics > Flashcards

diagnostics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

clinical presentation and bx and cx that produces nothing because the bullae are sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

media for chancroid isolation requires

A

growth supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cross like morphology in RBCs

A

babesiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dermatophyte dx that allows for early detections

A

dermatophyte test medium (DTM), will have results in 3 days based on phenol red color change (pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

UTI- dipstick

A

leukocyte esterase and nitrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

can you gram stain gonorrhea

A

yes but the sensitivity is not great

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RMSF gold standard dx

A

direct immunofluorescence w/ a R. rickettsii antigen (2 samples, 2-4 weeks apart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

dimorphic species that can grow as either a yeast or mold AND can grow in saturated salt solutions

A

hortaea werneckii (tinea nigra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

enlarged infected RBCs with surface invaginations and stipling

A

schuffners dots seen in plasmodium vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CAMP factor

A

S. agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

more alkaline urine in UTI

A

proteus UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what can give a false positive for lyme

A

syphilis, mono, SLE, RA, oral spirochete infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

syphilis serologic dx consists of two tests, (1) screening and (2) confirmatory

A

(1) screening- nontreponemal tests (2) confirmatory- treponemal tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

phthirus pubis dx

A

visualize the louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dermatophyte diagnostic tool that digests human tissues and leave fungal components intact

A

10% KOH prep (potassium hydroxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does a candidiasis cx produce

A

hyphae, pseudo hyphae, and GERM TUBES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

many infected erythrocytes with double or multiple ring stages

A

plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

typically seen in upper UTIs and chronic UTIs

A

K capsular antigen produced by UPEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

UTI with low bacterial numbers in urine

A

S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

maurers clefts

A

plasmodium falciparum (these are not as obvious as the schuffners dots seen in p. vivax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

why would you get imaging with a suspected UTI

A

(1) kids (2) adults w/ recurrent infections (3) hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

gas gangrene

A

tissue bx and gram stain shows muscle necrosis, gram variable rods, and tissue destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is good about the CLED/EMB paddles

A

they can tell you how many, so you can R/O normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what do you see with a microscopic examination of malessezia furfur (tinea versicolor)

A

SPAGHETTI AND MEATBALLS (short unbranched hyphae and spherical cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PID

A

clinical criteria + evidence of inflammation (fever, leukocytosis, elevated ESR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

crescent shaped gametocyte

A

plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

carbuncles and furuncles

A

direct exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

malessezia furfur dx

A

microscopic exam of skin scraping is KOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

venous blood processes with giemsa stain

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

chancroid diagnosis requires

A

identification of Haemophilus ducreyi from genital ulcer or lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

struvite stones (made of magnesium ammonium phosphate)

A

proteus UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What if you have a high suspicion of EBV in a preteen but they were negative for heterophile antibodies… how do you dx?

A

screen for antibodies to virus capsid (anti-VCA antibodies)

or other virus antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

candidiasis

A

direct microscopic examination, cx, and serology (but serology sucks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

gonorrhea

A

nucleic acid amplification (PCR) of cx

35
Q

viral swarm

A

HIV

36
Q

impetigo

A

clinical presentation

37
Q

EBV

A

Monospot- agglutination of horse RBCs reveals heterophile antibodies ***age dependent***

38
Q

what is the color change in the dermatophyte test medium

A

red color change indicates alkalinity

39
Q

scabies dx

A

apply mineral oil, scrape lesion, visualize microscopically

40
Q

UTI- culture

A

50,000 CFU

41
Q

syphilis serologic screening test

A

nontreponemal tests (cardiolipin flocculation tests- VDRL, RPR)

42
Q

syphilis primary and secondary lesions dx

A

darkfield microscopy or direct immunofluorescence

43
Q

dermatophytes agar type

A

sabouraud agar at room temp for 1-3 weeks

44
Q

young trophozoites and gametocytes in the periphery BUT NO SCHIZONTS

A

plasmodium falciparum

45
Q

HHV-6

A

(1) detection of IgM antibody by EIA (2) PCR amplification- DNA sequence detection by PCR

46
Q

UTI- gram positive, coagulase negative

A

S. saprophyticus

47
Q

what are some of the more reliable methods for identifying for HIV

A
  • direct nucleic acid tests
    • what we usually do w/ donor blood
    • screened for HIV antigens P24 or with RNA NAT
  • HIV antibody detecting rapid tests- we hope this will replace standard screening
48
Q

UTI- organism is isolated from normally sterile areas such as blood and CSF, as well as areas with mixed flora like vagina and skin

A

S. agalactiae

49
Q

spaghetti and meatballs

A

malessezia furfur aka tinea versicolor (cutaneous fungi)

50
Q

plasmodium vivax dx

A

via giemsa stain

a few enlarged infected RBCs with schuffner dots

51
Q

UTI- swarming on culture agar **except CLED**

A

proteus UTI

52
Q

trichomonas vaginalis

A

(1) wet mount exam- commonly used (2) cx is more sensitive (3) monoclonal antibodies (4) DNA probe test

53
Q

basket and band shaped trophozoites and rosette shaped schizonts

A

plasmodium malariae

54
Q

UTI- UA microscopy

A

2-5+ WBCs or 15 bacteria per HPF

55
Q

syphilis serologic confirmatory test

A

treponemal tests (specific antibody tests- FTA ABS, MHA TP)

56
Q

HSV

A

(1) ballooning pathology and presence of enlarged and fused cells on a tzanck smear of sample from lesion (2)FA assay for viral antigens (3) rapid antibody test

57
Q

the infective stage of a dermatophyte disease is called ____ and can be visualized how?

A

called arthroconidium (spore) and can be visualized microscopically with KOH wet mount

58
Q

tinea nigra (hortaea werneckii) dx

A

KOH and microscopy

59
Q

syphilis diagnosis tests can be performed on ___ and ___

A

serum and lesions

60
Q

Parvovirus B19

A

detection of anti B19 antibody

61
Q

type of candidiasis agar

A

chromagar

62
Q

UTI- gram positive cocci

A

S. agalactiae

63
Q

with dermatophytes, what can be visualized in dead keratinized tissue

A

hyphae and arthroconidia

64
Q

Measles

A

Presence of multinucleated giant cells on fluorescent antibody test from swab of pharynx, nasal, and buccaneers mucosa

65
Q

what do you see with a microscopic examination of candidiasis

A

yeast cells, large G cells, pseudo hyphae, true hyphae, BIG molds

66
Q

criteria for bacterial vaginosis… has to have 3

A

(1) homogeneous quality of secretions (2) clue cells (3) release of fishy amine odor when KOH is added (4) vaginal pH over 4.5 (5) presence of curved G- or G variable rods

67
Q

UTI- alpha and beta hemolysis

A

UPEC E. coli

68
Q

lyme disease

A

clinical findings

serology

ELISA plus western blot (if EIA is positive)

69
Q

CLED/EMG- what does EMG select for

A

G- bacteria (kills G+ with bile salts

70
Q

cellulitis

A

just tx empirically b/c cx rarely IDs agent

71
Q

HIV screening

A

2 step approach:

1st- EIA (shows anti-HIV antibodies)

2nd- western blot (confirms antibodies)

***does not show new infections so not use for blood donation***

72
Q

UTI- aka Group B streptococcus

A

S. agalactiae

73
Q

gray-white colonies with a narrow zone of beta hemolyisis

A

S. agalactiae

74
Q

VZV

A

clinical findings (rash and fever)

75
Q

what extra tests do kids with a suspected UTI get

A

cx and imaging

76
Q

novobiocin resistance

A

S. saprophyticus- how you differentiate from other staph

77
Q

chagas disease dx

A

(1) trypomastigotes seen in acute phase on blood smear
(2) amastigotes seen in bx in chronic case
(3) serology
(4) PCR- the best

78
Q

what extra tests do men with a suspected UTI get

A

cx and prostate exam

79
Q

dermatophyte that is not flurorescent

A

trychophytan

80
Q

folliculitis that is not being cured by empiric abx

A

gram stain (r/o G- or MRSA)

81
Q

CLED/EMG- what does CLED select for

A

bacteria that ferment lactose (both G+ and G-)

82
Q

chlamydia

A

***isolation of cell cx is the gold standard***

BUT

nucleic acid probes are 95% sensitive

(more so than cx)

83
Q

RMSF dx

A

clinical sxs- do not delay on tx, needs to start within first 5 days + direct immunofluorescence

OBGYN microbiology (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions