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IFR Study > Departure/En Route/Arrival > Flashcards

Departure/En Route/Arrival Flashcards

1
Q

How can your IFR clearance be obtained at a towered airport ?

A
  • Towered airports can be received from ground control

or

specified clearance delivery frequency

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2
Q

How can your IFR clearance be obtained in uncontrolled airports (untowered)?

A
  • Pilots departing on an IFR flight plan should contact FSS, clearance delivery, and then center in that order using frequency and phone numbers
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3
Q

What does “cleared as filed” mean?

A
  • ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of flight as filed in IFR flight plan
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4
Q

What is a clearance void time?

A
  • Untowered pilot may receive a clearance void time meaning if departure isn’t in a specific time, the clearance is “void”
  • If departure not made before void time, pilot must notify ATC of intentions
  • ATC will notify pilot of time to notify ATC, this time cannot exceed 30 min
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5
Q

What does “hold for release” instruction mean?

A
  • ATC may hold departure of IFR flight plan for traffic management reasons (spacing, weather, traffic volume etc.)
  • Pilot may not depart until additional instructions are given to do do
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6
Q

What are takeoff minimums for part 91 operations?

A
  • None
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7
Q

What are takeoff minimums for operations other than part 91 operations, if takeoff minimums for particular airport is not prescribed under Part 97?

A
  • a/c with 2 engines or less: 1 SM vis
  • a/c with more than 2 engines 1/2 SM vis
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8
Q

What is a good operating practice for departing IFR?

A
  • Weather minimum should be at least above the lowest published IAP minimums (i.e. ILS minimums should be met before departure in case of emergency
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9
Q

What are two types of departure procedures?

A
  • SID: Always printed graphically, must receive ATC clearance prior to flying a SID, reduce pilot/controller workload
  • ODP: Can be printed textually or graphically, provides obstacle clearance, can be flown without ATC clearance unless a SID or vectors has been assigned by ATC
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10
Q

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

A
  • Pilot crossing departure end of runway at 35’
  • Climbing to 400’ above the departure end of runway before initial turn
  • Maintaining minimum climb of 200 FPNM unless required to level off by crossing restriction
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11
Q

Where can I find DPs?

A
  • DPs will be listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and ODP section
  • SIDs and complicated ODPs will be published graphically and given procedure titles
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12
Q

What does the “T” in the black triangles indicate?

A
  • It means that airport has non-standard takeoff minimums
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13
Q

If an ODP is published for a pilot using a specific runway that’s going to be used, is the pilot required to follow it?

A
  • No. If a Part 91 pilot has not been given a SID or vectors, the ODP compliance is a pilots choice
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14
Q

What does RNAV-1, RNP-1 NavSpecs mean on ODPs and performance-based navigation?

A
  • It means procedures must maintain an error of no more than 1 NM for 95% of the route
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15
Q

Explain the VCOA procedure and when a pilot would use this procedure?

A
  • A departure option for an IFR aircraft to climb to published altitude where they will continue on with IFR flight plan
  • Published “climb to” altitude on the ODP must be able to be done in VMC
  • VCOA are published in the “Takeoff Minimums/ODP” section of the TPP
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16
Q

During your departure, while flying an ODP, ATC vectors you off the the ODP route for traffic separation, is the ODP now canceled? Who is then responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance?

A
  • If given vectors off the ODP route by ATC the ODP is now canceled
  • ATC is now responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance
  • In all cases, 200 FPNM is to be assumed regardless of what’s given
17
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of the VOR equipment?

A
  1. VOR Test Signal (+/-4°)
  2. Radio Repair Station Test Signal (+/-4°)
  3. VOR Ground Checkpoint at Departure Airport (+/-4°)
  4. Dual VOR check (within 4 degrees of each other)
  5. Airborne Over Prominent Landmark along centerline of established VOR airway (more than 20NM from VOR) +/-6° if no signal or point is available
18
Q

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

A
  • Date
  • Place
  • Bearing Error
  • Sign the a/c log or other reliable record
19
Q

Where can a pilot find the location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?

A
  • Location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the chart supplements
20
Q

What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?

A
  • Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0MHz
  • With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0° with FROM indication or 180° with a TO indication

Remember Cessna 182: 180° TO for VOR accuracy using VOT

21
Q

Where is Mode C and ADSB-Out equipment required?

A
  • Class A, B, C airspace
  • Above the ceiling and lateral boundaries of B airspace
  • Above Class C airspace up to 10,000’ MSL
  • E airspace, at and above 10,000’ MSL in the lower 48, not including at and below 2,500 AGL
  • ADSB-Out at and above 3,000’ MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 NM
22
Q

Define the MEA, and MOCA:

A
  • MEA (Minimum En Route Alt.): The lowest published alt between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and mees obstacle clearance requirements
  • MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Alt): Lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements. _nav signal only good within 25 SM (22 NM) of the VOR
23
Q

What’s the MCA?

A
  • Minimum Crossing Altitude: Lowest alt. at certain fixes at which a/c must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA
24
Q

What is the minimum alt. for OROCA?

A
  • 1,000’ buffer alt. in non-mountainous areas
  • 2,000’ buffer alt. in mountainous areas (PNW is mountainous)
  • AIM Figure 5-6-2 shows where mountainous and non mountainous areas are
25
Q

If there’s no published MEA or MOCA, what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?

A

91.177

  1. Mountainous Area (Part 95)
    • 2,000’ above the highest obstacle
    • 4NM horizontal distance from the course to be flown
  2. In any other case:
    • 1,000’ above the highest obstacle
    • 4NM horizontal distance from the course to be flown
26
Q

Cruising altitudes for IFR operations:

A

Based on Magnetic Course

  • 0° to 179° Odd Thousands
  • 180° to 359° Even Thousands
27
Q

What reports must be made to ATC without a request (radar & non-radar)?

A
  • Missed approach: Intentions of alt. new inst. approach etc.
  • Airspeed: Change in average KTAS of 5% or 10 kts at cruise
  • Reached a holding fix you’ve been cleared to; report time & alt.
  • Vacating previously assigned altitude or flight level
  • ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes (non-radar)
  • Leaving assigned holding or fix
  • Outer marker inbound or fix used in lieu of the OM (non-radar)
  • Unforecasted weather
  • Safety of flight compromised
  • VFR on top, when any altitude change is made
  • Final approach fix inbound (non-radar)
  • Radio malfunction: Any loss of impairment of nav/comm. receiver capability
  • Compulsory reporting points (non-radar)
  • 500 FPNM: Unable to descend/climb 500 FPM
28
Q

What info should be included in every position report?

A
  • Identification
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type of flight plan
  • ETA and name of next reporting point
  • Name only of the next succeeding reporting point
  • Pertinent remarks
29
Q

What’s the difference with “maintain” and “cruise” an altitude when given to by ATC?

A
  • Maintain: Self-explanatory
  • Cruise: Pilot may cruise from minimum IFR alt. up to cleared alt.
    • Once descent is made and reported verbally to ATC, he/she may not return to that altitude without further clearance from ATC
30
Q

What chapter of the AIM can I find reporting ports when not in radar contact?

A

AIM Chapter 5-3-3

31
Q

Can ATC issue you a cruise clearance that authorizes you to proceed and execute the approach at an airport with no control tower?

A
  • Yes
  • When operating in uncontrolled airspace w/ a cruise clearance, you are responsible for maintaining minimum IFR altitudes
32
Q

Does VFR-On-Top clearance require a pilot to maintain VFR “on top”?

A
  • No. It allows the pilot to maintain VFR above, below, in between layers, or areas where there are no meteorological conditions
  • This clearance does not cancel IFR flight plan
33
Q

What is the importance of an EFC time?

A
  • It allows the pilot to leave the hold in the event of loss of comms
  • Plan the last lap to end at the fix as close as possible to EFC time
34
Q

When does the timing of the outbound leg of a hold begin? (AIM 5-3-8)

A
  • When over/abeam the fix
35
Q

What are the differences with DME and GPS distances from a NAVAID?

A
  • DME measures in slant range
    vs.
  • GPS are direct from point to point no matter how high or low you are on the ground
36
Q

What’s the formula for converting FPNM to FPM?

A
  • (GS/60) x FPNM

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