Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IFR Study > Departure, Arrival,Approach Procedures > Flashcards

Departure, Arrival,Approach Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is STAR’s and what is the purpose of it?

A
  • Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
  • It’s an ATC coded IFR route for certain airports to simplify clearance delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you know if the localizer is a front course localizer?

A
  • It will have a shaded right side on the localizer symbol on the chart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What would you use UNICOM frequency for?

A

To find out from the FBO where to get fuel, parking, taxi etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What gives you lateral and vertical guidance on a precision approach?

A

Lateral: Localizer
Vertical: Glideslope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When would you decide to go missed on an ILS precision approach?

A
  • Decide to go missed at DA
  • You can descend below decision altitude as you execute missed approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When would you decide to go missed on a localizer with no vertical guidance, non-precision approach?

A
  • Decide to go missed at any time
  • You cannot descend below MDA
  • Must hold MDA until you reach missed approach point MAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the four legs of a hold?

A
  • An inbound leg towards the holding fix
  • An outbound leg
  • 2 turns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The FARs require that all turns in the hold use the smallest bank angle out of these three options:

A
  • 3° per second (standard rate turn)
  • 30° bank angle
  • 25° bank angle when using a flight director system for landing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For published holding procedures, ATC only needs to include the following in the clearance:

A
  • The holding fix
  • The direction of the holding pattern relative to the fix (N, S, E, W)
  • EFC Time (Expected further clearance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For non-published holds, ATC must include:

A
  • The direction of the holding pattern from the fix
  • The holding fix
  • The radial, course, airway, route on which to hold
  • The leg length in miles (if DME or RNAV) or minutes otherwise
  • The direction of turns, if left, otherwise right turns are standard
  • EFC time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Holding speed restriction 6,000’ and below?

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Holding speed 6,001’ - 14,000’?

A

230 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Holding speed 14,001’ and above?

A

265 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Holding speeds for Air Force Fields?

A

310 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Holding speed for Navy fields?

A

230 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Unless published or instructed otherwise by ATC, the inbound leg timing is:

A
  • 1 minute below 14,000’ MSL
    and
  • 1.5 minutes at 14,001’ MSL and above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The inbound timing begins when:

A

Established wings-level on the inbound turn and ends at the fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If you’re inbound leg is short or longer than 1 minute, how would you adjust to make it 1 minute?

A
  • You would adjust the outbound leg to accommodate the off timing of the inbound leg
  • The outbound leg begins when the aircraft passes abeam or over the holding fix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What may be given in place of timed turns?

A
  • Leg lengths may be given instead of time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you compensate for wind during holdings?

A
  • Find the correction angle required to stay on the inbound course
  • Multiply that by 3 for the outbound leg
  • Do not compensate for wind during turns, as the massive correction on the outbound leg is to compensate for the standard rate to turn back on course
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 5 T’s for remembering the actions over and abeam the holding fix?

A
  1. Turn: Turn the aircraft to follow the desired entry technique
  2. Time: Note the time over the holding fix. Start the timer (when turning outbound) when wings are level or when abeam the fix
  3. Twist: Set the OBS to inbound course
  4. Throttle: Adjust power to maintain holding speed
  5. Talk: Advise ATC of time & altitude at which the aircraft reached the holding fix

(6th “T” think ahead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are questions to ask yourself when it comes to holds?

A
  • How long can I stay in the hold w/ the available fuel?
  • What is my alternate plan if ATC does not release me by that time?
  • What is the current weather and availability of other airports in the area if I have to divert?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must you do when you tune into the localizer before using it for guidance?

A
  • IDENT the localizer, listening for the morse code to verify the localizer is working
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The localizer provides_________ when on an ILS approach.

A

Lateral guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are localizer’s and VOR’s different from each other?

A
  • Localizer only supports a single specific direction
  • VOR facilitate navigation on any bearing around the station from 0º to 360º
  • Turning the OBS knob does not affect the CDI displacement (still a good idea to set the inbound course of the published approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Localizer frequencies only use these frequencies:

A

Odd tenths (i.e. 108.1, 110.7 MHz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Localizer width range between what degrees?

A
  • 3º to 6º
  • Typically 5º (2.5º full deflection to each side)
  • Depends on the runway length to ensure 700’ course width at the runway threshold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How high does the coverage of the localizer go?

A
  • Covers altitude up to 4,500’
  • 35º to each side of the centerline up to 10NM
  • 10º to each side of the centerline up to 18 NM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe how the localizer works.

A
  • The localizer antenna modulates 2 signals on the single VHF. One at 90Hz and the other at 150Hz
  • In a narrow pattern, these signals are emitted to each side, left and right, of the localizer centerline
  • The aircraft receives the 90Hz signal more intensely when it is further to the left of the signal, and receives the 150Hz more when to the right of the center of the signal
  • The CDI displays which direction to move in order to center the CDI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What indicates position for FAF intercept, and how far out can it be picked up?

A

-(OM) Outer Marker beacon can be picked up 4-7 miles out from runway threshold

  • Outer Marker indicates the position for glide slope intercept
  • Shown as blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What indicates where the Glide Slope meets DH?

A
  • (MM) Middle Marker beacon indicates where glide slope meets DH
  • Approximately 3,500’ from runway
  • Usually 200’ above touchdown zone elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many ILS categories are there, and what are they called?

A
  • There are 5 ILS categories
  1. CAT I
  2. CAT II
  3. CAT IIIa
  4. CAT IIIb
  5. CAT IIIc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is minimum visibility and DH of a CAT I ILS?

A

Vis: 2,400’ or 1,800’
DH: 200’ AGL?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is minimum visibility and DH of a CAT II ILS?

A

Vis: 1,200’
DH: 100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is minimum visibility and DH of a CAT IIIa ILS?

A

Vis: >700’
DH: <100’ or no DH

36
Q

What is minimum visibility and DH of a CAT IIIb ILS?

A

Vis: 150’ -700’
DH: <50’ or no DH

37
Q

What is minimum visibility and DH of a CAT IIIc ILS?

A

Vis: 0’
DH: None

38
Q

What does an (IM) Inner Marker indicate?

A
  • Indicates where the Glide Slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach
  • Set between the MM and runway threshold
  • Shown as white
39
Q

What is a Back Course Marker?

A
  • Identified the same as the IM on a front course ILS
  • Indicates the FAF on a back course
  • Not part of and ILS approach
40
Q

What is an ODP?

A
  • Obstacle Departure procedure
  • Provides only obstacle clearance
  • Printed either textually or graphically
41
Q

How is a SID always printed?

A
  • Always printed graphically
  • Some may have published lost comms proc.
  • Provides obstacle clearance, and reduces pilot and controller workload
42
Q

What’s the formula for calculating FPM from FPNM?

A

FPNM x Groundspeed / 60

43
Q

When is it recommended to fly a DP?

A
  • Suggested to file a DP when departing at night, marginal VMC or IMC
44
Q

What is an MRA altitude?

A
  • Minimum Reception Altitude
  • Lowest altitude (MSL) a nav signal can be received for the route.
  • If MRA is higher than the MEA, the MRA must be met to determine intersection
45
Q

What does an underlined VOR frequency tell you on the low IFR chart?

A
  • This means that the VOR doesn’t have transmission capabilities
46
Q

When are PT’s not authorized?

A
  1. Straight in approach clearance
  2. Holding in lieu of procedure turn
  3. DME Arc
  4. Radar vectors to final
  5. “NO PT” published on chart
  6. Timed approach from a hold fix
  7. Teardrop course reversal
47
Q

What visual reference for intended runway landing must be distinctly visible and identifiable by the pilot in order to land?

A

At least one of the following:
1. Threshold
2. Threshold markings
3. Threshold lights
4. Runway end identifier lights
5. Visual glideslope indicator
6. Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
7. Touchdown zone lights
8. Runway or runway markings
9. Runway lights

48
Q

What is a VDP?

A

Visual Descent Point
- Normal descent from MDA to runway touchdown may begin provided adequate visual ref has been established

  • Identified as a bold “V” on the profile view of a non-precision approach
  • If not equipped to find the VDP, fly the approach like there’s no VDP published
  • Do not descent below MDA prior to reaching VDP
49
Q

Anytime you go below DA/MDA, obstacle clearance/avoidance is:

A

The responsibility of the pilot

50
Q

You can fly down to and remain at the MDA until:

A
  1. Until you see runway environment and descend all the way down to land

or

  1. You reach the MAP then execute the missed approach
51
Q

On a non-precision approach you see the runway and notice you’re a little high. WIth proper briefing of the approach plate the VDP (identified with a bold “V”) is the point where you:

A
  • The visual descent point tells you the point you would begin a normal 3° descent to the runway from the MDA
52
Q

When flying an approach and you reach DA, if you cannot see the runway environment, you must:

A
  • Execute a missed approach
  • You may descend slightly below DA while executing the missed approach
53
Q

Visual Runway marking elements include:

A
  • Designation
  • Centerline
  • Threshold (on runways used or intended to be used)
  • Aiming Point (on runways w/4,000’ or longer used by jets)
54
Q

Basic T design when it comes to IAP consist of what 3 areas?

A
  • Straight in, left base, and right base areas
  • 2 IAF located 3-6 NM of either side of the IF/IAF at 90° angles from the FAF
55
Q

What are terminal arrival areas?

A
  • Provides transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment with little required pilot/ATC interface using RNAV
56
Q

What are fly-by waypoints vs. fly-over waypoints?

A
  • GPS will sequence through specified waypoints in an active approach
  • Fly-by: Use a turn anticipation to avoid overshooting next flight segment
  • Fly-over: Must overfly the waypoint prior to making any turns. MAP are always fly-over waypoints
57
Q

What’s the difference with RAIM failures before and after the FAF?

A
  • Before the FAF the GPS will alert you of the failure and you must go missed
  • After the FAF, your GPS will allow you to continue the approach for another 5 min. After which, if you have not landed, your GPS will a alert you that your RAIM has failed, if you see a RAIM failure flag, you must go missed
58
Q

If using a non-WAAS GPS, what type of airport are you NOT allowed to file?

A
  • Alternate airports that have ONLY a GPS approach
  • If WAAS equipped, you may file a GPS approach as alternate provided you use non-precision approach minimums
59
Q

What’s the accuracy of a GPS using WAAS vs without WAAS?

A
  • With: 10’ within a/c position
  • W/out: 50’ within a/c position
60
Q

What is the RNP standards with the en route, terminal, and approach phases of flight?

A
  • En Route: 2 nm within centerline
  • Terminal: 1 nm within centerline
  • Final Approach: 0.3 nm within centerline
61
Q

What’s the importance of checking RNP phase of flight, and where can I verify the accuracy?

A
  • If you’re not accurately flying with the correct RNP (required navigation performance) obstacle clearance can’t be assured
  • You can check in the bottom right of the home screen of the GPS (ENR = Enroute APR=Approach TERM=Terminal)
62
Q

What does the GPS vs. VOR CDI measure when you’re off course?

A
  • GPS measures distance off course
  • VOR CDI measures degrees off course
63
Q

When does the GPS enter “TERM” mode?

A
  • Within 30 nm of the destination airport
  • CDI sensitivity increases, it’s time to prepare the approach
  • 1 nm full deflection either side of DTK
64
Q

How far is a full scale deflection on the GPS CDI during the approach phase of flight?

A
  • 0.3 nm full scale deflection
  • Make sure to load the approach and “activate” otherwise the CDI won’t switch to approach sensitivity. CDI will only be one-third as sensitive as it should be
65
Q

What is LNAV/VNAV?

A
  • A less precision type of WAAS approach, but still includes vertical guidance
  • Designed for baro-aided GPS; most WAAS receivers can use them today
  • Doesn’t have increasing angular distance as you approach runway (like LNAV)
  • Like the LNAV 0.3 nm sensitivity all the way to the MAP
  • Doesn’t get you as low as LPV or ILS
66
Q

What is LPV?

A
  • Localizer performance w/ vertical guidance
  • Similar to ILS, but require WAAS receiver, won’t work with baro-aided GPS
  • Most LPV get you down to 200’ above touchdown
  • Also called APV (approach with vertical guidance)
  • It’s a more precise type of WAAS approach that can provide ILS-like minimums
67
Q

What is LNAV?

A
  • Normal GPS (non-WAAS) approach
  • Non-WAAS means higher minimums for the lack of precision
  • Minimums published as MDA because no vertical navigation
68
Q

What is LNAV +V and where will I see the “+V”?

A
  • For airports the FAA isn’t able to design LPV or LNAV/VNAV approaches because of terrain and obstacles
  • FAA adds “Advisory Vertical Guidance” which will show up on GPS as “LNAV+V”
  • You will not see +V listed on a chart, but will see it listed on GPS unit’s display when the approach is loaded
69
Q

What is the only GPS approach that is considered a precision approach?

A
  • One that has LAAS (ground based augmentation system) or aka: GBAS (ground based augmentation system)
  • Abbreviation as GLS on an approach plate
70
Q

What section of the FAR can I find landing and takeoff in IFR regulation?

A

91.175

71
Q

What is PAR?

A
  • Precision Approach Radar
  • ATC gives pilot heading altitudes to descend to, courses to correct heading etc.
  • Mostly used by military in the US
72
Q

How is GBAS/LAAS differ from WAAS /RNAV landing?

A
  • GBAS/LAAS is a GPS approach supplemented by ground based landing systems
73
Q

What does the “+” mean on a GPS approach with LNAV+V?

A
  • The “+” symbol is an advisory glide slope created by your WAAS GPS (emphasis on advisory)
  • Still a non-precision approach, do not descend below MDA, and fly to the MAP, then go missed
  • The “+” allows you to descend on a constant path, rather than dive and drive like you would without the “advisory glideslope”
    • NOT OBSTACLE CLEAR TO THE RUNWAY
74
Q

What is LP / LP +V (localizer performance)?

A
  • It’s a non-precision WAAS approach
  • Still has an MDA
  • ”+” allows a steady descent without having to “dive and drive”
    • NOT OBSTACLE CLEARED ALL THE WAY TO THE RUNWAY
75
Q

Which GPS approaches have a DA rather than an MDA?

A
  • LPV
    • Lower DA than L/VNAV because of the approved vertical guidance)
  • LNAV/VNAV (L/VNAV)
    • Higher DA than LPV due to the advisory not approved vertical guidance created by GPS
76
Q

If WAAS fails for an instrument approach, what happens?

A
  • WAAS failure means the GPS will drop to LNAV or L/VNAV
77
Q

What to the letters Z, Y mean on an instrument approach or A, B on a circling approach to land mean?

A
  • If you go from the outside of the alphabet in the DA/MDA are lower from the outer letters as you get closer into the other letters
78
Q

What does does the “F” in ALSF indicate for the ALSF lighting system?

A
  • “F” means the lighting system has sequenced flashing lights
79
Q

What does the difference with these two lighting signals on an approach chart?

A
  • The dark symbols indicate pilot controlled lighting
  • The dot above the lighting circle indicates the sequenced flashing light system
80
Q

How do I determine what approach category (Cat A-E) I would fall under when shooting an IAP?

A
  • My Vref (reference landing speed)
  • If Vref not specified 1.3x Vso at max certified landing weight
81
Q

How many approach category can an airplane be certified in?

A
  • Only 1 category
  • Airplane can be flown faster but must use higher category needed for the appraoch

i.e. airplane in Cat A operating @ 130 knots must use Cat C minimums

82
Q

What is the VDP indicate on the approach plate? ( Bold V on profile view)

A
  • It indicates a point on the profile view where a normal descent rate from _MDA_ to land can commence (provided the runway environment is in sight
  • Usually before the MAP, so ideally you would prepare to go missed
83
Q

Can I climb before the MAP on a non-precision approach with an MDA?

A
  • As long as there’s no maximum altitude
  • Climbing before the MAP doesn’t give you the best opportunity to get the runway visual is in sight to land. So climbing only gurantees you won’t land
84
Q

Why is executing the missed approach procedure with an MDA important to do exactly at the MAP?

A
  • It guarantees obstacle clearance for the missed approach procedure

i.e. climbing turn before or after the MAP may lead directly in an obst

85
Q

What type of approaches use a VDP?

A

Non precision approaches with an MDA (i.e. LOC, LNAV,VOR etc.)

86
Q

How do you identify the MAP on a non-precision approach with MDA?

A
  1. You can see the DME/GPS point set on/or after the V point on the profile view
  2. If no DME depicting the MAP, time your approach from FAF to MAP using the speed and time chart on the Approach plate
87
Q

What is the standard takeoff climb gradient for IFR operations? (AIM 5-2-9)

A
  • Based on crossing the departure end of the runway at 35’
  • Climbing to 400’ AGL before initiating turn
  • Maintaining at least 200 FPNM, unless required to level off by a crossing restriction

IFR Study (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions