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Biology 1001 > Cycle 2 > Flashcards

Cycle 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the fundamental unit of life?

A

Cell

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2
Q

Microbiome are all ______ cells

A

Prokaryotic

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3
Q

T/F All the cells are sitting somewhere in the cell cycle

A

True

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4
Q

The phases of the cell cycle in meiosis

A

G0, G1, S, G2, or M are the phases of the cell

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4
Q

Mitosis in _____ cells

A

somatic

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4
Q

Meiosis in _____ cells

A

germ

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5
Q

___
Resting phase
Wait till receive a signal to replicate
Can also function in G0 (ex: neurons)

A

G0

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5
Q

___
Most cells function in G1
Preparatory phase (preparing for S)
Need a lot of energy
DIFFERENTIATION

A

In G1

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6
Q

___
Synthesis
Cells are undergoing DNA replication
Genome is doubled the copy

A

S

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6
Q

___
The period after DNA replicates
Cell prepares for division

A

G2

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6
Q

____
PMAT

A

M (mitosis)

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7
Q

T/F all cells replicate at all times

A

F: Not all cells replicate at all times, and not all replicate

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7
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle would you see the maximum amount of DNA in a cell?

A

Beginning of G2 phase (because S is finished)

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8
Q

During embryogenesis, you do not _____ and _____

A

G1 and G2 (no gap phases: goes from S to M)

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8
Q

Part of the complexity: the main part is ____ develops into us, from one cell to all these different tissue types

A

zygote

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9
Q

The process of one cell turning into different types of other cells is called _______

A

differentiation

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9
Q

The _____ is important because to become different types of cells, they need some time to think about which path they have to take

A

gap phase

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10
Q

______: Splits cells into two and make daughter cells

A

Cytokeneiss

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11
Q

Why do cells divide?

A

Multicellular growth (we are multicellular organisms and need to divide ourselves)
Tissue repair
Regeneration

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12
Q

T/F Certain cells in the body can regenerate while some can’t, just depends on the type

A

T

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12
Q

Cell turnover rate depends on which ____ we are talking about

A

tissue

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12
Q

T/F Many tissues see high cell turnover while others never divide

A

T

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13
Q

Highest turnover rate: ______

A

blood cells

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14
Q

Lowest turnover rates

A

Lowest: in neurons, oocytes (female gametes are only a certain number of eggs) and lens cells never replicate

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14
Q

_____ get released every month after puberty

A

Oocytes

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15
Q

Are arrested in ______ (already started meiosis)

A

prophase 1

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16
Q

Finish ____ in the fallopian tube, if fertilizes becomes a zygote

A

meiosis

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17
Q

Sperm on the other hand replicates how much?

A

unlimited

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18
Q

The plasma membrane has _____ on it that would allow things to be transported in and out or be diffused through phospholipids through active/passive

A

proteins

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19
Q

Why is cell division so important?

A

Higher surface area

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20
Q

As a cell grows, _____ increases faster than the surface area

A

volume

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20
Q

(_______ that brings nutrients in and excrtees waste out - essentially helps cell function and grow)

A

plasma membrane

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21
Q

That is when a cell has to divide to go back to higher ______ to _____ ratio

A

SA to volume

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21
Q

Cell grows till reach a point where SA cannot keep up with the demands of ____

A

volume

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22
Q

Something is wrong if the cell is dividing _____

A

uncontrollably

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22
Q

SA/V = ____ to function well

A

high

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22
Q

As a cell grows larger, its SA/V ratio _____

A

decreases

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23
Q

______ regulate progression through the cell cycle

A

Checkpoints

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23
Q

If the cell replicated without any control/regulation, it would lead to _____ like cancer grow

A

tumors

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23
Q

It gets to the point where it can no longer survive so it _____

A

divides

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23
Q

_____: divide rapidly

A

proliferate

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24
Q

_____:
Protein
Acts as a transcription factor
Regulates the cell cycle
Guardian of the genome
Cancer cells target
Most tumors have ____ mutated

A

p53

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24
Q

For example cancer targets _____

A

Ex: P53

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25
Q

This means that the protein and RNA that have been involved in maintaining the cycle have been ______: rapid proliferation means (overcoming the cell cycle)

A

deregulated

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25
Q

If cannot fix the mutation the cell will either ______ or ______

A

arrest cycle or apoptosis

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25
Q

In G1S, ____ come and make sure no mutation in the DNA

A

Proteins

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25
Q

Cancer targets those proteins that stop the ________

A

cycle from happening

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25
Q

The first checkpoint is ____

A

G1S

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26
Q

program cell death is called:

A

apoptosis (quite common)

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26
Q

_____ drives/is a key regulator of apoptosis

A

P53

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27
Q

The second checkpoint is ____

A

G2M

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27
Q

_____: Makes sure the SA/V ratio is large enough so can split into two and survive and looks for missed muations

A

G2M checkpoint

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27
Q

Cell ensures has all nutrients required to go through the __ phase

A

M

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27
Q

The third checkpoint is the _______

A

mitotic spindle checkpoint

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27
Q

Chromosomes line up and spindle pull sister chromatids apart, and for this to occur properly, ____ sister chromatids have to go in one cell and the other three have to go in another (even distribution)

A

3

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27
Q

happens during:

A

During metaphase

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27
Q

If cell has more or fewer chromosomes than normal it is called _____ (an example is trisomy 21 or Down syndrome)

A

aneuploidy

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27
Q

___ is a type of enzyme specifically an enzyme that phosphorates proteins

A

CDK

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27
Q

But if there is a problem with the attachment of the spindle to the chromosome then both sister chromatids go ______

A

into one cell

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27
Q

Once activated: it ______ CDK (has a phosphate group attached to it)

A

phosphorylates

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27
Q

_____ Regulation: Cyclins and CDKs (SAY GO AHEAD PROCEED)

A

Positive

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27
Q

When they are stuck together, the ______-donating part of the protein becomes activated

A

phosphate

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27
Q

KEY DRIVER is:

A

cyclin CDK-activated complex

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27
Q

Both can transcribed and translated into proteins and come together in a _____

A

complex

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27
Q

This activates the entire complex so now can take the phosphate group and phosphate the ____ protein

A

target

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27
Q

________ regulation: p53, p21, and Rb (SAY STOP)

A

Negative

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27
Q

______ regulation means they will stop the cell cycle from proceeding

A

Negative

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27
Q

Put up a ____ to stop going to cell cycle if something is wrong (not time or mutation sensed)

A

barrier

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27
Q

The target protein will then go and drive the ______

A

cell cycle

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27
Q

Now cyclin CDK can’t ______ proteins involved in cell cycling

A

phosphorylate

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27
Q

Start with a damaged cell, The _____ is a region of the gene that controls the expression of the gene next to it (in this case p21)

A

promoter

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28
Q

Called a _____ suppressor because they supes possibility of a tumor (if they didn’t stop, the cell cycle would continue and likely develop a tumor)

A

tumor

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28
Q

The damaged cell is now _____ or _____

A

arrested or apoptosis

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28
Q

P53 inhibits cyclin-CDK by targeting ____ production

A

p21 production

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28
Q

Tells ___ gene to make p21 mRNA and then protein

A

p21

28
Q

The protein binds to the active ________ (the one that says go) and tells it to stop going by binding to it and inactivating the complex

A

cyclin CDK complex

28
Q

The stages and main characteristics of mitosis

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. Characterized by chromosome alignment and separation.

28
Q

____ is a transcription factor, it goes and binds to the promoter and turns it on

A

p53

28
Q

The phases and main characteristics of the cell cycle for prokaryotic cells

A

Binary fission: DNA replication, chromosome segregation, cytokinesis.

28
Q

The phases and main characteristics of the cell cycle for eukaryotic cells

A

Interphase (G1, S, G2) and M phase (mitosis, cytokinesis).

28
Q

The location of DNA in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

A

Eukaryotes: Nucleus.
Prokaryotes: Cytoplasm (nucleoid region).

28
Q

Why would you NOT target p21?

A

because it relies on p53

28
Q

P53 can also trigger _____ if damaged DNA cannot be repaired

A

apoptosis

28
Q

The reason why the G1 and G2 phases exist

A

G1: Cell growth, prep for DNA replication.
G2: Prep for mitosis.

28
Q

The basic mechanism of DNA recombination in prophase of meiosis

A

Occurs in prophase I of meiosis via crossing over between homologous chromosomes.

28
Q

The stage of cell division if given a micrograph or diagram of a dividing cell

A

Identify based on chromosome behavior (e.g., metaphase = chromosomes aligned in center).

28
Q

The stages and main characteristics of meiosis

A

Meiosis I and II. Involves homologous chromosome separation (I) and sister chromatid separation (II).

28
Q

Purpose of cell division and risk if cells grow too large in size

A

Growth, repair. Large cells have trouble with nutrient/waste exchange.

28
Q

The relationship between the distance separating genes and the likelihood of recombination occurring between them

A

Closer genes recombine less often, while distant genes recombine more frequently.

28
Q

The distinct stages of the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, M phase.

28
Q

The randomness of alignment of homologous pairs in metaphase I

A

Homologous pairs align randomly, increasing genetic diversity.

28
Q

Location of actively cycling cells in multicellular animals

A

In tissues like skin, gut lining, bone marrow.

28
Q

Main characteristics of each stage in the cell cycle

A

G1: Growth.
S: DNA replication.
G2: Prep for division.
M: Mitosis.

28
Q

Main role of cell cycle checkpoints

A

Ensure proper division and DNA integrity.

28
Q

Examples of situations in which cells would be programmed to die by apoptosis

A

Damaged DNA, infection, developmental processes.

28
Q

What is the risk of any protein involved at the cell cycle checkpoints not functioning properly (be specific)?

A

Uncontrolled division, leading to cancer.

28
Q

The difference between positive and negative regulation at cell cycle checkpoints

A

Positive: Promotes cycle progression.
Negative: Stops cycle if issues arise.

28
Q

What the process of mitosis ensures in subsequent generations

A

Equal DNA distribution to daughter cells.

28
Q

Why p53 is considered the guardian of the genome

A

Prevents damaged cells from dividing, triggers repair/apoptosis.

28
Q

The stages of mitosis

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

28
Q

We all look different because of the events that took place during ____and after

A

meiosis

28
Q

Events that lead to genetic variation:

A

-Homologous recombination/crossover
-Independent assortment
-Random fertilization

28
Q

Homologous recombination/crossover (during _______ and ___ of meiosis)

A

prophase 1 and 2

28
Q

Independent assortment (during ____ 1 and 2 of meiosis)

A

metaphase

29
Q

_______ (when you have a mature egg and sperm fertilization is random, actual gamete and sperm are random)

A

Random fertilization

30
Q

Mitosis: The end product is ______

A

2 cells called two daughter cells

30
Q

The two daughter cells in mitosis are ______

A

genetically identical

30
Q

Mitosis is a ___-division event

A

one

31
Q

The ploidy in mitosis

A

remains the same

31
Q

We are ____ (2N individuals)

A

diploid

32
Q

Ploidy

A

(how many sets of unique chromosomes are in that species)

33
Q

N is the number of unique _______

A

chromosomes

33
Q

We have ___ unique chromosomes, but we have 2 sets of them

A

23

34
Q

Meiosis is a ___-division event

A

two

35
Q

The end product of meiosis is __ cells

A

4

36
Q

No _____ during embryogenesis

A

meiosis

36
Q

The 4 cells in meiosis end product are all _______

A

genetically different

36
Q

The ploidy in meiosis _____

A

changes

37
Q

The ploidy goes from ___ to ___, they are

A

2N to N (now haploid)

37
Q

The 4 cells have to be haloid because _______

A

the other set will come from the gamete fertilization

37
Q

The result is egg (n) and sperm (n) through the process of ____ 1 and 2 come together to form a zygote (2N)

A

meiosis

37
Q

Key differences between meiosis 1 and mitosis: ______ during prophase 1 and 2, none in mitosis

A

Crossover

37
Q

The ____ will divide and divide to produce an entire organism (mitosis)

A

zygote

38
Q

Meiosis only occurs in________ organs after puberty

A

reproductive organs after puberty

38
Q

Meiosis 1 produces ____ cells and 2 continues that phase (goes from n-n)

A

haploid

39
Q

T/F Meiosis 1 is identical to mitosis

A

F: not

39
Q

In meiosis 1 you go from___ to ___ mitosis goes form 2N to 2N (remains same)

A

2N to N

39
Q

Meiosis __ is most similar to mitosis

A

2

39
Q

_______ chromosomes separate in meiosis 1 (none in mitosis - only sister chromatids separate, but in meiosis 2 sister chromatids do separately)

A

Homologous

40
Q

If homologous recombination occurs between 2 identical sister chromatids then there would be ___ genetic diversity

A

NO

41
Q

Chromosome is defined by the number of ________

A

centromeres

41
Q

When you have a cell with a nucleus that has DNA meshed up, it is called _____

A

chromatin

41
Q

Meiosis 1 is ______

A

reductional

42
Q

T/F Centromere does not have to be centered all the time

A

TRUE

42
Q

If you have a homologous pair, _______ chromatids will cross over

A

non-sister

42
Q

Homeolgous pairs are separated in _____ (sister chromatids are not separating)

A

Anaphase 1

42
Q

Each strand is ____ chromtaids

A

sister

42
Q

Metaphase 1 lining is an _______ ______ because they are aligned in a way independent of each other

A

independent assortment

43
Q

Decrease in ploidy in telophase 1 because now you have ___ set of chromosomes

A

one

43
Q

The crossover is called:

A

chiasma (plural: chiasmata)

43
Q

In meiosis u go from __ to __ ploidy

A

n to n

43
Q

T/F In one homologous pair, you cannot have multiple chiasmata

A

FALSE you can

44
Q

Recombination creates new combinations of _____

A

alleles

44
Q

The difference is the _______

A

copy number

44
Q

Alleles A and B will ___ influence each other (very random)

A

not

44
Q

The further apart the genes are on a chromosome, the more likely the _____ will occur between them, which means they are separated and not linked

A

chiasma

44
Q

Meisos 2 is ________

A

equational

45
Q

Each ____ will get a copy of one chromosome

A

gamete

45
Q

All ____ chromatids can crossover (they may not all)

A

four

45
Q

______ are genes that are more likely to be inherited together (not always or never)

A

Linked genes

45
Q

The closer the genes are to each other, the more likely they are:

A

linked/will be inherited together

45
Q

All gametes will get different versions of these alleles (the ____ is the same, version of the gene is different)

A

gene

45
Q

More is ____ less is ____

A

n+1, n-1

45
Q

Random fertilization:
_____ brings DNA from two different parents into the same cell

A

Zygotes

45
Q

______ of gametes are different based on how they line up

A

Genotypes

46
Q

Independent assortment is predictable or unpredictable

A

unpredictable

47
Q

Some chromosomal mutations can lead to abnormal numbers or chromosomes present in gametes after meiosis, this is called:

A

Aneuploidy

48
Q

It happens through an event called:

A

non-disjunction

49
Q

________ (trisomy 21) has the best outcome

A

Down syndrome

50
Q

The ____ you are the more likely for women to have kids with Down syndrome (because spindles become abnormal, more mutations, and chromosomes don’t line up)

A

older

50
Q

Trisomy 13:

A

Patau syndrome

50
Q

___ (turner syndrome)

A

X

50
Q

Trisomy 18:

A

Edwards syndrome

51
Q

______: a picture taken by scientists, during METAPHASE, lined up from largest to smallest (has twice the amount of DNA)

A

Karyotype

51
Q

___ (not viable)

A

Y

52
Q

Some abnormal combinations of sex chromosomes in fertilized zygotes result from ______ of X chromosomes during meiosis in females

A

nondisjunction

53
Q

_____ (triple x syndrome)

A

XXX

53
Q

Animal life cycle:
Gametes arise by _____
The zygote divides by _____

A

meiosis
mitosis

53
Q

___ (Klinefelter syndrome)

A

XXY

54
Q

Super male: ___

A

YY

55
Q

The reason why meiosis I is “reductional” and meiosis II is “equational”

A

Reduces chromosome number by half.
Meiosis II (equational): Chromosome number stays the same.

55
Q

Plant and most fungi life cycle
Gametes arise by _____
Spores are formed by ____

A

mitosis
meiosis

55
Q

Characteristics of homologous chromosomes

A

Same genes, possibly different alleles, one from each parent.

55
Q

Main differences between mitosis and meiosis

A

Mitosis: 2 identical diploid cells.
Meiosis: 4 genetically diverse haploid cells.

55
Q

Some fungi and algae life cycle
Gametes arise by _____
The zygote is divided by ____

A

mitosis
meiosis

55
Q

Stage of mitosis or meiosis based on a micrograph or diagram of a dividing cell

A

Based on chromosome behavior (e.g., homologous pairs in meiosis I).

55
Q

The relationship between distance between alleles and the likelihood that they will be inherited together; linked genes

A

Closer alleles = more likely inherited together (linked); distant alleles recombine more often.

56
Q

Mechanism of recombination during prophase. How do homologues pair in order for all non-sister chromatids to participate in recombination?

A

Homologues pair, crossing over occurs at chiasmata between non-sister chromatids.

56
Q

Other mechanisms giving rise to variation in meiosis

A

Independent assortment, recombination, random fertilization.

56
Q

Mechanism by which recombination creates novel combinations of alleles

A

Recombination shuffles alleles, creating new genetic combinations.

56
Q

Which of the following is mitosis NOT used for?

A. Repair of a wound
B. Regeneration of hair follicles
C.Production of oocyte
D. Development of baby in mother’s womb

A

C.Production of oocyte (Oocytes are produced via meiosis. The rest are due to mitotic divisions of somatic cells.)

56
Q

Relationship between age of an oocyte and the risk of offspring having Down Syndrome

A

Older oocytes have a higher risk of nondisjunction, increasing the chance of trisomy 21.

56
Q

Mechanisms giving rise to aneuploid products of meiosis

A

Nondisjunction during meiosis, leading to extra or missing chromosomes.

56
Q

Life cycles of different organisms. What are the products of mitosis and meiosis in animals, plants, fungi and algae?

A

Animals: Mitosis = growth; meiosis = gametes.
Plants: Mitosis = growth/gametophyte; meiosis = spores.
Fungi/algae: Mitosis = growth/haploid cells; meiosis = spores

56
Q

The activity of cyclin-dependent kinases, or CDKs, is controlled by a number of signals. Which of the following signals will most likely lead to activation of p21?
A. Growth factors
B. DNA damage (p21 will be activated if cell
cycle needs to be arrested.
Only option B requires this)
C. Mutation of p53
D. Phosphorylation of CDKs

A

B. DNA damage (p21 will be activated if cell
cycle needs to be arrested.

56
Q

What is the harm of a cell continuing to grow in size instead of dividing?
A) The cell will take up too much space and crowd surrounding cells.
B)Nutrients will not be able to enter the cell membrane fast enough to sustain the demands of the cell volume.
C) The smaller surface area will make it easier for toxic substances to leave the plasma membrane.
D) The surface area to volume will increase and prevent the movement of proteins throughout the cell.

A

B)Nutrients will not be able to enter the cell membrane fast enough to sustain the demands of the cell volume.

Biology 1001 (12 decks)

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