Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Microbiology > Cumulative Final > Flashcards

Cumulative Final Flashcards

1
Q

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the:

A

Species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens?

A

450x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What domain are humans classified in?

A

Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do most prokaryotes reproduce?

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown would be described as:

A

Bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

A

They lack a plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to higher concentration?

A

Active Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion:

A

Requires transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Caboxysomes, gas vacuoles, and magnetosomes are all examples of:

A

Inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically:

A

Plasmolyze (plasmolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Endospores are a reproductive structure:

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Figure 4.3
which diagram of a cell wall is a gram negative cell wall?

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Figure 4.3
Which diagram of a cell wall has a periplasm

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Figure 4.3
Which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Plasmids can do all the following EXCEPT:

A

Carry crucial genetic info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Catabolic reactions generally break down molecules and release energy: T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expanded in anabolic pathways. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If NAD+ is converted to NADH, it is said to be:

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We utilize NADH and FADH2 for what step in aerobic respiration?

A

Electron Transport Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy:

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mother Teresa almost passed away after having surgery to put in a pace maker. Indwelling catheters are susceptible to infection because:

A

Biofilms develop on catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?

A

Refrigeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When something is bacteriostatic it is__________growth and multiplication of microbes.
Inhibiting
26
Antisepsis is different from disinfection because we are destroying harmful organisms from:
Living tissue
27
What is the most resistant microbe?
Prions
28
What is the least resistant microbe?
Fungi
29
All of these are examples of alcohols used to kill microbes EXCEPT:
Iodine
30
What part of the cell does radiation cause damage to?
DNA
31
Which of the following is not a product of transcription?
New strand of DNA
32
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
as naked DNA in solution
33
Transduction is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
By a bacteriophage
34
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by
All. A) mutation. B) conjugation. C) transduction. D) transformation.
35
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is:
RNA polymerase
36
Where does transcription take place in prokaryotes?
Cytoplasm
37
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation:
Transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication
38
Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype T/F
True
39
An example of a mutagen includes:
A) UV radiation B) nitrous acid C) Gamma radiation D) All of the above -ALL-
40
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
All are unicellular
41
What group is the pinworm classified in?
Nematodes
42
Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
They are found only on nonenveloped viruses
43
What is the term for when viral DNA is incorporated into the host cell chromosome and never leaves?
Provirus
44
What type of nucleic acid can be used for the viral genome?
Both DNA an RNA
45
Provirus genes can suddenly be excised from the host cell T/F
???
46
An infectious protein is a:
Prion
47
Which is the difference between acute and chronic disease?
Chronic disease symptoms occurs slowly while acute disease symptoms occur rapidly
48
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how are they transmitted is called:
Epidemiology
49
Which of the following is a fomite:
A hypodermic needle
50
Signs of disease differ from symptoms of disease in that signs
are changes observed by the physician
51
These are all factors that contribute to nosocomial infections EXCEPT:
climatic changes
52
A disease in which there are no noticeable signs or symptoms is referred to as:
Subclinical
53
In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
Incubation and convalescence
54
A burn patient is one example of a compromised host T/F
True
55
In which period does death most likely occur?
Illness
56
When one organism benefits and the other is unaffected, this type of symbiosis is called:
commensalism
57
What is a form of contact transmission?
Kissing
58
How does a pathogen make its way into your gastrointestinal tract?
Water Food Contaminated fingers
59
What is the only example of an endotoxin?
Lipid A
60
Endotoxins are:
Part of the gram negative cell wall
61
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce:
Cytokines
62
Innate immunity:
Is nonspecific and present at birth
63
Innate immunity includes all of the following except:
Production of antibody
64
Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT:
Formation of phagolysosomes
65
Activation of C5-C9 results in:
Membrane attack complex
66
What does perforin do to help kill target cells?
Creates a protein channel (punches hole in membrane)
67
What is an activated B cell called?
Plasma cell
68
How many different epitopes does a single B or T cell recognize?
1
69
A second exposure to the same antigen results in a _____ immune response because of ____ cells.
more effective, memory
70
CD4+ T cells are activated by:
interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
71
Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
TH cell (helper)
72
T cells respond to antigens that are:
Attached to MHC I and MHC II
73
You need Helper T cells to activate Cytotoxic T cells T/F
True
74
A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The patient was near someone who had the disease
75
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
They occasionally revert to virulent forms
76
In a vaccine preparation, the term "attenuated" means that the agent does NOT replicate. T/F
False
77
Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses. T/F
True
78
What is the name of the subunit vaccine that links two components together to get a stronger immune response?
Conjugated vaccine
79
HIV spiked attach to CD4+ receptors found on:
T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
80
Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A) Virions may remain latent. B) There may be persistent yeast infections. C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic. D) The disease progresses to AIDS **ALL**
81
All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT:
Transfusion rejections
82
In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of:
Immune complex autoimmunity
83
The number of T cells drops below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?
Phase 3
84
During which phase does Acute Retroviral Syndrome occur?
Phase 1
85
Infection with HIV is currently chronic and incurable T/F
False
86
What phase of HIV infection is also considered AIDS?
Phase 3
87
Who first observed Penicillium inhibiting S. aureus?
Alexander Fleming
88
What is the name of the sterol that is targeted in the cell wall of fungi?
Ergosterol
89
An inherited immunodeficiency is termed:
Congenital
90
Autoimmune diseases occur when immune system is unable to discriminate "self" from "nonself" T/F
True
91
A hypersensitivity refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal. T/F
True
92
Which type of hypersensitivity is dependent only on T cell activation?
Type IV

Microbiology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions