Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Cumulative Final > Flashcards

Cumulative Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the:

A

Species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens?

A

450x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What domain are humans classified in?

A

Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do most prokaryotes reproduce?

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown would be described as:

A

Bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

A

They lack a plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to higher concentration?

A

Active Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion:

A

Requires transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Caboxysomes, gas vacuoles, and magnetosomes are all examples of:

A

Inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically:

A

Plasmolyze (plasmolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Endospores are a reproductive structure:

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Figure 4.3
which diagram of a cell wall is a gram negative cell wall?

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Figure 4.3
Which diagram of a cell wall has a periplasm

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Figure 4.3
Which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Plasmids can do all the following EXCEPT:

A

Carry crucial genetic info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Catabolic reactions generally break down molecules and release energy: T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expanded in anabolic pathways. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If NAD+ is converted to NADH, it is said to be:

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We utilize NADH and FADH2 for what step in aerobic respiration?

A

Electron Transport Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy:

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mother Teresa almost passed away after having surgery to put in a pace maker. Indwelling catheters are susceptible to infection because:

A

Biofilms develop on catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?

A

Refrigeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When something is bacteriostatic it is__________growth and multiplication of microbes.

A

Inhibiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Antisepsis is different from disinfection because we are destroying harmful organisms from:

A

Living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most resistant microbe?

A

Prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the least resistant microbe?

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of these are examples of alcohols used to kill microbes EXCEPT:

A

Iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What part of the cell does radiation cause damage to?

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is not a product of transcription?

A

New strand of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

A

as naked DNA in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transduction is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

A

By a bacteriophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by

A

All.
A) mutation.
B) conjugation.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is:

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where does transcription take place in prokaryotes?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation:

A

Transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication

38
Q

Recombination will always alter a cell’s genotype T/F

A

True

39
Q

An example of a mutagen includes:

A

A) UV radiation
B) nitrous acid
C) Gamma radiation
D) All of the above
-ALL-

40
Q

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

A

All are unicellular

41
Q

What group is the pinworm classified in?

A

Nematodes

42
Q

Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?

A

They are found only on nonenveloped viruses

43
Q

What is the term for when viral DNA is incorporated into the host cell chromosome and never leaves?

A

Provirus

44
Q

What type of nucleic acid can be used for the viral genome?

A

Both DNA an RNA

45
Q

Provirus genes can suddenly be excised from the host cell T/F

A

???

46
Q

An infectious protein is a:

A

Prion

47
Q

Which is the difference between acute and chronic disease?

A

Chronic disease symptoms occurs slowly while acute disease symptoms occur rapidly

48
Q

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how are they transmitted is called:

A

Epidemiology

49
Q

Which of the following is a fomite:

A

A hypodermic needle

50
Q

Signs of disease differ from symptoms of disease in that signs

A

are changes observed by the physician

51
Q

These are all factors that contribute to nosocomial infections EXCEPT:

A

climatic changes

52
Q

A disease in which there are no noticeable signs or symptoms is referred to as:

A

Subclinical

53
Q

In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?

A

Incubation and convalescence

54
Q

A burn patient is one example of a compromised host T/F

A

True

55
Q

In which period does death most likely occur?

A

Illness

56
Q

When one organism benefits and the other is unaffected, this type of symbiosis is called:

A

commensalism

57
Q

What is a form of contact transmission?

A

Kissing

58
Q

How does a pathogen make its way into your gastrointestinal tract?

A

Water
Food
Contaminated fingers

59
Q

What is the only example of an endotoxin?

A

Lipid A

60
Q

Endotoxins are:

A

Part of the gram negative cell wall

61
Q

Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce:

A

Cytokines

62
Q

Innate immunity:

A

Is nonspecific and present at birth

63
Q

Innate immunity includes all of the following except:

A

Production of antibody

64
Q

Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT:

A

Formation of phagolysosomes

65
Q

Activation of C5-C9 results in:

A

Membrane attack complex

66
Q

What does perforin do to help kill target cells?

A

Creates a protein channel (punches hole in membrane)

67
Q

What is an activated B cell called?

A

Plasma cell

68
Q

How many different epitopes does a single B or T cell recognize?

A

1

69
Q

A second exposure to the same antigen results in a _____ immune response because of ____ cells.

A

more effective, memory

70
Q

CD4+ T cells are activated by:

A

interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.

71
Q

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?

A

TH cell (helper)

72
Q

T cells respond to antigens that are:

A

Attached to MHC I and MHC II

73
Q

You need Helper T cells to activate Cytotoxic T cells T/F

A

True

74
Q

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

The patient was near someone who had the disease

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?

A

They occasionally revert to virulent forms

76
Q

In a vaccine preparation, the term “attenuated” means that the agent does NOT replicate. T/F

A

False

77
Q

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses. T/F

A

True

78
Q

What is the name of the subunit vaccine that links two components together to get a stronger immune response?

A

Conjugated vaccine

79
Q

HIV spiked attach to CD4+ receptors found on:

A

T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

80
Q

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?

A

A) Virions may remain latent.
B) There may be persistent yeast infections.
C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D) The disease progresses to AIDS
ALL

81
Q

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT:

A

Transfusion rejections

82
Q

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of:

A

Immune complex autoimmunity

83
Q

The number of T cells drops below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?

A

Phase 3

84
Q

During which phase does Acute Retroviral Syndrome occur?

A

Phase 1

85
Q

Infection with HIV is currently chronic and incurable T/F

A

False

86
Q

What phase of HIV infection is also considered AIDS?

A

Phase 3

87
Q

Who first observed Penicillium inhibiting S. aureus?

A

Alexander Fleming

88
Q

What is the name of the sterol that is targeted in the cell wall of fungi?

A

Ergosterol

89
Q

An inherited immunodeficiency is termed:

A

Congenital

90
Q

Autoimmune diseases occur when immune system is unable to discriminate “self” from “nonself” T/F

A

True

91
Q

A hypersensitivity refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal. T/F

A

True

92
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is dependent only on T cell activation?

A

Type IV

Microbiology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions