Connective Tissue: Quilt Flashcards
1
Q
Connective Tissue
A
Provides and maintains form in the body
- binds and connects cells to cells
- helps organize organs
2
Q
What are the 3 structures the form connective tissue?
A
- Cells
- Fibers
- Ground Substance
3
Q
Specialized Connective Tissue
A
Semirigid to rigid tissue consisting of cartilage, bone, adipose tissue, and blood cells
4
Q
What type of CT can be characterized as areolar and reticular? (loose or dense)
A
Loose
5
Q
T or F: Dense CT is generalized as regular and irregular
A
True
6
Q
What tissue type does blood belong to?
A
Connective tissue
7
Q
What are the two types of Connective Tissue? (not the loose/dense classification)
A
Fixed and Mobile
8
Q
What is more vascular? (CT Proper or epithelium)
A
CT proper
9
Q
What is highly cellular and always contain a free surface? (CT proper or epithelium)
A
Epithelium
10
Q
T or F: CT proper is avascular and contains a variable amount of inter and extracellular material.
A
False
11
Q
T or F: CT proper contains non polar cell membranes, while epithelium is generally polar.
A
True
12
Q
Which embryonic germ layer is connective tissue derived from?
A
Mesoderm
13
Q
Another name for fat cell
A
adipocyte
14
Q
Hematopoietic stem cells
A
cells destined to become various types of blood cells
15
Q
Collagen
A
The most abundant protein the human body
16
Q
How many types of collagen are there?
A
more than 25
17
Q
What are the 2 components of the extracellular Connective Tissue?
A
Fibers and ground substance
18
Q
T or F: Collagen is a glycoprotein component of extracellular CT
A
True
19
Q
T or F: Types I, II, and III collagen are non-fibril forming
A
False
20
Q
Vitamin C
A
Cofactor of proline hydroxyls for collagen formation
21
Q
Scurvy
A
Disease resulting from the degeneration of CT
- more pronounced in areas where collagen renewal takes place at a faster rate
- ulceration of gums, teeth loss, hemorrhages
22
Q
T or F: scurvy is a result of defective collagen due to the lack of Vitamin C
A
True
23
Q
What are the fiber-forming types of collagen?
A
Type I, II, and III
24
Q
Stroma
A
general term for connective tissue of any organ
25
Which type of collagen is uniformly distributed throughout the Connective tissue stroma?
Type V
26
T or F: Collagen type III accounts for 90% of body collagen
False
27
What is the most abundant type of body collagen?
Type I
28
Which type of collagen provides resistance to force, tension, and stretch?
Type I
29
Which type of collagen is located in cartilage, notochord, and intervertebral discs?
Type II
30
T or F: Type III collagen is responsible for structural support and filtration
False
31
What type of collagen is located in the connective tissue of the skin, bone, tendon, ligaments, dentin, sclera, fascia, and organ capsules?
Type I
32
T or F: Type I collagen provides resistance to pressure
False
33
Which type of fiber forming collagen is located in the CT of organs, smooth muscle, endometrium, blood vessels, and fetal skin?
Type III
34
Type IV collagen
Collagen of the basal lamina of epithelial and endothelial cells, kidney glomeruli, and lens capsules
35
T or F: Type IV collagen provides resistance to pressure in cartilage
False
36
Reticular Fibers
collagen like fibers produced by smooth muscles, fibroblasts, Schwann cells and reticular cells
Fibers with a small diameter and loose disposition
-help create a flexible network in organs that are subjected to changes in volume/form
37
Which type of collagen makes up collagen fibers?
Type I
38
T or F: collagen fibers function as strong inelastic yet flexible support.
true
39
T or F: reticular fibers are composed of collagen fibrils
true
40
T or F: Like collagen fibers, reticular fibers are usually composed of type I collagen
False
41
Due to more ___ attached to reticular fibers, PAS stain is best.
Glycoprotein
42
Collagenopathies
diseases caused by the deficient or abnormality in production of specific collagen types
43
Elastic fibers
non-collagen fibers produced by fibroblasts, smooth muscle, and chondrocytes with a thinner diameter compared to collagen
44
Which elastic fiber contains a small amount of hydroxylated Pro and Lys unlike collagen?
Elastin
45
Elastin and collagen both contain which amino acids in relative abundance?
Gly and Pro
46
T or F: Microfibrils and microfilaments are basically the same.
False
47
Which glycoprotein does microfibrils have in high levels?
Fibrillin
48
What forms a sheath around elastin?
Microfibrils
49
Marfan's syndrome
Autosomal dominant disorder due to a defective fibrillin gene
50
What is the long standing concern of Marfan's syndrome?
Aortic dissection
51
A patient presents with abnormally long bones, eye lungs in an improper place, abnormal joints, and weakened blood vessels. what disorder could he/she have?
Marfan's Syndrome
52
What is the goo/jello component of CT?
ground substance
53
Edema
another term for swelling
54
What serves as a medium for the diffusion of gases, nutrient material and metabolic products from blood vessels to tissue in ground substance?
Water
55
What quality of ground substance allows it to be found between cells and fibers- a colloid of variable viscosity?
Amorphous
56
What occurs as a result of fluid accumulation within CT at sites of injury?
Edema (swelling)
57
T or F: Edema, in part, facilitates the invasion of lymphoid/immune cells at sites of injury
True
58
T or F: Ground substance is insoluble in reagents used in tissue processing and is seen in ordinary preparations
False
59
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
very long, unbranched polysaccharide chain (70+) that can be sulfated-provide rigidity
- Hydrophilic
- carries negative charge that attracts Na+ in CT proper ground substance
60
What is the size of hyaluronic acid?
1 kDa
61
hyaluronic acid
major component of CT proper ground substance that is very rigid and serves as a lubricant in joint fluid by protecting from compression
62
What defines the physical characteristics of non-sulfated GAG?
hyaluronic acid
63
Which type of GAG doesn't contain hyaluronic acid? (sulfated or non sulfated)
sulfated
64
How large are sulfated GAGs?
10-40 Da
65
T or F: Heparin, heparan, and keratin are few examples of sulfated GAGs.
False
66
What has a 3D structure similar to a test tube brush?
Proteoglycan
67
Proteoglycan
GAG + core protein
68
Which two sulfated GAGs are present in a proteoglycan subunit?
Keratan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate
69
Proteoglycan aggregate
proteoglycan + hyaluronic acid core
70
Degradation of proteoglycans is carried out in several cell types and depends on the presence of several ___.
Lysosomal enzymes
71
A lack of ___ causes diseases like Hurler syndrome, Hunter syndrome, Sanfilippo Syndrome, and Morquio Syndrome.
Hydrolases
72
Fibroblast
cells actively synthesizing extracellular material like collagen and reticular fibers
73
During which stage of activity does a fibroblast become a fibrocyte?
quiescent
74
Most common cell type in CT
Fibroblast
75
What cytoplasmic structure(s) cause fibroblasts to stain basophilic?
ribosomes and RER
76
T or F: Fibroblasts contain many mitochondria and well developed Golgi.
True
77
Fibroblast nuclei stain light basophilic because of the abundance of ___.
Euchromatin
78
What shape are fibroblast nuclei?
oval
79
Fibrocyte
Inactive Fibroblast
80
In what shape are fibrocyte nuclei?
spindle
81
Fibrocyte nuclei are dark staining because of abundant ___.
heterochromatin
82
T or F: Fibrocyte nuclei are easy to visualize.
False
83
Fibrocytes have ___ ribosomes, RER, golgi, and mitochondria.
Few
84
Fibrocytes have (more/less) cell processes compared to fibroblasts.
Less
85
Myofibroblast
cell that displays characteristics of fibroblast and smooth muscle cells
86
T or F: Myofibroblasts usually exist as an isolated cell
True
87
Myofibroblasts are implicated in ___.
Wound contraction
88
Myofibroblasts are characterized by bundles of ___.
actin filaments
89
T or F: When tissue is destroyed by inflammation or trauma, these sites of destruction are replaced by native cells.
false
90
Which main CT cell type is involved in scar formation?
fibroblast
91
Keloid formation
local swelling caused by abnormal amounts of collagen production
92
Keloid Formation is most common in people of ___ decent.
African
93
Which type of loose CT has a random placement of cell with more ground substance than cells by volume?
areolar
94
T or F: Areolar loose CT is important fo the diffusion of O2 and nutrients from small vessels.
true
95
Areolar loose CT surrounds ___ vessels.
small
96
__ CT is the site of inflammatory response and edema like allergic or immune reactions.
Areolar
97
T or F: Reticular CT is the initial site of bacteria or virus breach from blood vessels.
False
98
Which form of CT proper do immune cells (mast, plasma, T and B cells, etc.) reside in?
Loose areolar
99
T or F: Loose areolar CT has a gel-like consistency.
true
100
T or F: Loose reticular CT serves as a scaffold for organs because of its many reticular fibers
True
101
__ Cells are found in most organs and serve as the scaffolding for organ specific cells
Reticular
102
Parenchyma
cells characteristic of specific organ
103
T or F: Dense regular CT is often found in skin and capsules of organs.
False
104
Where is dense regular CT normally found?
tendons and ligaments
105
What connects muscle to bone?
tendon
106
What connects bone to bone?
ligament
107
Where is dense irregular CT found?
skin and capsules of organs
108
T or F: Dense regular and irregular CT both contain fibroblasts, collagen fibers, elastic fibers and blood borne cells.
true
109
What type of CT proper has an orderly, parallel fiber bundle orientation that can be wavy?
dense regular
110
Another name for fat cells
adipocytes
111
Adipocytes
cells that store lipids as lipid droplets
112
What are the two types of adipocytes?
Multilocular and unilocular
113
Which adipocyte type is most commonly referred to as "Brown fat"?
multiocular
114
Which adipocyte type is most commonly referred to as "white fat"?
Unilocular
115
T or F: Unilocular adipose is present mostly in fetus and newborns.
false
116
T or F: White fat gradually decreases with age.
false
117
__ have a high surface to mass ratio with significant heat loss.
Newborns
118
Which adipose type contains multiple inclusions?
multilocular
119
T or F: Brown fat has multiple inclusions that are membrane bound.
false
120
T or F: Brown fat may be found in the perirenal or axill/neck regions in adults.
True
121
T or F: Brown fat is highly vascular, white fat is not.
fat
122
What is the primary function of multilocular adipose CT?
thermogenesis
123
T or F: Brown fat has many mitochondria.
true
124
Brown fat mitochondria lack __ on the inner membrane, makes it unique.
respiratory assembly
125
T or F: Brown fat mitochondria makes tons of ATP.
false
126
Brown fat mitochondria generate ___.
heat
127
Which adipose CT contains eccentric, spherical nuclei? *(unilocular or multilocular)
multilocular
128
T or F: Both brown and white fat contain reticular and collagen fibers.
true
129
T or F: Unilocular adipose contains a single, membrane bound inclusion
False
130
What is the primary function of white fat?
caloric energy storage
131
Unilocular inclusions can be up to ___ um and larger
100
132
White fat contains ___ mitochondria.
normal
133
Leukocytes
White Blood cells
| -transient visitors of CT proper
134
Leukocytes
cells that orginate from blood and lymph stream
135
Lymphocytes
leukocytes primarily involved in immune responses
136
What leukocytes are natural kill cells (B and T cells)?
Lymphocytes
137
Which cells are the first to arrive at the site of tissue injury?
neutrophils
138
Neutrophils have ___ action that allows them to engulf bacteria, foreign substances and damaged tissue.
phagocytic
139
What leukocyte type make up yellow exudate (pus)?
neutrophils
140
__ produce antihistamine in response to allergic reactions/inflammation.
eosinophils
141
T or F: Neutrophils counter act histamine activity to modulate inflammatory response.
False
142
What cell type is found in high numbers in response to parasitic invasion?
Eosinophils
143
What serves as the leading edge (active phagocyte) in response to infection/injury?
macrophages
144
T or F: Macrophages have a well developed RER, Golgi, mitochondria, and lysosomes.
True
145
Macrophages are derived from __ circulating in the blood.
Monocytes
146
Macrophages can act as __ present cells.
antigen
147
Macrophages
Cytoplasmic inclusions contain secondary lysosomes
148
T or F: Plasma cells digest and secrete pyrogen, interferons, elastase, collagenases and proteases.
False
149
T or F: Pyrogen increases heat and leads to fever.
True
150
Are plasma cells numerous under normal conditions?
no
151
Plasma cells
cells characterized by a heterochromatin cartwheel shaped nucleus
152
What is located in the clear area in plasma cells?
golgi
153
Plasma cells are formed from __.
B cell lymphocytes
154
T or F: Plasma cells can be found in some number in alimentary mucous membranes.
True
155
Mast Cells
Widely distributed cells of CT
- abundant along small blood vessels
- contain cytoplasmic granules with histamine and heparin
156
Histamine
increases permeability of blood vessels, allowing antibodies to move
157
Heparin
blood anticoagulant
158
What is Dr. Weeks Favorite Cell type?
MAST CELLS
159
Mast cells are (Fixed/mobile) CT cells
mobile
