conclusion - for ‘britain was fully democratic by 1918’ how valid is this view’

Question 1

overall and in conclusion….

Answer 1

it would not be accurate to describe britain as a fully democratic country by 1918

Question 2

on one hand it can be argued that some attempts made were sucessfull to an extent

Answer 2

corruption and intimidation was mostly removed from the political system, the franchise had been widened giving all men over 21 the vote and constituencies where slightly better represented as some redistribution of the seats had taken place

Question 3

however on the other hand,

Answer 3

by 1918 women were still unable to vote on equal terms as men, the majority of the commons was still made up of wealthy and upper class men and voters still where they clearly and fairly represented by this time

Question 4

in order to be considered a democracy

Answer 4

all members of society must feel represented, legislation should be voted on fairly and universal sufferage must exist yet by 1918, this was not the case

Question 5

whilst valid steps were taken to bring britain closer to the fully democratic status

Answer 5

this had not been achieved by 1918 making the viewpoint in the question invalid