Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Womens Health Cards > Complication Of Pregnancy > Flashcards

Complication Of Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the failure to conceive after 12 months of frequent unprotected intercourse

A

Infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

About how long after an LH surge is ovulation

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what testing can you do for infertility

A

Hysterosalpingogram
Saline infusion sonography
Hysteroscopy
Exploratory laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a radiopaque dye injected through the cervix into the uterus with fluoroscopy images to assess for flow of dye into the uterus through the fallopian tube’s and into the peritoneal cavity

A

Hysterosalpingogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Saline infused into the uterine cavity while viewing by ultrasound is known as what

A

Saline infusion sonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Camera device to look inside the uterus

A

Hysteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drug can be given to induce ovulation

A

Clomiphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug inhibits estrogen from binding in the hypothalamus in the pituitary

A

Clomiphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is clomiphene given at

A

Given for five days in the follicular phase then monitor for ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is interuterine insemination

A

Washed sperm injected into the uterine cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the pregnancy which implant somewhere other than the uterus

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A rupture of an Ectopic pregnancy can lead to what

A

Hemorrhaging into the peritoneal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal death in the first trimester

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the diagnosis.
The patient comes to you after two months of amenorrhea followed by abnormal vaginal bleeding. She’s been experiencing this lower quadrant pain that is slowly becoming more and more severe. On exam she has a tender adnexa and cervical motion tenderness.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What labs do you want to run if you suspect in Ectopic pregnancy

A

Beta hCG – will not be rising as expected

Blood type and antibody screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What will you see on ultrasound if your diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy

A

Empty uterine cavity

Adnexal mass or extrauterine pregnancy may be found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If patient is stable when you suspect an ectopic pregnancy how do you monitor them?

A

Monitor and follow serial b-hcg every 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what level of beta – Hcg should in interuterine pregnancy be visible at

A

1500 to 2000 about 45 weeks from last menstrual period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fetal heart rate should be detected when the Beto – ECG is at what level

A

> 4000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you treat Ectopic pregnancy

A

If patient stable methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What both definitively diagnoses and treats an ectopic pregnancy

A

Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a fetus lost before 20 weeks

A

Abort us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a complete expulsion of all products of conception

A

Complete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a partial expulsion of some but not all products of conception

A

Incomplete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is no expulsion of products of conception, but bleeding and dilation of cervix such that passage of products of conception seems inevitable

A

Inevitable abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is any uterine bleeding before 20 weeks without dilation of the cervix or expulsion of any products of conception

A

Threatened abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is death of an embryo/fetus before 20 weeks with complete retention of the products of conception

A

Missed abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When do most spontaneous abortions occur

A

In the first trimester, especially before eight weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are most spontaneous abortions due to

A

Chromosomal abnormality’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should fetal heart tones be present by?

A

Week 10 to 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you treat a threatened abortion

A

Limit activity, monitor with a weekly ultrasound to confirm viable pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you treat an incomplete/inevitable/missed abortion

A

Requires removal of remaining products of conception to prevent further bleeding
Medical management – prostaglandin misoprostal causes cervical dilation and uterine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you treat a complete abortion

A

Generally symptoms resolve monitor for heavy bleeding if needed d/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is painless dilation of the cervix often leading to second trimester spontaneous abortion or preterm birth

A

Incompetent cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the diagnosis.

A patient comes to you and on exam they present with the cervix dilated more than 2 cm without any other symptoms

A

Incompetent cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you treat an incompetent cervix

A

Cerclage – until 36 to 37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is considered recurrent pregnancy loss

A

Two or more consecutive spontaneous abortions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do you want to look into if someone has recurrent pregnancy loss

A

Karotypes of both parents
Maternal anatomy assessed by hysterosalpingogram
Test for thyroid disease, diabetes, lupus, and hypercoagulable states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the spectrum of neoplasms from abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Molar pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the four major types of gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Molar pregnancy
Invasive mole
Choriocarcinoma
Placental site trophoblastic tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is thought to be due to fertilization of an empty a lacking a nucleus

A

Hydatidiform complete moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Are partial or complete hydatidiform moles More common

A

Complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a normal over fertilized by two sperm simultaneously

A

Partial mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Need to diagnosis.
A patient come see you with symptoms of being pregnant. When checking their hCG levels they are much higher than what they should be. On exam the uterus is larger than expected and there’s no fetal heart tones

A

Hydatidiform mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What will show on ultrasound of a hydatidiform mole

A

Grape like clusters, snowstorm appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the treatment of hydatidiform mole

A

Removal of all uterine contents by D&C with suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How often do you need to follow hCG levels after treating a molar pregnancy

A

Every 1 to 2 weeks until three consecutive negatives, then every 1 to 2 months for 6 to 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If you have a molar pregnancy with an hCG level greater than 100,000 what are they at risk for

A

Malignant gestational trophoblastic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name the mole.

What is a local invasion into the myometrium that may reach the peritoneal cavity but rarely metastasizes

A

Invasive mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Name the mall.

Malignant necrotizing tumor invading uterine wall and blood vessels

A

Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do you treat an invasive more choriocarcinoma

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an extremely rare tumor arising from the placental site infiltrates the Miami trip and blood vessels and produces a chronic low level of hCG

A

Placental site trophoblastic tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you treat placental site trophoblastic tumor

A

Hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can happen if a mother is Rh negative

A

She can develop antibodies to the fetus if they are Rh positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens if the antibodies that a mother developed cross the placenta

A

Hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells and this can lead to hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hydrops fetalis

A

What is a syndrome of hyperdynamic state, heart failure, diffuse edema and pericardial effusion resulting from severe anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If a mother is Rh negative what do you have to do to keep her from becoming sensitized

A

Anytime she may have exposure to fetal blood she should receive RhoGAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What attacks fetal red blood cells before the maternal immune system can react to them

A

Rhogam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When is RhoGAM given routinely if a mother is Rh negative

A

28 weeks in postpartum if the neonate is Rh positive

61
Q

What do you do if the mother is our age negative and a B positive

A

Check the tighter – associated with fetal hydrops if greater than 1:16

62
Q

How often do you follow the titers if a patient is Rh negative a B positive as long as they are less than 1:16

A

Every four weeks

63
Q

What is an abnormal implantation of placenta over the internal cervical os

A

Placenta previa

64
Q

What is considered a complete placenta previa

A

Completely covers os

65
Q

What is considered a partial placenta previa

A

Covers portion of the os

66
Q

What is considered a marginal placenta previa

A

Edge of the placenta reaches margin of os

67
Q

What is a frequent cause of antepartum hemorrhage

A

Placenta previa

68
Q

Name the diagnosis.

A patient presents you with sudden profuse painless bleeding. She’s 32 weeks pregnant.

A

Placenta previa

69
Q

What do you do in order to diagnose placenta previa

A

Ultrasound

Vaginal exam is contraindicated it could cause further bleeding and separation

70
Q

How do you treat placenta previa if found on US with no bleeding

A

Most resolve by third trimester repeat ultrasound at 32 weeks

71
Q

How do you treat placenta previa if a patient comes to you bleeding

A

Treat any acute blood loss

If <34 weeks give betamethasone

72
Q

If a patient presents to you with placenta previa but they are stable in the bleeding is controlled how do you treat them

A

Considered outpatient management with pelvic rest in bed rest plan a C-section at 36 to 37 weeks after confirming to fetal lung maturity

73
Q

What are the indications for an immediate C-section of placenta Previa

A

Unstoppable labor, fetal distress, life-threatening hemorrhage

74
Q

What is an abnormal insertion of placenta into the uterine wall

A

Placenta Accreta

75
Q

How do you diagnose placenta Accreta

A

Ultrasound

76
Q

How do you treat placenta Accreta

A

Preplan delivery

77
Q

What is the premature separation of placenta from the uterine wall

A

Placental abruption

78
Q

Name the diagnosis.
Blood trapped between the uterine wall and placenta – enlarging collection of blood leads to further separation and bleeding

A

Concealed hemorrhage a placental abruption

79
Q

Name the diagnosis.
A 33 week pregnant lady comes to you with bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She feel she is in labor because she’s having very strong contractions. On exam the patient is bleeding and has a firm tender uterus

A

Placental abruption

80
Q

How do you diagnose placenta abruption

A

Confirmed by inspection of placenta at delivery.

Presence of clot overlaying placental destruction

81
Q

How do you treat placental abruption

A

Stabilize patient give RhoGAM if Rh-
If preterm give betamethasone
Deliver if bleeding is life-threatening or fetal distress

82
Q

What is considered preterm labor

A

Labor occurring before 37 weeks

83
Q

What two things do you need in order to be diagnosed with preterm labor

A

You need both contractions and cervical changes

84
Q

How do you treat preterm labor

A

Tocolysis
MgSO4
Terbutaline

85
Q

What drug is given for preterm labor in attempt to prevent or stop contractions

A

Tocolysis

86
Q

What drug is given in preterm labor to decrease uterine tone and contractility

A

MgSO4

87
Q

If a patient is in preterm labor and they are between 24 to 34 weeks what do you need to do

A

Give corticosteroids to promote fetal lung maturity

88
Q

What are some signs of chorioamnionitis

A

Fever
Maternal and fetal tachycardia
Uterine tenderness

89
Q

If PROM happened more than 18 hours before delivery what do you need to do

A

Give antibiotics during labor

90
Q

What can you do for a large just stational age baby for treatment

A

Control blood sugar and just stational diabetes, less weekend if there are obese
Consider induction of labor at term before macrosomic

91
Q

What is amnionic fluid index less than five

A

Olgiohydraminos

92
Q

What is the umbilical cord more susceptible to with less amniotic fluid

A

Compression

93
Q

How can you measure amniotic fluid

A

By ultrasound

94
Q

What is the most common cause of olgiohydraminos

A

rupture of membranes

95
Q

What is an amniotic fluid index greater than 24

A

Polyhydramnios

96
Q

What is associated with structural and chromosomal abnormality’s, neural tube defect’s, fetal hydrops, obstruction in fetal G.I. tract

A

Polyhydramnios

97
Q

When is a pregnancy considered post term

A

More than 42 weeks

98
Q

What is the most common reason for post term diagnosis

A

In accurate dating

99
Q

With ultrasound when are you more likely to establish correct dates early in pregnancy

A

First trimester

100
Q

What do you need to monitor after 41 weeks

A

Nonstress test and/or biophysical profile

101
Q

If you have a patient who is greater than 20 weeks along and has absence of fetal movement in lack of uterine growth by ultrasound what do they have

A

Intrauterine fetal demise

102
Q

How do you treat interuterine fetal demise

A

Induction of labor

Extensive testing usually done to figure out cause

103
Q

For a multiple gestation delivery how must the babies be on order to attempt a vaginal delivery

A

Vertex/vertex or vertex/breach

104
Q

How often do you monitor ultrasounds for a twin/twin transfusion syndrome

A

Every two weeks to assess amniotic fluid volume and fetal growth

105
Q

What is the treatment for twin – twin transfusion syndrome

A

Fetoscope laser ablation

Amnio reduction

106
Q

What type of twins are at risk for cord entanglement

A

Mono/mono twins

107
Q

What is chronic HTN

A

HTN prior to pregnancy

108
Q

When can a diagnosis of chronic HTN be made

A

If elevated HTN prior to 20 weeks gestation OR

Increased BP persist 12 weeks post-partum

109
Q

What is gestational HTN

A

Elevated BP detected after 20 weeks gestation

110
Q

What is preclamsia

A

New onset HTN AND protenuria or end-organ dysfunction

111
Q

What is elclampsia

A

New onset HTN AND proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction with seizures

112
Q

Is BP normally increased or decreased in pregnancy

A

Decreased due to vascular resistance

113
Q

When is BP the lowest during pregnancy normally

A

2nd trimester

114
Q

When is someone considered to have gestational HTN number wise

A

> 140/90 when >20 weeks gestation

115
Q

When diagnosing gestational HTN how many readings must you have

A

2 readings 4 hours apart

116
Q

When is HTN considered severe

A

> 160/110

117
Q

What must proteinuria be in order to diagnose preeclamsia

A

> 0.3 in 24 hour urine specimen or 1+ on urine dip

118
Q

What is considered end-organ dysfunction

A

Thrombocytopenia, elevated Cr or LFT’s, pulmonary edema, or cerebral/visual symptoms

119
Q

If a diagnosis of Gestational HTN is made how often do you monitor the fetus

A

Daily “kick counts”
Weekly or biweekly NST or BPP
US every 3-4 weeks to assess fetal growth and fluid status

120
Q

What is HELLP syndrome

A

Hemolysis, Elevated liver enzymes, and Low platelets

121
Q

How does a patient with hellp syndrome often presents

A

Abd/epigastric pain, N/V, malaise

122
Q

What are the diagnosisitc findings of a patient with HELLP syndrome

A
  1. Evidence of hemolysis (schistocytes on blood smear) elevated bilirubin or LDH
  2. Platelet count <100,000
  3. AST >70
123
Q

When do most cases of eclampsia occur

A

Within 24 hours of labor up to 2-10 days post partum

124
Q

Cerebral hemorrhage, aspiration pna, hypoxic encephalopathy, thromboembolic events are all complications of what problem

A

Eclampsia

125
Q

What is the treatment of eclampsia

A

Seizure management-
Mag sulfate, immediate delivery
C-section delivery if maternal instability or fetal distress

126
Q

What medication is given if BP is in the severe range

A

Hydralazine or labetolol

127
Q

What can be given as a reversal for Mg sulfate

A

Calcium gluconate

128
Q

What meds are typically given for gestational HTN

A

Labetolol, Nifedipine, methyldopa

129
Q

What HTN meds are contraindicated in gestational HTN

A

ACEI or ARBS they are associated with fetal malformations

130
Q

When a pt is on Mg sulfate how often do you monitor their urine output and what else do you monitor

A

Every hour and monitor deep tendon reflexes, respiration rate, and mental status for possible toxicity

131
Q

What is an extrernal fetal HR monitoring for 20 min

A

Non-stress test

132
Q

When is a non-stress test considered reactive

A

Acceleration of HR increased by 15 bpm for at least 15 seconds twice in the 20 min

133
Q

If a patient has a nonreactive non-stress test what is the next step

A

Biophysical profile

134
Q

Do you want a higher or lower score on a patients BPP

A

Higher

135
Q

How can you check a fetal lung maturity

A

Obtain amniotic fluid

136
Q

What ratio of lecithin:sphingomylien is considered high likely that the lungs are mature

A

2:1

137
Q

What hormone is considered to affect diabetes in pregnancy

A

Human placental lactogen (hPL)

138
Q

What is a patient at risk for who has gestational diabetes

A

Macrosominia

139
Q

When do you screen for gestational diabetes

A

24-28 weeks

140
Q

How do you screen for gestational diabetes

A

1 hour glucose challenge test–50g glucose and check BS 1 hour later (>140 have to check GTT)
GTT-3 hour- 100g–check fasting BS and at hours 1,2,3. If BS >95, >180, >155, >140–> diagnosis is 2 or more abnormal

141
Q

What is the diagnosis criteria for the GCT

A

If >140 then you have to check a GTT

142
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for the GTT

A

BS fasting, hour 1, hour 2, hour 3
>95, >180, >155, >140
If 2 or more abnormal diagnosis is made

143
Q

What is the treatment for gestational diabetes

A

Diabetic diet, monitoring BS 4 times a day

144
Q

What is the goal fasting blood sugar? What about 2 hour post-prandial?

A

<95. And <120

145
Q

What med is used to control gestational dm if lifestyle not working

A

Glyburide or Metformin

146
Q

When monitoring a pt with gestational dm when do you start doing weekly or biweekly NST or BPP

A

32-36 weeks

147
Q

With a patient with gestational dm at what fetal weight are you more at risk for shoulder dystocia? What about a weight that you want to do an elective C-section?

A

Shoulder dystocia: >4,000 (8lb 13oz)

C-section: >4500 (9lb 15oz)

148
Q

If a patient with gestational dm is on medication to control it when do you want the patient to give birth

A

Induce them at 39-40 weeks

If poorly controlled at 37-39 weeks

149
Q

What should be given to reduce the risk of neural tube defects

A

Folic acid

Womens Health Cards (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions