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AAA Companion Animal VMS4005 > Companion Animal Therapeutics > Flashcards

Companion Animal Therapeutics Flashcards

1
Q

CaniLeish vacc (Virbac)

A
  • Leishmaniasis (canine)
  • Reduces risk of infection by promoting cell-mediated immunity
  • Give to healthy seronegative dogs when at high risk
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2
Q

Eurican Herpes 205 (Boeringer)

A
  • Canine herpes virus
  • Pregnant bitches -> passive protection for puppies in first few days of life - Ab
  • 1st = 7 - 10 d after mating date
  • 2nd = 1 - 2 w before expected whelping
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3
Q

Milbemycin oxime, moxidectin, selamectin (Stronghold)

A
  • Macrocyclic lactones (3-ML, clear)
  • Endoparasites
  • Ectoparasiticide
  • Angiostrongylosis
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4
Q

Fenbendazole (Panacur), febantel

A
  • Benzimidazoles
  • Endoparasites - roundworms, e.g. angiostrongylus vasorum; protozoa - giardia
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5
Q

Praziquantel (Droncit/Drontal)

A
  • Dipylidium tapeworm (endoparasite)
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6
Q

Phenypyrazole (fipronil)

A
  • Ectoparasiticide
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7
Q

Imidaclopride / nitenpyram

A
  • Ectoparasiticide
  • Angiostrongylosis
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8
Q

Pyrethroids (nitenpyram)

A
  • Ectoparasiticide
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9
Q

Amitraz

A
  • Ectoparasiticide
  • Demodex
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10
Q

Isoxazolines (Advocate, Advantage, Bravecto)

A
  • Ectoparasiticide - treats most apart from tapeworms + ticks
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11
Q

Acaricide

A
  • Mites + ticks
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12
Q

Insecticides

A
  • Insects
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13
Q

Methoprene

A
  • Juvenile hormone analogue, growth regulator
  • Against ectoparasites
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14
Q

Lufenuron

A
  • Insect development inhibitor, growth regulator
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15
Q

Delmadinone acetate (Tardak)

A
  • Progestogen (synthetic analogue of P4)
  • Temporary heat postponement
  • Not licensed for use in females
  • Male dogs - hypersexuality, prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
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16
Q

Megestrol acetate (Ovarid)

A
  • Progestogen (synthetic analogue of P4)
  • Short-acting
  • Temporary postponement of heat (start just before pro-oestrus)
  • No longer licensed, may become again
  • SE: steroid effect, good for Tx of pruritis, but if e.g. cat in dioestrus pot -> CEH pyo (P4 -> inc thickness of uterus, secretions, glandular secretions); P4 -> insulin resistance -> diabetes mellitus
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17
Q

Proligestone (Delvosteron)

A
  • Cats, dogs, ferrets
  • Progestogen (synthetic analogue of P4) - temporary heat postponement, only drug licensed
  • Repeat injections in anoestrus/dioestrus
  • Single injection in anoestrus/dioestrus
  • Single injection at onset of pro-oestrus
  • Not licensed in breeding male dog/cat
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18
Q

Milbolerone

A
  • Synthetic androgen analogue (-ive feedback on HPG axis, tissues less responsive to E2)
  • Prolonged oestrus postponement
  • Unlicensed
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19
Q

Testosterone (Durateston)

A
  • Androgen (-ive feedback on HPG axis, tissues less responsive to E2)
  • Prolonged estrus postponement
  • Not available in UK
  • Dec spermatozoa + spermatozoal motility
  • SE: prostatic hypertrophy; not licensed for use for control of breeding in males
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20
Q

Nandrolone

A
  • Androgen (-ive feedback on HPG axis, tissues less responsive to E2)
  • Prolonged oestrus postponement
  • Licensed for CRF in cats
  • SE: Masculising e.g. mounting behaviour, endometrial atrophy
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21
Q

Deslorelin (Suprelorin implant)

A
  • GnRH agonist (desensitises GnRH receptors in anterior pit gland, dec LH + FSH production)
  • Prolonged oestrus postponement / delayed onset of oestrus in bitches
  • Licensed for use in prepubertal female dogs only (implant admin between 12 - 16 w/o), induced temporary infertility to delay first oestrus, initial dose causes surge of pit hormone release, may inc fertility until down-regulation occurs
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) - dec FSH + LH -> dec testosterone -> smaller prostate
  • Castration implant: slow release, long-acting implant; causes initial 14 d testosterone surge, then levels dec, infertility after 6 - 8 w implantation, lasts up to 6 - 12 m, longer in lighter dogs
  • Induces infertility in male + female ferrets (only licensed in ferrets)
  • Ovarian cysts - guinea pigs
  • Oestrogen-induced mammary carcinomas - rats
  • Egg-laying disorders (egg binding) - birds
  • Ovarian agenesis Dx (absence of oestrus) - test E2 levels to see if inc if ovarian tissue present
  • Induces oestrus; follicular cysts to induce ovulation
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22
Q

Aglepristone (Alizin)

A
  • Dog, cat, rabbit
  • Misalliance/preg termination
  • Anti-progestogen (synthetic steroid), acts on uterus - main licensed drug
  • Competes w/ P4 at receptor level, strong affinity for receptors in uterus, true competitor of any agonists
  • Bitch: 2 doses 24 h apart from d 1 to d 45 after mating
  • Queen: 2 doses 24 h apart early after mating give better results (off-license)
  • Give in dioestrus - check vag cyto to make sure not too early
  • Expensive
  • Induction of parturition (un-licensed)
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23
Q

Oestadiol benzoate (Mesalin)

A
  • Synthetic oestrogen - changes biochemical environment, affects transit time of zygote in ovduct, direct embryotoxic effects, early in preg (3 - 5 d post mating)
  • Preg termination, no longer licensed
  • SE: BM suppression, CEH, pyometra
  • Cheaper
  • Use Alizin
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24
Q

Prostaglandin (PGF2/PGF2a) (Dinoprost)

A
  • Misalliance/preg termination (more common in mixed/FA)
  • Lyse CL (but in dog, CL resistant to effects), cause uterine contractions (acts on ovaries)
  • Serious SE if CVR disease present
  • Not licensed for use in cats/dogs in UK
  • PGF2-alpha may be used in for medical management of pyo
  • Induction of parturition (un-licensed)
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25
Q

Cabergoline (Galastop)

A
  • Misalliance/preg termination / abscence of oestrus, luteal ovarian cysts
  • Inhibits prolactin production (prolactin maintains CL) -> luteolysis of CL at pit gland -> induces oestrus, bitch starts cycling again
  • SE: transient hypotension
  • Used in combo w/ PGF2a
  • Pseudopregnancies - dopamine agonist - suppresses prolactin, when see more of clinical signs
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26
Q

Oxytocin

A
  • Induction of parturition (un-licensed) (non-obstructive medical management) - rapid onset (minutes)
  • Stimulation of uterine contraction to facilitate parturition in presence of fully dilated cervix
  • Promote involution of post-parturient uterus + aid passage of retained placenta
  • Aid control of post-partum haemorrhage
  • Spastic, uncoordinated contractions of uterus if oxytocin admin rapid/high dose, delay parturition
  • Control of post-partum haemorrhage
  • Management of uterine prolapse (after replacement)
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27
Q

Nitroglycerine

A
  • Induction of parturition (un-licensed)
  • Softens cervix
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28
Q

Improvac

A
  • GnRH agonist - suppresses FSH + LH (desensitises receptors to GnRH) preventing ovulation + sperm production
  • Females only
  • Hoofstock only
  • Require course of primary vaccinations 4 - 6 w apart, then repeat injection every 4 m; considered effective 4 w after second primary injection
  • [Pig castration - induces antibodies against GnRH to produce a temporary immunological suppression of testicular function, removes boar taint]
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29
Q

Permethrin

A
  • Growth regulator, ectoparasiticide
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30
Q

Calcium gluconate

A
  • Non-obstructive dystocia
  • Induces uterine contractions
  • Hypocalcaemia (peri-parturient disease) - eclampsia, puerperal tetany
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31
Q

Dextrose solution

A
  • Non-obstructive dystocia, shortens parturition
  • Hypoglycaemia (peri-parturient disease)
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32
Q

Doxapram

A
  • NSAID
  • Stimulation of respiration in neonates, dystocia
  • Not used anymore
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33
Q

Amoxicillin

A
  • Penicillin
  • IV AB therapy for fading puppy/kitten syndrome
  • (+ Calvulanic acid, beta-lactamase inhibitor)
  • Acute disease/during leptopspiraemia (canine leptospirosis)
  • Suspected parvovirus, if neutropoenic
  • Acute D+ + systemic signs
  • Mastitis
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34
Q

Cephalexin

A
  • Cephalosporin - IV AB therapy for fading puppy/kitten syndrome
  • Neonatal septicaemia
  • Acute D+ w/ systemic signs indicating risk of bacteraemia/sepsis
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35
Q

Enrofloxacin (Baytril)

A
  • AB (fluroquinolone)
  • Neonatal septicaemia
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36
Q

L-tryptophan, L-theanine

A
  • Nutraceutical - target affected neurotransmitters (serotonin, dopamine)
  • Stress management
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37
Q

Fluoxetine, Alprazolam, Selegiline

A
  • Stop nutraceuticals
  • Target affected neurotransmitters (serotonin, dopamine, GABA)
  • Stress management
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38
Q

Doxycycline

A
  • Chronic renal carrier state of Canine Leptospirosis
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39
Q

Itraconazole

A
  • Oral antifungal
  • Aspergillosis
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40
Q

Clindamycin

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii
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41
Q

Pimobendan

A
  • Dilates blood vv -> strengthens heart’s ability to contract
  • Congestive heart failure (dilated cardiomyopathy/valvular insufficiency)
  • Inodilator - positive inotropic effect + vasodilatory action -> dec cardiac preload + afterload
  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE) III inhibitor - can inc intracellular Ca^2+ + myocardial oxygenation
  • Direct action on heart may be reduced in dogs w/ heart disease
  • Vasodilation occurs by activity at periphery
  • Mitral valve disease, pre-clinical DCM + CHF secondary to DCM
    (Give w/ furosemide)
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42
Q

Furosemide

A
  • Tx of fluid retention (oedema) + swelling due to CHF -> inc flow of urine in kidneys
  • Loop diuretic, inhibits Na^+/K^+/Cl^- transporters
  • Loss of Na^+/K^+/Cl^- + water in urine, excretion of Ca^2+/Mg^2+/H^+ increased
  • Rapid onset effect (10 min after IV), short duration of action
  • Renal failure
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43
Q

Famciclovir

A
  • Antiviral prodrug
  • V expensive
  • FHV-1 keratitis; corneal sequestrum
  • Expensive
  • Cat flu (FHV - mainly, DNA virus)
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44
Q

Remdesivir and GS-441524

A
  • Antiviral
  • FIP
  • Remdesivir = 10 mg/mL
  • GS-441524 = 50 mg tablets - can be crushed + divided
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45
Q

Metronidazole

A
  • AB
  • Chronic D+/chronic enteropathy (IBD) (cats - not AB responsive)
  • Clostridium perfringens (cat)
  • Maybe giardia
  • Category D AB - antibiotic responsive diarrhoea
  • Bactericidal for Gram +ve / Gram –ve anaerobes
  • Inhibits nucleic acid function by preventing DNA repair
  • At high doses antiprotozoal – used for Giardia infection
  • Appears to modulate the immune system – beneficial in ARD (IBD)
  • (Doxycyclines + tetracyclines preferred)
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46
Q

Tylosin

A
  • AB
  • Chronic D+/chronic enteropathy (IBD) (cats - not AB responsive)
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47
Q

Oxytetracycline

A
  • Chronic D+/chronic enteropathy (IBD) (cats - not AB responsive)
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48
Q

Rifampicin

A
  • Macrolide AB
  • Mycobacterial infection - Mycobacterium avium complex, leprosy
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49
Q

Clarithromycin

A
  • Macrolide AB
  • Mycobacterial infection
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50
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone AB
  • Mycobacterial infection
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51
Q

Ronidazole

A
  • Anti-protozoal
  • Tritrichomonas fetus (blagburni) protozoa (cat)
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52
Q

Maropitant

A
  • Anti-emetic
  • NK1 receptor antagonist
  • 24 h action
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53
Q

Ondansetron

A
  • Anti-emetic
  • Anti-serotonergic (5-HT)
  • Prescribing cascade (not licensed in animals, only humans), expensive, third line (when metoclopramide/maropitant not tolerated)
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54
Q

Metoclopromide

A
  • Pro-kinetic + anti-emetic
  • Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist at CRTZ
  • Increases ACh release in upper GI tract
  • Useful for preventing gastro-oesophageal reflux & promoting gastric emptying (acts on smooth muscles for contraction), not used for constipation (no effect on lower GIT)
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55
Q

Sucralfate

A
  • Gastric protectant
  • Mucosal-protectant
  • Complex which reacts with stomach acid to form a paste, binds to proteins in ulcers forming protective barrier, stimulates PGE2 secretion
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56
Q

Omeprazole

A
  • Gastric protectant
  • Acid blocker, go-to drug - highly effective
  • Suppresses stomach acid secretion
  • Proton pump inhibitor
  • GI signs in chronic renal failure
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57
Q

Ranitidine

A
  • Gastric protectant
  • General effect
  • Rabbit - ileus
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58
Q

Famotidine

A
  • Gastric protectant
  • H2 blocker
  • GI signs in chronic renal failure
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59
Q

Methadone

A
  • Opioid
  • μ Receptor agonist
  • Dogs, cats
  • 10 - 15 min IV, 20 - 30 min IM onset
  • 4 hrs duration
  • Strong analgesic
  • NMDA antagonist
    (Morphine has same effects)
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60
Q

Pethidine

A
  • Opioid
  • μ Receptor agonist
  • Dogs, cats, horses
  • <10 min IM onset
  • 2 hrs duration
  • Moderate analgesic
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61
Q

Fentanyl

A
  • Opioid
  • μ Agonist
  • Dogs
  • 1 - 2 min IV onset
  • 20 min duration
  • Very strong analgesic
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62
Q

Buprenorphine

A
  • Opioid
  • μ Partial agonist
  • Dogs, cats, horses
  • 45 - 60 min IM/IV onset
  • q 6 - 8 hrs dogs + cats; 12 - - 24 hrs horse duration
  • Moderate analgesia
  • Can be give PO, e.g. during 1 w of ‘wash-out’ period of changing NSAIDs
  • Breakthrough pain in chronic pain
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63
Q

Butorphanol

A
  • Opioid
  • μ Agonist / κ agonist
  • Dogs, cats, horses
  • 5 - 15 min IM/IV onset
  • 0.5 - 6 hrs duration
  • Mild analgesic - after procedure
  • Use more for sedation, cannot top-up
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64
Q

Atipamezole

A
  • Alpha-2 adrenoreceptor antagonist
  • Licensed reversible of all effects for medetomidine/dexmedetomidine
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65
Q

Naloxone

A
  • Opioid reversal
  • Overdose
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66
Q

Adrenaline

A
  • Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle -> vasoconstriction -> inc aortic diastolic pressure -> inc coronary perfusion pressure (CPP) + inc cerebral perfusion
  • CPA - speeds up heart
  • Low dose = 0.01 mg/kg
  • High dose = 0.1 mg/kg
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67
Q

Atropine

A
  • Inhibits muscarinic actions of Ach on structures innervated by postganglionic cholinergic nerves + smooth mm. -> inhibition of parasympathetic NS -> inc HR, bronchodilation, dec GI + resp secretions
  • CPA - when inc vagal tone (dec HR, dec BP, hyperthermic) = ocular Sx, brachycephalics
  • Max two doses in CPR
  • Antidote for cholinesterase inhibitors - given to Tx symptoms in surgery, dries up salivation, reverse bronchoconstriction
  • Also used for bradyarrhythmia
  • Reverses excess vagal activity, Tx for bradyarrhythmia
  • Peripheral + central antimuscarinic effects, depresses vagus -> inc HR
  • If due to glycoside toxicity, withdraw/reduce dose
  • Pacemaker implantation
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68
Q

Lidocaine

A
  • Antidysrrhythmic class I
  • Block Na^+ channels
  • Rapid onset, IV bolus short duration (10-15 min), CRI
  • Ventricular tachyarrhythmias dogs, cats, horses
  • Cats more sensitive to neurotoxic effects
  • Don’t use lidocaine + adrenaline solution in combo - counterproductive (adrenaline speeds up heart)
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69
Q

Apomorphine

A
  • Emetic
  • Dopamine (D2) agonist
  • Stimulates CRTZ
  • Dogs
  • Dec absorption of toxins/GI decontamination
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70
Q

Ropinirole

A
  • Emetic
  • Drops into conjunctival sac then wash out eye when want to stop V+
  • Dog
  • Dec absorption of toxins/GI decontamination
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71
Q

Xylazine

A
  • Alpha-2 agonist
  • Sedative (high dose)
  • Low dose = emetic, dec absorption of toxins/GI decontamination (cat)
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72
Q

Dexmedetomidine

A
  • Alpha-2 agonist
  • Sedative
  • Dec absorption of toxins/GI decontamination (cat)
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73
Q

Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

A
  • Dec absorption of toxins/GI decontamination
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74
Q

Activated charcoal

A
  • Improves elimination/avoids reabsorption of toxins
  • Powder better
  • Makes faeces black
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75
Q

Lactulose, Sorbitol

A
  • Laxative
  • Improves elimination/avoids reabsorption of toxins
  • Fermented in the large intestine to acetate and
    lactate with consequent osmotic laxative effect.
  • Adjusted based on individual response
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76
Q

Antivenom

A
  • Antidotes - snakes + spiders
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77
Q

Bisphosphonates

A
  • Toxin antidote - VitD3/cholecalciferol
  • Chelating agent for heavy metals
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78
Q

Fomepizole/ethanol

A
  • Toxin antidote
  • Ethylene glycol
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79
Q

Vit K1

A
  • Toxin antidote
  • Anticoagulant rodenticide
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80
Q

Acetylcysteine

A
  • Toxin antidote
  • Supports liver
  • Paracetamol toxicity
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81
Q

Diazepam

A
  • Muscle termor + seizure management
  • Mycotoxicosis
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82
Q

Methocarbamol

A
  • Muscle relaxant for muscle tremors
  • Can be given rectally
  • Organophosphate, carbamate, pyrethroid, metaldehyde toxicity
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83
Q

Intravenous lipid emulsions (ILE)

A
  • Trap for lipophilic toxins -> dec free substance in circulation
  • Organophosphates, carbamates, permethrin, macrolytic lactones - ivermectin, marijuana, lidocaine, NSAIDs, bromethalin, amphetamine, amlodipine, phenobarbital
  • 1.5 mL/kg bolus followed by 0.25 to 0.5 mL/kg/minute constant-rate infusion
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84
Q

Mannitol

A
  • Diuretic - inc blood flow to kidneys
  • Acute renal failure
  • Osmotic diuretic - hyperosmotic agent
  • IV over 20 min
  • Glaucoma
  • (Reduced efficacy in uveitis due to breakdown of blood aq barrier)
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85
Q

Atenolol / metoprolol

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class II
  • Beta 1-adrenoceptor selective antagonists (beta-blockers)
  • Competitive antagonists of noradrenaline + adrenaline, reduce O2 consumption, slow HR and improve filling
  • Hypertrophic myopathy in cats
  • Avoid in patients w/ CHF
  • To dec high BP
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86
Q

Propranolol

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class II
  • Beta 1 and 2 (mixed) - adrenoceptor antagonist (beta-blockers)
  • Competitive antagonists of noradrenaline + adrenaline, reduce O2 consumption, slow HR and improve filling
  • Hypertrophic myopathy in cats
  • Avoid in patients w/ CHF
  • Not used anymore as beta-2 receptors in lungs + is non-selective
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87
Q

Sotalol

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class III
  • Prolong cardiac action potential through blockade of K^+ channels, inc refractory period in all cardiac tissues
  • (+ Has non-selective class II actions)
  • Chronic treatment of ventricular + supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
  • Avoid in CHF (class II actions)
  • Monitor plasma levels
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88
Q

Amiodarone

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class III
  • Prolong cardiac action potential through blockade of K^+ channels, inc refractory period in all cardiac tissues
  • (+ class I, II, IV actions)
  • Slow + variable GI absorption, slow onset action
  • Variable efficacy, high freq of non-cardiac effects, only use when other agents ineffective
  • Monitor plasma levels
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89
Q

Diltiazem

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class IV
  • Ca^2+ channel blocker - negative inotrope (dec myocardial contractibility), slows conduction in SA + AV nodes, vasodilation -> dec BP
  • Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias, atrial tachycardia, flutter, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) in cats
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90
Q

Verapamil

A
  • Antidysrhythmia class IV
  • Ca^2+ channel blocker - negative inotrope (dec myocardial contractibility), slows conduction in SA + AV nodes, vasodilation
  • Second choice
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91
Q

Digoxin

A
  • Antidysrhythmic agent
  • Dec HR by reducing freq of SA node firing + inhibiting AV nodal conduction
  • Treats atrial fibrillation
  • Narrow therapeutic window, may cause excessively low HR
  • Cats more sensitive to toxic effects than dogs
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92
Q

Pimobendan

A
  • Inodilator - positive inotropic effect + vasodilatory action -> dec cardiac preload + afterload
  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE) III inhibitor - can inc intracellular Ca^2+ + myocardial oxygenation
  • Direct action on heart may be reduced in dogs w/ heart disease
  • Vasodilation occurs by activity at periphery
  • Mitral valve disease, preclinical DCM + CHF secondary to DCM
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93
Q

Dobutamine

A
  • Inc myocardial contraction - direct acting synthetic catecholamine w/ direct beta-1 adrenergic agonist effects = positive inotropic
  • Hypotension during anaesthesia - inc contractibility of heart w/o vasoconstriction, direct beta-1 adrenergic agonist = positive inotrope, increases BP
  • Potent + short acting - CRI
  • Produces less tachycardia compared to other beta-1 agonists
  • Emergencies for acute HF
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94
Q

Benazepril / enalapril

A
  • AKA Fortekor
  • ACE inhibitors - vasodilation, reduce BP
  • Dec proteinuria
  • Manage hypertension, CHF, CKD
  • Usually combined w/ other drugs
  • Hypertensive retinopathy
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95
Q

Telmisartan

A
  • Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARBs) -> dec BP
  • AKA Semintra (go-to)
  • Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)
  • BID then SID
  • Chronic renal failure - hypertension + proteinuria
  • Cats
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96
Q

Furosemide

A
  • Loop diuretic, inhibits Na^+/K^+/Cl^- transporters
  • Loss of Na^+/K^+/Cl^- + water in urine, excretion of Ca^2+/Mg^2+/H^+ increased
  • CHF
  • Rapid onset effect (10 min after IV), short duration of action
  • Diuretic (urinate out extra fluid), alleviates vol overload, IV/CRI
  • Oliguric/anuric renal failure
  • Acute kidney injury
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97
Q

Torasemide

A
  • Loop diuretic, inhibits Na^+/K^+/Cl^- transporters
  • Loss of Na^+/K^+/Cl^- + water in urine, excretion of Ca^2+/Mg^2+/H^+ increased
  • Longer duration of action (once daily), angry cats
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98
Q

Spironolactone

A
  • Diuretic, aldosterone receptor antagonist - binds competitively w/ mineral corticoid receptor in kidneys, heart + blood vv
  • K^+ sparing diuretic - dec extracellular vol -> dec cardiac preload + left atrial pressure
  • Inhibits aldosterone-mediated fibrosis + remodelling of myocardium + vasculature
  • CHF (hypokalemia) + can be combined w/ other drugs
  • Feline hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
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99
Q

Chlorothiazide / hydrochlorothiazide

A
  • Thiazide diuretics - bind to Cl^- site of distal tubular Na^+/Cl^- co-transport system -> loss of Na^+ + Cl^- in urine
  • 2nd/3rd line in end-stage HF (continued use -> disproportionate Cl^- loss -> acid-base disturbances + hypokalaemia
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100
Q

Amlodipine

A
  • Calcium channel blockers - in vascular smooth muscle, class IV antidysrhythmic drug
  • Anti-hypertensive in cats + dogs
  • Gradual onset + slow waning effect, slow binding + dissociation from channel
  • Little reflex tachycardia occurrence = safe drug long-term use in hypertension
  • Once daily dosage
  • One dose every 24 h, can double dose if no response
  • Chronic renal failure - hypertension, causes peripheral vasodilation
  • Hypertensive retinopathy
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101
Q

Butorphanol / codeine

A
  • Antitussive - dec freq of coughing, painful non-productive/where coughing -> emphysema/inc intracranial pressure (dry cough)
  • Suppress medullary cough centre
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102
Q

Bromhexine (dembrexine)

A
  • Decongestant / mucolytic - inc secretion of fluid
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103
Q

Salbutamol / terbutaline

A
  • Bronchodilator - beta-adrenoceptor agonist -> inc cyclic AMP -> relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles
  • Tx of bronchospasm in inflammatory airway disease + irritation in cats + dogs
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104
Q

Theophylline

A
  • Bronchodilator - methylxanthine, similar structure to caffeine + theobromine, relaxes smooth muscle + relieves bronchospasm, stimulant effect on respiration
  • Dilates coronary aa. + inc strength of contraction of myocardium; acts on kidney to induce diuresis + potent stimulant of CNS
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105
Q

Prednisolone / dexamethasone

A
  • Oral glucocorticoids - inhibit transcription of genes responsible for production of mediators convolved in airway inflammation (cytokines, chemokines, adhesion molecules)
  • Manage exacerbations + establish control
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106
Q

Beclomethasone / fluticasone

A
  • Inhaler glucocorticoid - inhibit transcription of genes responsible for production of mediators involved in airway inflammation (cytokines, chemokines, adhesion molecules)
  • Maintain patients on inhaled
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107
Q

Methylprednisolone

A
  • Prolonged release glucocorticoid steroid
  • Useful for cats with asthma
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108
Q

Penicillins / cephalosporins

A
  • E.g. Amoxicillin - broad-spectrum, systemic penicillin effective against Gram +ve and Gram -ve bacteria, inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Clavulanate potassium = irreversible inhibitor of bacterial β-lactamases and prevents hydrolysis of amoxicillin
  • Streptococcal meningitis (S. suis I)
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109
Q

Oxytetracycline / doxycycline

A
  • Tetracycline - inhibit protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria - bacteriostatic
  • Broad spectrum activity - gram +ive + gram -ive bacteria - Pasteurella, Bordetella bronchiseptica, Staphylococcus aureus (+ other staph spp.) + streptococcus spp.
  • Good lung penetration
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110
Q

Trimethoprim

A
  • Folate antagonist – bacteriostatic
  • Often combined with sulphonamides – ‘TMPS’ - bactericidal
  • Combination has broad spectrum of activity, effective against Gram +ve and Gram -ve bacteria, including Streptococci, Staphylocci and Pneumococci spp)
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111
Q

Itraconazole (voriconazole / fluconazole)

A
  • Antifungals - belong to azole class of antifungals
  • Highly selective binding for fungal cytochrome P-450 isoenzymes, inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol (essential component of cell membranes for fungi
  • Affect membrane-bound enzyme function
    and membrane permeability, resulting in structural degeneration of the fungus
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112
Q

Diazepam, midazolam

A
  • Benzodiazepines - pre-anaesthetic/sedation + anxiolytic + muscle relaxant
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113
Q

Atracurium, vercuronium

A
  • Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs)
  • ACh antagonists, produce motor paralysis, muscles cannot contract
  • Reversed using anticholinesterases e.g. neostigmine, pyridostigmine
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114
Q

Suxamethonium

A
  • Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs), depolarising agent
  • ACh receptor agonist - not metabolised by acetylcholinesterase -> end plate cannot repolarise = irreversible
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115
Q

Glucosamine, chondroitin sulfate, antioxidants, EFAs

A
  • Neutraceuticals, arthritis
  • Component of cartilage, counter potentially damaging oxidants, weak anti-inflam properties
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116
Q

Polymixin B

A
  • Binds to phospholipids in bacterial cytoplasmic mem + disrupts mem
  • Bactericidal, G -ive bacteria
  • Last resort category, B
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117
Q

Beclomethasone

A
  • Anti-fungal
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118
Q

Grapiprant

A
  • Non-steroidal, non-cyclooxygenase inhibiting anti-inflammatory drug
  • Selective antagonist of the EP4 receptor - important in editing pain + inflammation
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119
Q

Pentosan polysulfate sodium (NaPPS)

A
  • Semi-synthetic polymer with anti-inflammatory properties - lameness/DJD pain/OA in dogs
  • Reduces metalloproteinases, preserving proteoglycan content and protecting cartilage matrix from degradation
  • E.g. Cartrophen
  • Duration of effect variable – max 3 courses of 4 injections in 12 months
  • Concurrent use with steroids and NSAIDs contraindicated (risk of bleeding due to combined effects on platelet aggregation)
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120
Q

Bedinvetmab / frunevetmab

A
  • Anti-NGF monoclonal antibody therapy
  • Nerve growth factor (NGF) increases inflammatory mediators and stimulates nociceptors
  • Bedinvetmab = a canine monoclonal antibody (mAb)
  • Frunevetmab = a felinised mAb targeting NGF
  • For long-term management of OA pain (not acute pain)
  • Do not use in young animals (under 12 months) – critical role in development – or in pregnant or lactating animals (potentially teratogenic and foetotoxic)
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121
Q

Paracetamol

A
  • NSAID with analgesic and antipyretic but weak anti-inflammatory (not long-term)
  • MoA not clear - seems to have specific activity for the CNS COX enzyme, COX3 (few GI effects), may also reduce conduction in pain sensory neurones (action through TRPA1 ion channel)
  • When NSAIDs cannot be used
  • Careful with the dose in dogs – no veterinary product licensed, DO NOT USE IN CATS (do not have enzyme for metabolism)
  • Oral w/ codeine
  • Dog dose = 10 mg/kg PO (or IV) q 12 h
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122
Q

Tramadol

A
  • Centrally acting analgesic with complex, weak opioid
  • Mechanism of action involving opioid, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors - reuptake inhibition
  • Weak Mu opioid receptor agonist, synthetic analogue of codeine
  • Oral - capsules/tablets
  • Onset 1 - 4 h
  • Management of mild to moderate acute pain + adjunctive analgesic in management of chronic arthritic pain
  • Sedation at high doses, dysphoria more likely in cats
  • Can be combined with other classes of analgesics - not as effective in dogs due to differences in metabolism - prefer Amantadine
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123
Q

Gabapentin / Pregabalin

A
  • Analogue of the neurotransmitter GABA (GABA-A receptors control inhibitory of signalling), treatment of neuropathic pain
  • Suppress glutamate + substance P release, interacts w/ neuronal Ca2+ channels, reduced depolarisation of mem of dorsal horn
  • Cats - chronic pain
  • Oral capsules
  • Onset > 3 d
  • MoA of its analgesic effect is unknown
  • Start with a low dose and increase slowly
  • May cause mild sedation and ataxia
    Withdraw therapy slowly too (potential for rebound pain shown in humans)
  • E.g. Neurontin
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124
Q

L-deprenyl (Selegiline)

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, inc noradrenaline and dopamine, neuroprotective functions: improves memory & longevity; anxiety/social withdraw
  • Dogs 0.5-1mg/kg PO SID;
  • Cats 1mg/kg PO SID (not licensed)
  • At least 4 weeks before positive effect may be seen (typically 8 weeks)
  • Monoamine oxidase-increased cognitive function disorders
  • For cognitive dysfunc
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125
Q

Amantadine

A
  • Glutamate + NMDA receptor antagonist, not first-line
  • For OA
  • Oral - syrup or tablets
  • Onset 4 - 6 w
  • Excreted by kidneys
  • Blocks excitatory signals in the CNS (mechanism similar to ketamine)
  • Used in multimodal treatment for progressive moderate-severe OA pain and for pain relief in osteosarcoma - hyperalgesia (central sensitisation)
  • Can increase risk of seizures when used in combination with tramadol
  • Not first line - not licensed in vet species
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126
Q

Sodium levothyroxine - soloxine, thyrforon

A
  • T4 supplement tablet
  • Canine hypothyroidism (Addison’s), feline hypothyroidism
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127
Q

Carbimazole, methimazole, thiamazole

A
  • Thioreylenes - inhibit oxidation of iodide and organification of iodide + coupling of iodothyronines to form T3 + T4
  • Anti-thyroid hormone production
  • Feline hyperthyroidism
128
Q

Trilostane (Vetoryl)

A
  • Affects production of glucocorticoids, reversibly blocks adrenal synthesis of glucocorticoids (+ mineralocorticoids + sex hormones), dec cortisol
  • Risk of iatrogenic hypocortisolaemia (Addison’s due to overdose); unmasking arthritis
  • Canine hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s) - canine pit + adrenal-dependent
129
Q

Hydrocortisone sodium succinate (Solu-Cortef)

A
  • Balanced glucocorticoid + weak mineralocorticoid action, IVFT
  • Canine hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s), acute collapsed
130
Q

Carprofen (Rimadyl)

A
  • NSAID
  • Weak inhibitor of COX
  • Anti-inflam, analgesic + anti-pyretic
  • COX-3 inhibitor (= COX-1 in CNS)
131
Q

Meloxicam

A
  • NSAID
  • COX-2 selective
  • Dog, cat, horse, cattle, pig, guinea pig
  • Can be used preoperatively in small animals
132
Q

Robenacoxib

A
  • NSAID
  • Coxib (COX-2 inhibitor)
  • Dog, cat
  • Can be used preoperatively in small animals, short plasma half-life despite prolonged duration of effect (accumulates in inflammatory exudates)
133
Q

Firocoxib (Previcox)

A
  • NSAID
  • Coxib (COX-2 inhibitor)
  • Dog, horse
  • Can be used preoperatively in dogs but only oral preparation available
134
Q

Mavacoxib (Trocoxil)

A
  • NSAID
  • Coxib (COX-2 inhibitor)
  • Dog
  • Very long plasma half-life permits monthly dosing, but longer-lasting side effects
135
Q

PLT

A
  • Prednisolone = corticosteroid
  • Cinchophen = NSAID
  • Oral - tablets
  • Cheap
  • Chronic pain - osteoarthritis
  • Not advised - shouldn’t mix corticosteroids + NSAIDS
136
Q

Dogs = bedinvetmab (Librela, Zoetis); Cats = frunevetmab (Solensia, Zoetis)

A
  • Anti-NGF (nerve growth factor) monoclonal Ab therapy
  • Chronic pain - osteoarthritis
  • Sensitises nerves, activating immune/inflam cells, contributes to neuronal sprouting in pain
  • Can only be given up to 14 d alongside NSAID, don’t give to animals preg, lactating or intended for breeding (NGF affect developing foetuses)
  • Only approved for OA
137
Q

Polysulfated glycosaminoglycans

A
  • GAGs = provide support + adhesiveness in bone, skin + cartilage
  • Chronic pain, OA
  • UTI, feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC) (have lower GAGs)
  • Prevent attachment of bacteria, line the mucosa of bladder for protection
  • E.g. Cystease food supplement
138
Q

Domperidone

A
  • Anti-emetic in upper GIT, similar MoA to metoclopramide
139
Q

H2O2

A
  • Emetic
  • 3% solution oral alternative
  • Stimulates CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) at pharynx
140
Q

Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine

A
  • Acid blocker
  • Histamine H2 receptor antagonist
  • Decreases stomach acid production
  • Ranitidine recently licensed + evidence more effective than cimetidine
  • Ileus (rabbit)
141
Q

Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, calcium carbonate

A
  • Antacid - acid blocker
  • Not easy to administer
  • Frequent administration - multiple doses per day for effect, duration 1 - 2 hrs
  • Not palatable
142
Q

Misoprostol

A
  • Mucosal-protectant
  • Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue (vasodilation)
  • Ulcers caused by NSAIDs
  • Can cause abortion
143
Q

Mirtazapine

A
  • Appetite stimulant
  • Noradrenaline and serotonergic antagonist with
    appetite-stimulant, anti-emetic and anti-nausea effects
  • Effects typically seen within 30 minutes
  • Trans-dermal ointment - inside pinna, alternate ears when multiple doses
  • Cats + dogs
144
Q

Pro-kolin

A
  • Probiotic
  • Binds to excess liquid
145
Q

Fenbendazole

A
  • Group 1 anthelmintic, benzimidazole (1-BZ, white)
  • Safe for puppies and kittens and lactating bitches/queens
  • Wide therapeutic index
  • Takes time to work = multiple doses
  • Dose puppies/kittens at 2, 5, 8 and 12 weeks of age
146
Q

Triclabendazole

A
  • Group 1 anthelmintic, benzimidazole
  • Differs from other benzimidazoles in that it is a narrow-spectrum anthelmintic
  • Accumulates in both immature and adult stages of fasciola hepatica
  • Only drug effective against early immature fluke i.e. 2 weeks and older, through to adults
147
Q

Closantel and Oxyclozanide

A
  • Group 1 benzimidazole flukicides
  • Adult flukes
148
Q

Nitroxynil

A
  • Group 1 benzimidazole flukicide
  • Late immature stage
149
Q

Levamisole

A
  • Group 2-LV, yellow, imidazothiazole
  • Nicotinic ACh receptor agonist
  • Nematode muscles = rapid reversible spastic paralysis
150
Q

Pyrantel

A
  • Group 2-LV, imidazothiazole
  • Nicotinic ACh receptor agonist
  • Nematode muscles = rapid reversible spastic paralysis
151
Q

Praziquantel

A
  • Narrow-spectrum isoquinoline anthelmintic
  • Causes severe damage to parasite integument
  • Tapeworms
152
Q

Toltrazuril

A
  • Antiprotozoal agent
  • Anticoccidial active against Eimeria spp.
  • Affects fine structure of developmental stages of coccidia
153
Q

Amoxicillin

A
  • Beta-lactam penicillin antibiotic
  • Bactericidal, time-dependent, broad spectrum
  • Primary infections of urogenital tract + lower urinary tract - cats + dogs, ruminants
  • Proprietary = Amoxibactin
  • Class D
154
Q

Doxycycline

A
  • Tetracycline AB
  • Bacteriostatic, time-dependent, broad spectrum
  • Rhinitis, bronchopneumonia - cats + dogs (Bordetella spp. + Pasteurella spp. e.g. Kennel cough)
  • Proprietary = Doxybactin
  • Class D
155
Q

Metronidazole

A
  • Nitroimidazole AB
  • Bactericidal, conc-dependent, broad-spectrum, anti-inflammatory effect
  • Not licensed in food-producing animals; dogs and cats - gastrointestinal infections due to Giardia spp. and Clostridium spp.
  • Proprietary = Metrobactin
  • Class D
156
Q

Gentamicin

A
  • Aminoglycoside AB
  • Bactericidal, conc-dependent, narrow spectrum (G-)
  • Horses systemic - Gram-negative + staphylococcal bacteria in surgically treated colic patients., SA = topical ear infections
  • Proprietary name = Otomax
  • Class C
  • Not safe in rabbits
157
Q

Clindamycin

A
  • Lincosamide antibiotic
  • Bacteriostatic, time-dependent, G+, mycoplasma, later generations G-
  • Wounds and abscesses, infected mouth cavity, dental + skin infections, cats + dogs
  • Proprietary name = Antirobe
  • Class C
  • Not safe in rabbits
158
Q

Enrofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone AB
  • Bactericidal, conc-dependent, narrow spectrum
  • Licensed in exotics (rabbits, rodents, birds + reptiles) e.g. to treat Pseudomonas infection in rabbits, and Pasteurella multocida, Mycoplasma sp., Staphylococcus sp., E. coli, Salmonella
  • Proprietary name = Baytril
  • Class B
159
Q

Acepromazine

A
  • Phenothiazine - sedative, vasodilation -> hypotension, anti-arrhythmic, reduced PCV, reduced platelet count + func
  • Dopamine receptor antagonist, alpha-1 adrenoceptor (neurotransmission) antagonist, histamine receptor (H1) blockade, antithrombotic
  • Hepatic metabolism, renal + biliary excretion
  • 30 - 40 min onset
  • 6 - 8 hours duration
  • IV, IM, PO
160
Q

Medetomidine, dexmedetomidine / detomidine, xylazine / romifidine

A
  • Cats + dogs = medetomidine, dexmedetomidine
  • Cattle + horses = detomidine, xylazine
  • Horses = romifidine
  • Alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonism (inhibits release of norepinephrine + some alpha-1 agonism)
  • Sedative, analgesia, muscle relaxation, vasoconstriction, dec cardiac output, occasional bradyarrhythmias (also, endocrine e.g. diuresis; emesis; sweating in horses)
  • Hepatic metabolism + renal excretion
  • 5 min (peak <20 min) onset
  • 30 - 180 min duration
  • IV, IM, transmucosal
161
Q

Diazepam, midazolam

A
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Enhance action of GABA at GABA A receptors in brain + SC
  • Hepatic metabolism, renal + biliary excretion (active metabolites)
    IV, IM (midazolam only)
  • Anxiolysis -> sedation (unreliable), anticonvulsant (but can be pro-convulsant as active metabolites are only partially metabolised), central muscle relaxation, CVS + resp depression
162
Q

Cisapride

A
  • Gastrointestinal prokinetic
  • Feline iodiopathic megacolon
  • GI stasis - rabbits + herbivorous rodents
163
Q

Propofol

A
  • Injectable anaesthetic
  • GABA A receptor agonist 90% metabolised in liver, 10% outside liver in lungs
  • Used for induction + maintenance
  • Approved in dogs + cats
  • Rate of injection - 3 min for plasma conc to reach effect sites in brain - need to inject propofol slowly in order to minimise the adverse effects, if we do it too fast, by the time we’ve put enough propofol in the patient’s blood to make them anaesthetised -> severe adverse effects, aim to give dose calculated over 2 min
164
Q

Alfaxalone

A
  • Steroid anaesthetic/neuroactive steroid (injectable anaesthetic)
  • GABA A receptor modulation
  • Aqueous solution in cyclodextrins
  • Induction + maintenance of anaesthesia
  • Approved use intravenously
  • Can be used intramuscularly or subcutaneously off licence - good for e.g. aggressive patient, exotics
  • [Maintains resp func]
  • Licence for use in dogs, cats and rabbits
  • Very rapid hepatic metabolism
  • Give calculated dose over 60 seconds
  • Lasts long time - baroreceptor reflex (8 min), for intubation
165
Q

Ketamine

A
  • Dissociative anaesthetic, very different mechanism of action, injectable
  • Aqueous solution
  • pH 3.5
  • Administered intravenously, intramuscularly or via the oral transmucosal route.
  • Approved for use in dogs, cats, cattle, rabbits, sheep, goats, pigs, horses, guinea pigs.
  • Dissociative anaesthetic e.g., Tiletamine, commonly used in North America and continental Europe and in wildlife and zoo medicine
  • Initial onset of ketamine after injection is relatively slow -> give it as a bolus I.V. all in one go as a dose -> 2 min effect.
  • Hepatic metabolism in most species, cat - excreted unchanged in the kidney.
  • Norketamine = active metabolite, important if we’re giving prolonged infusions because they know ketamine can build up
166
Q

Thiopental

A
  • Barbiturate, AKA thiopentone, injectable anaesthetic
  • Not licensed for use in any species in the UK anymore, only used in certain situations
  • Only administered IV - if extravasation -> skin sloughing, presented as aq solution, pH 10, comes as dry powder + add water for injection, once made up, quite stable, store for month w/o bacterial growth
  • Eliminated by hepatic + renal metabolism, really slow in any case
  • Very slow in sight hounds like greyhounds -> very prolonged recovery
  • Very rapid onset time of 20 to 40 seconds after IV injection
167
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine (TMPS)

A
  • Antibiotic - combination
  • Bactericidal, time-dependent, broad spectrum
  • Infections of URT, urogenital, wound infections in horses
  • Proprietary = Equibactin
  • Class D
168
Q

Sulfatrim

A
  • AB combo: sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
  • GIT, urogenital system, respiratory tract and septicemias caused by Gram positive, Gram negative bacteria and protozoa
  • Licensed in rabbits = first-line AB
169
Q

Clenbuterol

A
  • Beta-2 adrenoreceptor agonist -> bronchodilation w/ minimum effect on CVS
  • Stimulates mucociliary clearance in horses, where airway obstruction to bronchospasm/accumulation of mucus
170
Q

Sodium cromoglycate

A
  • Mast cell stabiliser, inhibits mast cell degranulation of histamine on antigen challenge
  • Not for acute use, has no intrinsic activity of bronchial dilation
  • Weak anti-inflam, short duration of action; reduces bronchial hyper-reactivity
  • Prophylactic therapy for allergic resp disease in horses
171
Q

Azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, cyclosporin, chlorambucil

A
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Co-admin w/ glucocorticoids - steroid sparing to dec steroid dose + effects
  • Azathioprine - don’t give to cats
  • Immune-mediated diseases e.g. IMHA
  • Chlorambucil = Chemo, Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
172
Q

Dexamethasone

A
  • Potent corticosteroid and immunosuppressant
  • IMHA
  • If inappetent
173
Q

Aspirin

A
  • NSAID, antiplatelet
  • Inhibits platelet thromboxane A2 synthesis - reduced platelet activation
  • AE: GI ulceration + irritation; caution in renal disease
174
Q

Clopidogrel

A
  • Antiplatelet
  • Prodrug - inhibits P2Y12 (an ADP-activated GPCR on platelets)
  • Can be given w/ aspirin
  • AE: Caution in hepatic + renal disease, has bad taste
  • Dec risk of thromboembolism
175
Q

Prednisolone

A
  • Oral glucocorticoid
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Companion animals
  • Can be given w/ azathioprine (not cats), cyclophosphamide, cyclosporin, chlorambucil adjuvant agents
  • Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IMHA); Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia (IMTP); eosinophilia; leukaemia
  • (Give gastroprotective therapy - e.g. H2 antagonist or omeprazole)
  • AE: Care w/ giving for hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, high dose may shut adrenal glands down -> dec steroid production; may antagonise effect of insulin
  • Contraindicated: pregnant animals, diabetes mellitus, renal insufficiency, corneal ulceration, alongside live vaccines
176
Q

Dexamethasone

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Glucocorticoid
  • IV/IM
  • Horses
  • Can be given w/ azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, cyclosporin, chlorambucil adjuvant agents
  • Immune-mediated disease; inflam skin conditions; blood transfusion (hypersensitivity/anaphylactic) reaction
  • AE: Care w/ giving for hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, high dose may shut adrenal glands down -> dec steroid production; may antagonise effect of insulin; contradicted use alongside NSAIDs
  • Contraindicated: pregnant animals, diabetes mellitus, renal insufficiency, corneal ulceration, alongside live vaccines
177
Q

Tranexamic acid

A
  • Prevents plasminogen activation, dec fibrinolysis + inc clot strength
  • Hyperfibrinolysis in greyhounds, used before Sx procedures
178
Q

Mycophenolate

A
  • Immunosuppressive agent
  • Steroid responsive meningitis arteritis; meningoencephalomyelitis unknown origin (MUO); myasthenia gravis
179
Q

Leflunomide

A
  • Immunosuppressive agent
  • Steroid responsive meningitis arteritis; meningoencephalomyelitis unknown origin (MUO); myasthenia gravis
180
Q

Cytosine arabinoside (cytarabine)

A
  • Immunosuppressive agent = low-dose radiotherapy to brain, chemo
  • Meningoencephalomyelitis unknown origin (MUO); possible lymphoma
  • Check haem + biochem prior to admin + 7d after injection if unwell
181
Q

Dexamethasone, prednisolone

A
  • Corticosteroids - cross BBB, prevent oedema + inflam
  • Simple immunosuppression in CNS diseases, listeria meningoencephalitis; myasthenia gravis
  • AE - can cause abortion due to high fever
182
Q

Azathioprine

A
  • Immunosuppressive, alternative to mycophenolate
  • Not in cats
  • Myasthenia gravis
183
Q

Lomustine

A

Immunosuppressive
- Meningoencephalomyelitis unknown origin (MUO); possible lymphoma
- Check haem + bichem prior to admin + 7d after injection if unwell

184
Q

Minocycline

A
  • AB
  • Reduces neuro-inflam
  • For neuronal ceroid-lipofuscinoses (NCL) (seizures, visual loss, cognitive function deficits, difficulties eating)
185
Q

Oral magnesium sulfate /IV EDTA

A
  • Precipitates lead in GIT
  • Lead intoxication
186
Q

Vinegar

A
  • w/ oral fluids to relive bloat
  • Urea intoxication
187
Q

Thiamine/Vit B1

A
  • Sulfur intoxication, CCN (polioencephalomalacia/cerebrocortical necrosis)
188
Q

Pyridostimine bromide (mestinon)

A
  • Anticholinesterase
  • Titrated slowly to effect, CRI
  • Myasthenia gravis
189
Q

Neostigmine

A
  • Anticholinesterase - improves muscle tone by preventing ACh attaching to receptors, muscle is less able to tighten
  • SQ - shorter-acting
  • Myasthenia gravis
190
Q

L-deprenyl (Selegiline)

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, inc noradrenaline and dopamine, neuroprotective functions: improves memory & longevity; anxiety/social withdraw
  • Dogs O.5 - 1mg/kg PO SID;
  • Cats 1mg/kg PO SID (not licensed)
  • At least 4 weeks before positive effect may be seen (typically 8 weeks)
  • Monoamine oxidase-increased cognitive function disorders
191
Q

Propentofylline

A
  • Neuroprotection - increases the molecular signal adenosine, improves cerebral blood flow, glial cell modulator: stimulates astrocytes (protect nerve cells from inflammatory mediators, free radicals + glutamate), depresses microglial cells (inflam cells)
  • Not licensed in cats
  • Cognitive decline
  • Peripheral idiopathic vestibular disease
192
Q

Melatonin, Alprazolam

A
  • Sundown syndrome/sleep disorder
193
Q

Dexdomitor

A
  • Sedative - reduces muscle spasm + brain metabolic requirements
  • Stupor/coma mangement
194
Q

Prazosin

A
  • Alpha-adrenergenic antagonist (smooth muscle relxant), reduces internal sphincter tone)
  • Neurogenic bladder - relax urinary sphincter + express bladder 20 - 30 min after admin (UMN relaxation)
  • Caution renal disease
  • Monitor BP
195
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A
  • Alpha-adrenergenic antagonist (smooth muscle relaxant), reduces internal sphincter tone)
  • Neurogenic bladder - relax urinary sphincter + express bladder 20 - 30 min after admin (UMN relaxation)
  • Expensive
  • AE: hypotension, CNS, GI effects
196
Q

Diazepam

A
  • Skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Neurogenic bladder - relax urinary sphincter + express bladder 20 - 30 min after admin (UMN relaxation)
  • Caution in cats (liver failure)
197
Q

Bethanechol

A
  • Promotes detrusor activity (only works if there is already some detrusor activity present), so not used often
  • Cholinergic agent
  • Neurogenic bladder - only when no urethral spasm/outflow obstruction (not for UMN bladder in T/L spinal disease)
  • AE:s salivation, lacrimation, cholinergic crisis
198
Q

Phenylpropanolamine (incurin)

A
  • Sympathomimetic
  • Sphincter mechanism incompetence (leakage of urine during storage) - e.g. neuromuscular disease in male dogs (polymyositis)/older female spayed dogs -> inc contractions
  • AEs: restlessness, irritability, hypertension, anorexia
199
Q

Imepitoin (pexion)

A
  • Short half-life (1.5h), steady state in 3 day
  • Targeted action (binds when GABA present synapse (partial agonist) -> opens ion channel -> ions enter to balance out +ive ions)
  • No therapeutic monitoring (no blood monitoring) but need to ensure that dose is therapeutic (serum)
  • Less adverse effects: sedation, hepatoxicity, PUPD, polyphagia
  • Anxiolytic effect; epilepsy/seizure
200
Q

L-carnitine

A
  • Non-specific mitochondrial disease Tx, useful for metabolic brain disease
  • Neuronal ceroid-lipidfuscinoses (NCL)
201
Q

Mannitol

A
  • Improves cerebral blood flow; free radical scavenger; reverses blood-brain osmotic gradient; reduces extracellular fluid; lowers blood viscosity
  • AE: repeated administration can result in hyperosmolar state and lead to acute renal failure, maybe give 30 - 60 min post furosemide
  • Vasogenic cerebral oedema - brain tumour, coma
  • Osmolar substance, give IV over 30 - 60 min
  • E.g. Hepatic encephalopathy
202
Q

KBr

A
  • Bromide - more likely to cross channel instead of Cl- dec positive charger (polarise)
  • Can be used in combo w/ PB/Imepitoin
  • Seizures
  • AEs: sedation, GI irritation - megaoesophagus, inc dietary salt, takes 4 - 6m to become stable, PUPD, pancreatitis - affects Cl- channels -> chronic D+, neurological/NM deficits
203
Q

Phenobarbital

A
  • Epilepsy control
  • AEs: initial sedation, inc appetite, hepatotoxicity, PUPD
204
Q

Phenylephrine

A
  • Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist used to treat hypotension dilate the pupil, and induce local vasoconstriction
  • Vasopressor
205
Q

Noradrenaline

A

Vasopressor - causes vasconstriction to correct hypotension

206
Q

Cyclophosphamide (cytoxan), doxorubicin (adriamycin), vincristine (oncovin), prednisolone, L-asparaginase (CHOP)

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Canine + feline lymphoma
207
Q

Vitamin K (e.g. Konakion MM, phytomenadione)

A
  • Co-factor in gamma-carboxylation of F II, VII, IX and X
  • SC/PO
  • Vitamin K-dependent coagulopathies (bleeding disorders): vit K deficiency 2y to pancreatic deficiency, rodenticide poisoning
208
Q

Heparin & low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs)

A
  • Glycosaminoglycans present in mast cells
  • Extracted from beef/pig
  • Inhibit coagulation by increasing affinity of antithrombin III to thrombin + other protease enzymes in coagulation cascade
  • Heparin IV/SC (not IM - causes hematomas)
  • LMWHs SC
  • Promotion of anticoagulation: maintenance of IV catheter placement (heparin), prevention of 2y thromboembolic disease, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) (controversial)
  • AE: haemorrhage (stop, give antagonist for heparin = protamin sulfate); heparin-induced thrombocytopenia; interacts w/ other drugs affecting coagulation e.g. aspirin/NSAIDs; may antagonise corticosteroids/insulin -> may inc diazepam levels
209
Q

Ciclosporin

A
  • Immunosuppressive but not cytotoxic (like azathioprine and chlorambucil)
  • Inhibits calcineurin -> dec signalling of inflam cytokine IL-2 and dec T-cell proliferation/activity, inhibits APC in skin, inhibits degranulation of mast cells and release histamine
  • Chronic allergic dermatitis (cats); atopic dermatitis (dogs)
  • Give 2 h prior / after food to prevent fast absorption w/ food
  • AE: Well-tolerated + uncommon in dogs; cats = common: GI signs (V+/D+/anorexia/hypersalivation), lethargy, weight loss, lymphopoenia
  • Plasma conc lowered by anticonvulsants + some ABs; drugs that inhibit/induce cytochrome p450 interfere w/ conc; use w/ aminoglycoside AB/trimethoprim -> inc nephrotoxicity
  • Contraindicated: Hx of malignant disorders, live vaccination (2 w before/after); diabetic dogs, w/ other immunosuppressive agents; dogs <6 m, cats w/ FeLV or FIV
210
Q

Apoquel (oclacitinib)

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor
  • Inhbits func of cytokines dependent on JAK enzyme activity - esp. IL-31
  • Dogs: pruritus, atopic dermatitis
211
Q

Cytopoint (Lokivetmab)

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Caninised monoclonal antibody (mAb), targets canine interleukin-31
  • Dogs: pruritus, atopic dermatitis
  • Alternative to Apoquel
212
Q

Azathioprine

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Cytotoxic - inhibits purine synthesis -> impacts DNA & RNA synthesis; inhibits clonal proliferation during induction phase of immune response (cell- and antibody-mediated)
  • AE: BM suppression; GI upset/anorexia, poor hair growth, acute pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity; caution use in renal impairment/hepatic disease
  • Not recommended for cats - low in enzyme which metabolises azathioprine so prone to toxicity (fatal leukopenia/thrombocytopenia)
213
Q

Chlorambucil

A
  • Immunosuppressant (not v well characterised in companion animals)
  • Small cell alimentary lymphoma; IMHA
  • Cytotoxic - alkylating agent which cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, impeding replication
  • AE: BM suppression, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, poor hair growth, neurotoxicity and seizures reported (rare)
214
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • Cytotoxic - alkylating agent which cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, impeding replication
  • AE: BM suppression, V+, D+, poor hair growth, myelosuppression, inc water intake in cats to reduce risk of haemorrhagic cystitis
  • Immune-mediated disease, lymphoma, various cancers
215
Q

Chlorphenamine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • Anaphylactic (hypersensitive) blood transfusion reaction
  • Allergic conjunctivitis
216
Q

Whole blood (fresh/stored)

A
  • Has everything: platelets, all factors
  • Fresh life = 4 h
  • Stored = 28 d
217
Q

Packed RBCs

A
  • Only for anaemia
  • No clotting factors
  • Shelf life = 42 d
218
Q

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

A
  • All factors: fibrinogen (I), II, V, VII, VIII, IX, XI, vWF
  • All coagulopathies: vit K deficiency e.g. rodenticide toxicity; vWD (suspected/confirmed); haemophilia A (VIII) + B (IX); lungworm coagulopathy; factor consumption/poor production (e.g. excessive haemorrhage, liver disease)
  • Shelf life = 1 yr (18 degrees celsius), thaw prior, 5 - 30 mL/kg
  • Initial transfusion rate 0.5 - 1.0 mL/kg/h for 20 - 30 min if no reaction, continue for 4 h
219
Q

Frozen plasma

A
  • II, VII, IX, X, XI, variable others
  • Haemophilia B (IX); vit K deficiency
  • Shelf life = 5 y
  • 10 - 30 mL/kg
220
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A
  • I, VIII, vWF
  • vWD; haemophilia A
  • 6 mL/kg
221
Q

Cryosupernatant

A
  • II, VII, IX, X
  • Vit K deficiency; haemophilia B
222
Q

Imidocarb diproprionate (Imizol)

A
  • Babesiosis (Babesia divergens) + tick control (lower dose)
  • Ruminants
  • Long withdrawal periods for meat (1/2 year)
  • Only licensed Tx
223
Q

Hydroxycarbamide + hydroxyurea

A
  • Chemo -> dec WBC count
  • Hydroxyurea = reversible myelosuppression in in polycythaemia vera
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) (non-lymphoid leukaemia)
224
Q

Melphalan + prednisolone

A
  • Chemo
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Dogs + cats
225
Q

Ampicillin / TMPS (trimethoprim sulfonamide)

A
  • AB
  • UTI
  • Cocci/alkaline urine -> Staph/Strep
  • Rod/alkaline urine -> Proteus
  • Companion animal, (TMPS = first line equine), ruminants
226
Q

Fluoroquinolone

A
  • AB, cephalosporin
  • UTI
  • Rod/acidic urine -> E. coli/Pseudomonas
  • Not first line Tx, but can enter prostate (companion animal)
227
Q

Fusidic acid

A
  • Topical AB cream
  • ‘Sludgy bladder’
  • Rabbits
228
Q

Zinc oxide

A
  • Natural antiseptic, antibacterial, topical
  • ‘Sludgy bladder’
  • Rabbits
229
Q

Rearguard (cyromazine)

A
  • Ectoparasiticide - barrier/prevention of maggots, fly strike
  • Rabbits
230
Q

Albendazole / Fenbendazole

A
  • AB
  • Encephalitozoon cuniculi, prolonged Tx, 30 d
  • Rabbits
231
Q

Prioxicam

A
  • NSAID
  • Management of transitional cell carcinoma (bladder)
  • Dogs
232
Q

Butorphanol / Buprenorphine

A
  • Analgesia, opioids
  • Feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC), esp chronic cases; urethral obstruction
  • Cats
233
Q

Amitriptyline

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressant
  • Feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC), chronic cases
234
Q

Calcium gluconate / Dextrose (or glucose) + insulin

A
  • Protect heart from hyperkalaemia (calcium gluconate)
  • Calcium gluconate - IV, antagonises cardiac effect of hyperkalaemia
  • Dextrose solution = insulin relief
  • Insulin = co-transporter, gets K+ transported w/ insulin into cells)
  • AKI
235
Q

Prazosin / Dantrolene

A
  • Antispasmodics
  • Prazosin - smooth muscle relaxant
  • Dantrolene - skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Act on diff parts of urethra to reduce spasm
  • Urethral obstruction
236
Q

Phosphate binders

A
  • Binds to phosphate in intestinal tract so doesn’t get absorbed
  • Companion animals, if blood phosphate remains high (>1.6 mmol/L)
  • E.g. Pronefra
  • Chronic renal failure
  • Companion animal
237
Q

Potassium supplementation (Kaminox)

A
  • Chronic renal failure - spiked fluids in dehydrated patient, will dec muscular weakness + improve inappetence
  • Companion animal
  • Feline hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
  • Dec CS e.g. ventroflexion, myopathies
238
Q

Calcium gluconate, insulin, glucose, sodium bicarbonate

A
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Calcium gluconate - protects heart, but doesn’t drop K^+
  • Insulin - co-transporter system, carries K^to + into cells
  • Glucose = to give w/ insulin
  • Acute kidney injury
239
Q

Propantheline

A
  • Antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) agent
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, bladder relaxant (detrusor relaxant)
  • Incontinence; restricted bladder filling
240
Q

Imipramine / Amitriptyline

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressant/anxiolytic
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, bladder relaxant (detrusor relaxant)
  • Incontinence; restricted bladder filling
241
Q

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA) (Propalin)

A
  • IUS stimulant - sympathomimetic
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, internal urethral sphincter stimulant (restriction/contraction of internal urethral sphincter)
  • Incontinence - go-to; urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMI); supportive Tx for ectopic ureters
242
Q

Ephedrine (Enurace / Canuphedrin)

A
  • IUS stimulant - sympathomimetic
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, internal urethral sphincter stimulant (restriction/contraction of internal urethral sphincter)
  • Converts in liver to phenylpropanolamine (norephedrine)
  • Incontinence; urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMI)
243
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A
  • IUS stimulant - sympathomimetic
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, internal urethral sphincter stimulant (strengthens contractions of internal urethral sphincter)
  • Incontinence
244
Q

Oestriol (oestrogen) (Incurin)

A
  • IUS stimulant - sensitises adrenergic receptors
  • Bladder storage, sympathetic control, internal urethral sphincter stimulant (restriction/contraction of internal urethral sphincter)
  • Up-regulates adrenoreceptors of urethral sphincter
  • Incontinence (go-to); urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMI)
245
Q

Bethanechol

A
  • Detrusor stimulant
  • Bladder voidance, parasympathetic control, contraction of bladder, urethral sphincter/urethra relaxes
  • Urinary retention (go-to); bladder distension (detrusor atony); reflex dyssynergia
246
Q

Cisapride (special basis)

A
  • Detrusor stimulant - gastric prokinetic indirect PS stimulation
  • Bladder voidance, parasympathetic control, contraction of bladder, urethral sphincter/urethra relaxes
  • Urinary retention; bladder distension (detrusor atony)
247
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A
  • IUS relaxant - non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist
  • Bladder voidance, parasympathetic control - (contraction of bladder) urethral sphincter/urethra relaxes - smooth muscle relaxant
  • Urinary retention
248
Q

Piroxicam

A
  • NSAID
  • Transitional cell carcinoma (bladder tumour)
  • Dog
249
Q

Apometic + activated charcoal

A
  • Prevents absorption of toxins
  • Induce emesis (apometic);
  • Activated charcoal prevents systemic absorption
  • AKI
250
Q

Enrofloxacin (+ TMPS)

A
  • Only licensed AB in rabbits
  • Sludgy bladder/urolithiases, CaCO3 - when cultured as infection
251
Q

Atropine 1%

A
  • Mydriatic; cycloplegic - paralyses ciliary mm., relieves intraocular pain + decongestant of iris (parasympathomimetic)
  • Longer onset + duration
  • Hyphaema; uveitis; ciliary spasm; cataract management; reflex uveitis in corneal ulceration
  • Contradicted in glaucoma - tonometry before Tx
  • Consider: dec tear production (KCS); hypertension + inc IOP (glaucoma); salivation; mydriasis (lens luxation)
252
Q

Tropicamide (Mydriacyl, Mydriaticum)

A
  • Anticholinergic medication
  • Short-acting mydriatic
  • Paralyses smooth muscles or iris + ciliary body (holds lens in place) = cycloplegic agent (parasympathomimetic)
  • Hyphaema; uveitis; dilate pupil to look at retina
  • Consider: dec tear production (KCS); hypertension + inc IOP (glaucoma); salivation; mydriasis (lens luxation)
253
Q

Intracameral tPA

A
  • Tissue plasminogen activator -> blood clot lysis
  • Resolves blood clot - if clot substantial, severe or threatening
  • 25 ug
  • Hyphaema; uveitis
254
Q

Prednisolone (Prednisolone acetate) (Ophthalmology)

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Oral/topical
  • Good corneal penetration
  • Acute uveitis; hypertensive retinopathy; optic neuritis; perioperative Tx in cataract Sx
  • AE: systemic absorption -> PUPD, difficulty stabilising diabetic patients, subcapsular cataracts in cats + corneal lipidosis
255
Q

Dexamethasone (Ophthalmology)

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Topical drops (4 - 6 x daily)
  • Acute uveitis; conditions of ocular surface e.g. eosinophilic keratoconjunctivitis (cats)
  • AE: systemic absorption -> PUPD, difficulty stabilising diabetic patients, subcapsular cataracts in cats + corneal lipidosis
256
Q

Aspirin (Ophthalmology)

A
  • NSAID
  • Oral dogs - 10 mg/kg 3 x weekly in chronic cases
  • Cats - 75 mg every 48 - 72 h
  • Acute uveitis/when corticosteroid contraindicated
257
Q

Acular, Keratolac, Naclof/Voltaren, Ocufen (Ophthalmology)

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Topical drops
  • Acute uveitis/when corticosteroids contraindicated
258
Q

Rimidyl (Ophthalmology)

A
  • NSAID
  • Acute uveitis/when corticosteroids contraindicated
259
Q

Metacam (Ophthalmology)

A
  • NSAID
  • Acute uveitis/when corticosteroid contraindicated
260
Q

Azathioprine (Imuran) (Ophthalmology)

A
  • Immunosuppressive
  • Refractory cases of uveitis (to corticosteroids) - canine uveodermatological syndrome, long-term therapy in combo w/ prednisolone
  • AE: hepatotoxicity, BM suppression - don’t give to cats
261
Q

Epinephrine, phenylephrine (preferred option) (Ophthalmology)

A
  • Adrenergic drug
  • Localisation of Horner’s syndrome/Dx (denervation hypersensitivity) - if mydriasis in <20 min = post-ganglionic lesion = Horner’s
  • Uveitis (mydriatic) - AE: risk of 2y glaucoma
262
Q

N-Acetylcysteine (Stromease), EDTA

A
  • Antiproteolytic agent - autologous serum
  • Stromal corneal ulceration; melting ulcer
263
Q

Fluoroquinolones, Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Neomycin, PolymyxcinB

A
  • Pseudomonas infection - melting ulcer
264
Q

Bacitracin, Gramicidin, Cephalosporins, Penicillins

A
  • Streptococcus spp. (G+) infection - melting ulcer
265
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan)

A
  • Fluoroquinolone AB, bactericidal, conc dependent, broad spectrum
  • G+ - staphylococcus; G- - Pseudmonas aeruginosa
  • Melting ulcer - first line; reserved for cases where other AB ineffective; complicated (infectious keratitis) corneal ulceration, melting ulcers
  • May cause local irritation
266
Q

Ofloxacin (Exocin)

A
  • Quinolone AB, bactericidal, conc dependent, broad spectrum
  • G+ - staphylococcus; G- - Pseudmonas aeruginosa
  • Better corneal penetration than ciprofloxacin, reserved when other AB are ineffective
  • Melting ulcer (second line) - when AB ineffective; complicated (infectious keratitis) corneal ulceration
267
Q

L-lysine

A
  • Essential AA
  • Replaces/antagonises arginine AA in virus, slows down replication, reduces in-vitro replication of FHV-1, may reduce viral shedding latently infected cats
  • BID bolus, not added to food
  • FHV-1; corneal sequestrum
  • Cats
268
Q

Cyclosporine (Optimmune)

A
  • Immunosuppressant/immune-modulator - inhibits T-cells
  • Stimulates tear production (direct lacrostimulant)
  • Licensed
  • Feline eosinophilic keratitis; tear film deficiency (KCS)
269
Q

Fusidic acid - Isathal

A
  • Narrow spectrum AB, bacteriostatic
  • Penetrates through cornea into anterior chamber
  • Staphylococcus (particularly S. pseudintermedius), streptococcus
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Companion animal
270
Q

Gentamicin (Tiacil, clinagel vet)

A
  • Aminoglycosides broad spectrum, bactericidal AB, conc dependent
  • Requires O2-rich environment (ineffective in abscesses, exudates)
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. coli, enterobacter spp, proteus spp, G-
  • Some G+: staphylococcus + streptococcus (S, faecalis)
  • Conjunctivitis; complicated (infectious keratitis) corneal ulceration
  • (Resistant = all anaerobes + haemolytic Streptococcus)
  • Epitheliotoxic, don’t use for > 7 d
271
Q

Polymyxin B (polyfax ointment, mazitrol)

A
  • Cyclic polypeptide, broad spectrum, bactericidal AB, cationic surface acting agent - interacts w/ phospholipids in cell mem (G+ bacteria resistant)
  • Requires O2-rich environment (ineffective in abscesses, exudates)
  • Contains steroids
  • G-: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. coli, Klebsiella
  • Some G+: Staphylococcus + Streptococcus (S. faecalis)
  • Resistant to all anaerobes + haemolytic streptococcus
272
Q

Cloxacillin

A
  • Topical AB
  • Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK); pink eye (sheep) infectious keratoconjunctivitis (IKC) = orbenin + opticlox
273
Q

Trusopt, cosopt

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • Glaucoma
274
Q

Iopidine

A
  • Alpha-agonist
  • Dec production of aq, dec outflow, reduces episcleral venous pressure, dec HR
  • AE - V+
  • Glaucoma
275
Q

Timolol

A
  • Beta-blocker
  • Miosis, aggravate pupil block glaucoma
  • Glaucoma
  • AE; miosis, conjunctival hyperaemia, local irritation, bradycardia
  • Contraindicated: uveitis, anterior lens luxation, heart failure
276
Q

Demecarium bromide

A
  • Cholinesterase-inhibitor -> inc aqueous flow
  • Miotic
  • Drops
  • Glaucoma
277
Q

Latanoprost/xalatan, travoprost/travatan, bimatoprost/lumigan

A
  • Prostaglandin analogue - reduce IOP through interaction w/ PGF receptors in uvea + trabecular meshwork -> inc uveoscleral outflow
  • Drops
  • Glaucoma
  • Don’t use when there is concurrent uveitis + anterior lens luxation
  • AEs: conjunctival hyperaemia, marked miosis, disruption of blood aq (latanoprost), vitreous entrapment in pupil -> inc IOP
  • Ineffective in most cats (latanoprost)
  • Dogs + primates
278
Q

Dextropmethophortan, memantine

A
  • Neuroprotection
  • Glaucoma
279
Q

Lutein, xeazanthin, grape seed extract, lycopene (eyes Rx plus)

A
  • Antioxidant medication
  • Inherited Retinal Degenerations (Progressive Retinal Atrophy/PRA)
280
Q

Amox-clav (amoxicillin/clavulanate), cephalosporin

A
  • Broad spectrum systemic AB
  • Infection e.g. orbital abscessation/bacterial cellulitis
281
Q

Tacrolimus (Proptopic)

A
  • Calcineurin inhibitor (immunosuppressant)
  • Unlicensed
  • (2nd line Tx of tear film deficiency, if unresponsive to cyclosporine)
282
Q

Pilocarpine

A
  • Cholinergic agonist - direct parasympathomimetic -> tear stimulation
  • Unlicensed
  • Neurogenic KCS only (when innervation affected) - tear film deficiency
  • Anti-glaucoma
  • Inc dose until improvement/GI signs
  • Eye drops orally
  • Contradicted: uveitis, anterior lens luxation
283
Q

Tetracaine, lidocaine, proxymetacaine

A
  • Local anaesthetic
  • Onset 5 min; duration 1 - 2 h
  • Dx purposes only - tonometry, exploration of conjunctiva, Dx sampling
  • Consider: dec corneal sensation -> inc risk of trauma; reduced reflex tearing; epitheliotoxic if long-term; systemic toxicity if in small patients
284
Q

Celluvisc, Ocry-gel, Remend, Viskyal, Lacrilube

A
  • Tear substitutes
285
Q

Chlorotetracycline (Ophtocycline)

A
  • Bacteriostatic AB, inhibits protein synthesis, conc dependent
  • Staphylococcus, streptococcus, proteus, pseudomonas
  • Keratitis; conjunctivitis; blepharitis; feline chlamydial conjunctivitis
286
Q

Doxycycline

A
  • Systemic AB
  • Oral
  • Feline chlamydial conjunctivitis
287
Q

Cefalexin + metronidazole

A
  • Orbital abscessation/bacterial cellulitis
288
Q

Cefalexin + clindamycin

A
  • Orbital abscessation/bacterial cellulitis
289
Q

Trifluorothymidine (Trifluridine)

A
  • Antiviral - virostatic, nucleoside analogue
  • Cats - x 5 daily
  • May be extremely irritating to eye
  • V expensive
  • FHV-1
290
Q

Carprofen, meloxicam, tepoxalin (Ophthalmology)

A
  • NSAIDs - non-selective COX-2 inhibitors
  • Systemic
  • Dog
  • Avoid in cases with intra-ocular haemorrhage because of inhibitory effect of NSAIDs on platelet function
291
Q

Firocoxib, robenacoxib, mavacoxib

A
  • NSAIDs - COX-2 inhibitors
  • Systemic
  • Dog
  • Avoid in cases with intra-ocular haemorrhage because of inhibitory effect of NSAIDs on platelet function
292
Q

Carprofen, meloxicam, robenacoxib

A
  • Systemic NSAIDs for cats
  • Avoid in cases with intra-ocular haemorrhage because of inhibitory effect of NSAIDs on platelet function
293
Q

Keratolac, flurbiprofen, diclofenac

A
  • Topical NSAIDs, when corticosteroids contra-indicated (unauthorised)
  • Diclofenac and Flurbiprofen increase IOP significantly in cats - avoid in cats with ocular hypertension
  • Avoid in cases with intra-ocular haemorrhage because of inhibitory effect of NSAIDs on platelet
294
Q

Sodium cromoglicate

A
  • Anti-allergy - mast cell stabiliser
  • Dogs, cats
  • Allergic conjunctivitis
295
Q

Glycerol

A
  • Osmotic diuretic
  • Oral
  • Glaucoma
296
Q

Dorzolamide hydrochloride

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  • Drops
  • Glaucoma
297
Q

Acetazolamide

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  • Oral, IV, IM
  • Glaucoma
298
Q

Brinzolamide

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  • Drops
  • Glaucoma
299
Q

Dichlorphenamide

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor -> dec aq production
  • Oral
  • Glaucoma
300
Q

Metipranilol, levobunolol, betaxolol

A
  • Beta-adrenergic blocker
  • Glaucoma
301
Q

Bromfenac

A
  • Topical anti-inflam
  • Acute uveitis (equine)
302
Q

Enilconazole, voriconazole

A
  • Anti-fungal (ringworm wash)
  • Non-healing corneal ulcer (equine)
303
Q

Oral elemental calcium supplementation, vitamin D supplementation, calcitriol

A
  • Chronic hypoparathyroidism
  • Helps absorb calcium from gut
304
Q

Desmopressin

A
  • Selective vasopressin V2 receptor agonist -> inc water absorption
  • Polyuria - diabetes insipidus
305
Q

Prednisolone (endocrine)

A
  • Oral 0.2 - 0.4 mg/kg cortisol required q24 h (normal adrenal production), so aim for 0.05 - 0.1 mg/kg prednisolone q24 h - canine hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s) - subacute
  • 0.2 mg/kg q12 h - ferret insulinoma
306
Q

Zycortal (desoxycortone pivalate (DOCP))

A
  • Mineralocorticoid deficiency, sub-cut injection q4 w
  • Canine hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s)
307
Q

Caninsulin

A
  • Insulin (from porcine)
  • Intermediate-acting
  • Canine diabetes - uncomplicated diabetes
  • Red, 40 IU/mL
  • 30% amorphous zinc insulin / 70% crystalline zinc insulin
308
Q

ProZinc

A
  • Exogenous insulin therapy (from human)
  • 0.2 - 0.4 IU/kg subcut q12 h
  • Feline diabetes mellitus, uncomplicated diabetes
  • Intermediate-acting
  • Red, 40 IU/mL
  • Protamine zinc insulin - crystalline
309
Q

Diazoxide

A
  • Inhibits insulin secretion
  • Insulinoma
310
Q

Streptozotocin

A
  • Chemotherapy - metastatic cancer of the pancreatic islet cells (insulinoma)
311
Q

Humulin

A
  • Insulin (human)
  • Short-acting
  • Complicated diabetes / Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
  • Orange, 100 IU/mL
  • Used in emergency, higher strength
312
Q

Tolbutamide, glipizide

A
  • Oral hypoglycaemic agent
  • Stimulate beta cells to produce insulin
  • Poorly tolerated in cats + dogs, only if absolute insulin deficiency, cats if cannot use insulin
313
Q

Radioiodine (131^I)

A
  • Taken up by thyroid gland, incorporated into thyroglobulin, emits beta and gamma radiation, beta particles are cytotoxic in short range, restricted to thyroid follicles
  • Hyperthyroid cats
  • Excretion of 131^I in bodily fluids, isolate for min 2w
  • Interim medical management required
314
Q

Levetiracetam

A
  • Anti-epileptic
  • Used instead of Diazepam for hepatic encephalopathy, seen w/ PSS
315
Q

Terabutaline

A
  • Beta-2 adrenoreceptor agonist -> bronchodilation = bronchodilator
  • Asthma, inflammatory airway disease
316
Q

Triamcinolone

A
  • Skin conditions, including atopic dermatitis, contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy), eczema, bullous dermatitis herpetiformis, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus, aural haematoma
317
Q

PMSG = pregnant mare serum gonadotropin

A
  • Absence of oestrus - requires daily admin of PMSG for 10d following injection of HCG (chorionic gonadotropin hormone)
  • Bitch should start cycling 7d after, inc FSH + LH -> oestrus
  • Induces oestrus
  • Dog

AAA Companion Animal VMS4005 (17 decks)

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