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AAA VMS4005 > Companion Animal Pathology > Flashcards

Companion Animal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Rapid in-house infectious disease tests (blood)

A
  • SNAP 4Dx Plus (heartworm disease, Lymes disease, Anaplasmosis, and Ehrlichiosis)
  • SNAP Lepto
  • Angio detect
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2
Q

Rapid in-house infectious disease tests (faeces)

A
  • SNAP Parvo
  • SNAP Giardia
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3
Q

ELISA technology

A
  • Detects Ab/antigen
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4
Q

Canine leptospirosis

A
  • Zoonotic
  • In water + moist soil
  • Reservoir host = small rodents + wildlife -> dogs become incidental host, infected by indirect water contamination w/ urine (on-going urinary shedding = renal carrier status)
  • Pathogenic serovars = L. canicola, L. icterohaemorrhagiae; L. bratislava, grippotyphosa, australis
  • Entry in mm or broken skin -> leptospiraemia/haematogenous spread -> kidneys, liver, eyes, other organs
  • Pyrexia, AKI, bleeding tendencies, icterus (hepatitis)
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5
Q

Canine leptospirosis (Dx)

A
  • Blood results - thrombocytopoenia, azotaemia, inc liver enzymes (ALT/ALP) + hyperbilirubinaemia
  • Urine results - isosthenuria, proteinuria, sometimes glucosuria (renal func failure)
  • Hx - rat/rural/body of water contact; AKI +/- acute hepatomegaly +/- haemorrhagic diathesis
  • Rapid in-house Ab test (vacc Hx) - false +ives
  • MAT serology (microscopic agglutination test) - re-test 2 w later if false -ives
  • PCR - blood + urine, before AB!! - false -ives
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6
Q

Aspergillosis (dog)

A
  • Localised fungal infection in nose + sinuses - Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Cause of chronic nasal discharge (+/- epistaxis) after neoplasia + dental disease in older animals
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7
Q

Aspergillosis (Dx) (dog)

A
  • Culture nasal discharge, pos false +ive/-ive
  • Serology - low sensitivity, false +ives rare
  • CT - destructive rhinitis
  • Rhinoscopy (plaques)
  • Histo
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8
Q

Canine parvovirus

A
  • Clinical disease mainly puppies + subclinical pos
  • Tropism for rapidly dividing cells in GI tract + BM -> severe enteritis + BM suppression (neutropoenia) -> 2y bacterial infections/sepsis
  • V+ + D+ (watery = haemorrhagic)
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9
Q

Canine parvovirus (Dx)

A
  • CS - acute GI disease - enteritis + BM suppression (neutropoenia)
  • Snap test any dog w/ haemorrhagic D+ - for subclinical infections
  • Exposure Hx
  • Vacc status
  • Neutropoenia
  • Faeces - in-house ELISA antigen (snap test), do PCR if get -ive result
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10
Q

Canine adenovirus

A
  • CAV-1 virus -> infectious canine hepatitis (ICH)
  • Causes viraemia - tropism for endothelial cells, epithelial cells + hepatocytes -> systemic disease w/ coagulopathy (endo cells) + hepatopathy (liver dysfunc)
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11
Q

Canine adenovirus (Dx)

A
  • Non-specific CS - pyrexia, lethargy
  • Bleeding disorder - DIC, signs of heptopathy/liver failure (V+, D+, neuro (hepatic encephalopathy))
  • Urine - inc bilirubin
  • Blood - inc ALT/ALP, abnormal coagulation parameters = liver failure
  • PCR - on secretions/excretions - blood
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12
Q

Canine distemper virus

A
  • Paramyxoviridae, high mortality
  • Airborne aerosols + other spread via excretions/secretions
  • Can develop neuro signs, systemic signs depend on immune system
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13
Q

Canine distemper virus (Dx)

A
  • CS - neuro - seizures, ataxia, hypermetria, para/tetraparesis, neck pain; myoclonia (focal twitching of head/limbs generalised) = pathognomic
  • CS - systemic - pyrexia, GI, pneumonia (resp), hyperkeratosis nasal planum/foot pads + pustular skin lesions (dermatological changes)
  • Travel Hx
  • Incomplete vacc Hx / serology
  • PCR = main way
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14
Q

Angiostrongylosis (dog)

A
  • Angiostrongylus vasorum = metastrongylid nematode (lungworm)
  • Adults live in pul vasculature + RHS of heart
  • Dogs infected by L3 larvae after eating infected intermediate hosts (molluscs - snail/slug)
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15
Q

Angiostrongylosis (Dx)

A
  • CS = resp signs, R-sided heart failure (pul hypertension), bleeding tendencies (CNS), hypercalcaemia - PU/PD
  • Faeces - modified Baermann flotation (poor sensitivity - intermittent shedding)
  • Direct faecal smeal under microscope
  • Cyto - tracheal wash/BAL of larvae
  • ELISA - angio detect (blood antigen test)
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16
Q

Brucellosis (dog)

A
  • Brucella canis - G -ive bacteria
  • Repro signs - zoonotic + emerging (reportable)
  • Dog = natural reservoir
  • Infected through urine, aborted material, vaginal/seminal secretions -> regional LNs -> bacteraemia (multiple months, chronic infection); other = intervertebral discs, eyes, kidneys
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17
Q

Brucellosis (dog) (Dx)

A
  • CS - repro signs + lymphadenopathy/immune-mediated/chronic bacterial infection, discospondylitis, osteomyelitis, polyarthritis, uveitis, glomerulonephritis
  • Bloods - hyperglobulinaemia (+/- hypoalbuminaemia)
  • Reactive lymphadenopathy
  • (Rapid in-house tests)
  • Serology (Ab) = combined test - SAT (serum agglutination test) + iELISA
  • PCR + culture
  • Ask about travel/import
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18
Q

Toxoplasma (dog + cat)

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii - intracellular coccidian parasite
  • More common infection in cat, clinical disease uncommon in cats + dogs, would be due to systemic
  • Cat = natural host, dog/human (zoonotic) = intermediate
  • Felines = intestinal cycle -> excretion of oocytes in faeces
  • All hosts = extra-intestinal cycle (tissue cysts)
  • Cause of mainly neuro disease in cats
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19
Q

Toxoplasma (Dx)

A
  • CS (dog) - hepatic, pancreatic, pul, eyes, neuro signs
  • PME: organism in affected location - PCR, cyto, histo
  • (Serology - IgG (previous exposure) + IgM Ab (active disease))
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20
Q

Giardia (dog)

A
  • Giardia duodenalis - coccidian flagellate protozoan parasite
  • Young animals, but GI signs in any age
  • Many asymptomatic carriers + intermittent carriers
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21
Q

Giardia (Dx) (dog)

A
  • Small intestinal D+
  • Several pooled faecal samples - microscopy, faecal flotation, ELISA antigen, PCR
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22
Q

Toxocara (cat + dog)

A
  • Roundworm, adult nematode in small intestines
  • T. canis = dog
  • T. leonina = cat + dog
  • Common in puppies
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23
Q

Toxocara (Dx) (cat + dog)

A
  • CS in puppies - GI, failure to thrive, pot bellied
  • Migrating juvenile nematodes -> hepatic, pul, ocular damage
  • Faecal flotation test
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24
Q

Campylobacter (cat + dog)

A
  • G -ive, curved rods
  • Zoonotic
  • C. jejuni -> D+
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25
Q

Campylobacter (Dx)

A
  • CS - acute haemorrhagic enterocolitis, GI signs
  • Fresh faecal analysis - culture (selective medium)
  • PCR
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26
Q

Salmonella (dog)

A
  • G-ive, bacillus of enterobacteriaceae family
  • Zoonotic
  • Intestinal bacteria but can lead to systemic disease (sepsis)
  • Reportable disease in dogs
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27
Q

Salmonella (Dx)

A
  • CS - acute haemorrhagic enterocolitis, GI signs, more signs of sepsis
  • Fresh faecal analysis - enriched = bacterial culture
  • PCR
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28
Q

Protozoa (cat)

A
  • Tritrichomonas
  • Giardia
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Babesia (outside UK)
  • Leishmania (outside UK)
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29
Q

Fungal (cat)

A
  • Dermatophytosis - most common in UK (ringworm)
    Others more prevalent in other countries
  • Aspergillus
  • Cryptococcus
  • E. cuniculi
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30
Q

Bacteria (cat)

A
  • Chlamydia felis
  • E. coli
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Campylobacter, Clostridia, Salmonella
  • Staphs/strep
  • Mycobacteria
  • Bartonella spp.
  • Haemotrophic mycoplasma
  • Respiratory mycoplasmas
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31
Q

Viruses (cat)

A
  • FHV
  • FCH
  • Corona virus
  • FIV
  • FeLV
  • Panleukopenia
  • Rabies (outside UK)
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32
Q

Helminths (cat)

A
  • Lungworm
  • Dirofilaria (outside UK)
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33
Q

Cat flu

A
  • Primary agents = FHV (more serious disease); FCV = more common
  • Chlamydia felis
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Mycoplasma spp
  • 2y bacterial infections
  • More common in kittens
  • Multicat homes
  • CS - acute URT disease, cattery stay, mucosal discharge, facial lesions e.g. blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, photophobism, mouth-breathing, drool (oral-ulceration)
  • Contact w/ clinical case/asymptomatic carrier common (fomites uncommon)
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34
Q

FHV

A
  • DNA virus
  • Single serotype + little isolate variation
  • Highly infectious when shedding
  • Labile in environment (18 h)
  • Transmission - oronasal route
  • Inactivated by bleach
  • Carrier common - all infected cats, hides in trigeminal n., intermittent shedding
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35
Q

FHV (Dx)

A
  • Chronic clinical signs - skin, resp, chronic nasal + ocular disease (dependent on immune system)
  • PCR (doesn’t prove if cause/cross reaction w/ vaccinal strains)
  • POCUS
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36
Q

FCV (Feline Calici Virus)

A
  • RNA virus
  • Single serotype + variation between isolates, mutates more
  • Fairly labile = 7 - 10 d
  • Inactivated by bleach
  • Persistent shedding
  • Role in acute + chronic disease - resp, oral lesions, chronic gingivostomatitis, limping syndromes, fatal systemic disease
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37
Q

FCV (Dx)

A
  • CS
  • PCR (negative doesn’t exclude)
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38
Q

FHV - chronic disease

A
  • Corneal diseases
  • Herpes dermatitis
  • Chronic rhinosinusitis
  • Polyps
  • Laryngeal disease
  • Nasopharyngeal stenosis
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39
Q

Feline panleukopoenia

A
  • Infectious in environment for months
  • Can titre test (for vacc - provides lasting immunity, years)
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40
Q

Feline panleukopoenia (Dx)

A
  • Titre test
  • POCUS
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41
Q

Feline coronavirus (FCoV)

A
  • Ubiquitous, 2 serotypes
  • Highly contagious
  • RNA virus
  • High mutation rate - within individual cat
  • Can cause FIP, but doesn’t in majority of cats
  • Systemic spread within macrophages
  • Mainly intestinal epithelial replication
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42
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)

A
  • Develops when FCoV mutates in individual cat -> able to leave gut + replicate within macrophages
  • Systemic spread within macrophages within blood vessel walls and sustainable replication -> vasculitis/serositis + effusions
  • Perivascular granulomas - liver, kidneys, brain, eyes
  • Risks - stress, genetics, cat origin, young cat (< 6 m, 2nd peak = 10 y)
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43
Q

FECV

A
  • Mainly intestinal epithelial replication
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44
Q

FIP (Dx)

A
  • CS (varied, systemic disease) - neuro, ocular, jaundice, effusion - yellow, ascites, swollen LNs, keratic precipitates
  • Bloods (in order of percentage of cases) - A:G < 0.4, hyperglobulinaemia, anaemia, hyperbilirubinaemia, neutrophilia, lymphopoenia
  • Bloods can normal in some neuro cases
  • POCUS
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45
Q

FCoV (Dx)

A
  • Serology - only indicates exposure (does not = FIP), can stay +ive for many months
  • Interpret w/ CS, other results + home environment
  • Take fluid sample
  • POCUS
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46
Q

Clostridiosis

A
  • C. perfringens enterotoxin A gene PCR
  • Small + large bowel D+
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47
Q

Clostridiosis (Dx) (Cat)

A
  • Faecal PCR
  • ELISA - toxin detection
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48
Q

Salmonella (cat)

A
  • S. typhimurium
  • Healthy cats prevalence similar w/ D+
  • Young, old, immunocompromised more of concern
  • Raw feeding
  • Severe in cats, 10% mortality
49
Q

Cryptosporidium (Cat)

A
  • Highly contagious
  • Young cats + cats kept in groups
  • Tx only if no other cause for D+
  • Oocyst -ive, PCR +ive
50
Q

Tuberculous mycobacterium / mycobacteria (Cat)

A
  • M. microti or M. bovis
  • Local LNs affected, bony invasion locally causing firm masses
  • DDx = Cow pox (virus)
51
Q

Tuberculous mycobacterium / mycobacteria (Cat) (Dx)

A
  • CS - nodules, draining sinuses, non-healing wounds, face, tail, limbs
  • Systemic signs - resp, GI, neuro, ocular
52
Q

Feline leprosy syndrome

A
  • M. lepraemurium - cannot be cultured using standard techniques (candidatus mycobacterium tawinense/lepraefelis - multiple species involved)
53
Q

Non-tuberculous mycobacterium - slow growing (cat)

A
  • M. genavense, M. simiae, M. terrae, M. malmoense
  • Skin + subcutis
  • Regional lymphadenopathy
54
Q

Non-tuberculous mycobacterium - intracellular complex (cat)

A
  • Mycobacterium avium
  • Progresses to systemic disease
55
Q

Non-tuberculous mycobacterium - rapidly growing (cat)

A
  • M. fortuitum, M. smegmatis, M. chelonae-abscessus
  • Opportunistic infections
  • Lipid-rich areas
  • Wound breakdowns
56
Q

Giardia protozoa (cat)

A
  • Asymptomatic cats
  • Zoonotic potential - more likely to get from humans
  • Intermittent shedding - 3 d in faeces
  • Reinfection common
  • Elimination challenging
57
Q

Tritrichomonas fetus (blagburni) protozoa (cat)

A
  • Young cats
  • Multicat households
  • Large bowel D+ - faecal incontinence
  • Pedigree cats
58
Q

Tritrichomonas fetus (blagburni) protozoa (cat) (Dx)

A
  • Fresh rectal smear
  • Culture
  • PCR most accurate
59
Q

Dystocia - maternal causes

A
  • Uterine inertia: 1y (complete, partial, 2y) = failure to establish a func, progressive level of myometrial contractibility -> failure of expulsion (endocrinopathy, lack of foetuses to kick start labour); 2y = cessation of parturition after initiated -> failure to deliver remaining foetuses (metabolic, anatomical (obstructive) + genetic
  • Small/narrow pelvic diameters - strictures, pelvic trauma, particular breeds
  • Abnormalities of repro tract, masses
  • Uterine torsion, rupture or malposition
  • Compromised general health, hypoglycaemic, hypocalcamia
60
Q

Dystocia - foetal causes

A
  • Mismatch of foetal/maternal size
  • Oversized foetus, single puppy, anasarca
  • Malpresentation/posture
  • Foetal death
61
Q

Dystocia - when to worry

A
  • Low HR in-utero
  • Copious vaginal discharge (green)/bleeding, in shock
  • Foetus stuck in birth canal, foetal/maternal mismatch, malposition, pelvic canal abnormality
  • Breed of known anatomical issues
62
Q

Hypocalcaemia (peri-parturient)

A
  • AKA eclampsia, puerperal tetany
  • Tx imediately - risk of seizing + death
  • Small breed dogs, rare in cats
  • Late preg or 2 - 3 w post-partum
63
Q

Hypocalcaemia (peri-parturient) (Dx)

A
  • CS - restlessness, panting, stiff gait, hypersalivation, muscle fasciculations, hyperthermia, facial pruritus
  • Total calcium < 1.6 mmol/L ionised calcium < 0.8 mmol/L
64
Q

Hypoglycaemia (peri-parturient)

A
  • CS = similar to hypocalcaemia
  • Small breed dogs
  • During preg or parturition
65
Q

Hyperglycaemia (peri-parturient)

A
  • CS - PU/PD, weight loss w/ polyphagia, lethargy
  • No further breeding
66
Q

Metritis

A
  • Ascending bacterial infection of uterus in immediate post-partum period
  • Risk factors - dystocia, obstetrical manipulation, retained foetus/placental mems, abortion
67
Q

Metritis (Dx)

A
  • Hx - anorexia, poor lactation, poor mothering, depressed, straining
  • CS - dehydration, purulent vag discharge, pyrexia, pos large uterus on palp
  • Dx - US - thickened + hyperechoic, radio, vag swab (C&S)
68
Q

Haemorrhage (peri-parturient)

A
  • Tearing - uterine/vaginal
  • Vessel rupture
  • Underlying coagulation defect
69
Q

Mastitis (peri-parturient)

A
  • Bacteria ascending through teat orifice during suckling - E. coli, Staph spp., Strep spp.
70
Q

Mastitis (peri-parturient) (Dx)

A
  • CS - hot, painful, enlarged + discoloured mammary glands -> inc viscosity of milk, milk colour changes +/- blood, purulent discharge, pyrexia
  • Hx - anorexia + depression, lack of feeding/pain
  • Milk cyto + C&S
71
Q

Neonate congenital abnormalities

A
  • Cleft palate, cleft lip
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cranial cleft
  • Absence/abnormalities of limbs
  • Umbilical + other hernias
  • Gastroschisis
  • Limb + tail abnormalities
72
Q

‘Invisibile’ neonate abnormalities

A
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cerebellar hypoplasia
  • Chiari-like malformations
  • Syringomyelia
  • Cardiac abnormalities
  • Portosystemic shunts
  • Urogenital abnormalities
73
Q

Fading puppy/kitten syndrome

A
  • Born healthy, starts to fade + die within 2 w
  • Prolonged crying, restlessness, weakness, not suckling, hypothermia, shock, cyanosis, petechial H+, sloughing of distal extremities
  • Causes - husbandry + mothering, congenital defects, infectious diseases, parasites (worms)
74
Q

Ophalitis

A
  • Umbilical cord infection/abscessation
75
Q

Opthalmia neonatorum

A
  • Purulent conjunctivitis
  • Pus behind closed eyelids
76
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis (cat)

A
  • Type B queen mated w/ type A tom -> kittens type A or AB (A = dominant gene)
  • Kittens ingest (colostrum crosses GI barrier) anti-A Ab in milk from queen (B) -> start destroying own blood cells
  • Cats: siamese, British SH, Devon Rex, Persian, Abyssinian, Turkish Angora, Turkish Van
  • Sudden death w/ anaemia, icterus + haemoglobinuria
  • Hand rear any kitten w/ B type mother, A type blood - blood type kittens at birth
77
Q

Neonatal septicaemia

A
  • Puppies w/ immature immune systems during first 2 w
  • Exposed to chilling
  • Colostrum deprivation
  • Omphalitis
  • Infection from dam/environment
78
Q

Kennel cough (dog)

A
  • Canine parainfluenza virus (Pi) and or Bordetella bronchiseptica antigen in vacc - at least 9 distinct pathogens, husbandry + environment + stress factors
  • Multifactorial disease
79
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A
  • Sepsis (SIRS + MODS)
  • Puppies + kittens
  • Certain toxins e.g. Xylitol
  • Paraneoplastic hypoglycaemia
  • Insulinoma
  • Insulin overdose
  • Working dogs
80
Q

Hyperglycaemia

A
  • Stress (don’t give insulin)
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Over supplementation - from bolus
  • Cranial trauma (don’t give insulin)
  • Severe pancreatitis
81
Q

When not to induce emesis

A
  • No toxin ingested
  • > 60 min ingested
  • Seizures/unconscious
  • Caustic substances - petroleum
  • Activated charcoal dangerous in hypernatraemia (paint balls)
82
Q

Drooling/foaming at mouth

A
  • Corrosives - acids/alkalis, plants, toads
  • Cats
  • Nausea - poison causing GI signs
83
Q

Toxicity - respiratory distress, cyanosis

A
  • Metaldehyde, ethylene glycol, onion/garlic, paracetamol, marijuana, chocolate, mycotoxins, anticoagulant
    rodenticides, organophosphates/carbamates, snake venom – mamba/cobra, human and animal medicines, opioids
  • Anything that causes tremors, muscle spasms and seizures or anaemia can lead to respiratory compromise
84
Q

Toxicity - tachycardia/bradycardia

A
  • Chocolate, ethylene glycol, marijuana, paracetamol, organophosphates/carbamates, human and animal medications
85
Q

Toxicity - excitable behaviour

A
  • Chocolate
  • Caffeine
  • Medications
86
Q

Toxicity - depressed behaviour

A
  • Marijuana
  • Alcohol
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Sedative + antidepressants
  • BP medication
87
Q

Toxicity - renal failure

A
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Lillies
  • Grapes + raisins
88
Q

Toxicity - swelling

A
  • Snake bites
  • Insects
  • Paracetamol (cat)
  • Philodendron
89
Q

Acetaminophen - paracetamol poisoning (cats)

A
  • Lack enzyme to metabolise
  • Onset 2 h
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Heinz bodies
  • Methaemoglobinaemia - brown blood + MM
  • Facial oedema
  • Acute hepatic failure
  • Better Px if presented within 14 h
90
Q

Acetaminophen - paracetamol poisoning (dog)

A
  • Won’t be poisoned at normal dose
  • Hepatic failure - when overdosed
  • Anorexia, V+, abdo pain, resp distress, icterus
  • Better Px if presented within 72 h
91
Q

Mycotoxicosis

A
  • CS - V+, ataxia, muscle tremors, tachycardia, tachypnoea, nystagmus, mydriasis
  • Aflatoxicosis -> liver failure (icteric)
92
Q

Onion/garlic toxicity

A
  • Erythrocyte damage w/ Heinz body anaemia
  • Within 24 h to d
  • CS - V+, abdo pain, Heinz body anaemia
93
Q

Lead toxicity

A
  • E.g. Old paint ingested - need to ingest a lot, uncommon
  • GIT + CNS signs
  • Anorexia, V+, D+, salivating, anaemia, PUPD, blindness, nystagmus
94
Q

Organophosphate + carbamate toxicity

A
  • Pesticides - agriculture + household, malicious poisoning
  • OP + carbamate bind to AChE -> continues nerve stimulation
  • Muscarinc = salivation, V+, D+, lacrimation, dyspnoea, bradycardia, miosis
  • Nicotinic = muscle tremors + weakness
  • CNS = depression, sezirue
95
Q

Pyrethroid toxicity

A
  • Insecticides - flea control spot-ons, dog products on cats/overdose on cats
  • Rapidly absorbed in GIT
  • CNS + PNS effects = hypersalivation, mild tremors, hyperexcitability or depression, V+, D+
  • Interferes w/ Na channels allowing earlier depolarisation
96
Q

Metaldehyde (slug killer) toxicity

A
  • Rapid onset signs
  • Muscle spasms, hyperaesthesia, hyperthermia, resp distress, cyanosis
97
Q

Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity

A
  • Accidental exposure
  • Signs within 3 - 5 d (consumption of clotting factors)
  • Inhibits enzyme Vitamin K1 reductase - needed for vit K1-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, X), -> bleeding
  • PT, PTT, PIVKAs + D-dimers inc
  • Dx - POCUS, Radio - fluid in abdo -> sample = blood; DDx = Haemangiosarcoma
  • Lethargy, weakness, body cavity H+ w/ resp distress, skin H+, hematomas, joint swelling/lameness, pale mms, visible bleeding, hypovolaemic shock, sudden death
98
Q

Alphachloralose toxicity

A
  • Rodenticide that affects CNS
  • Mixed CNS CS - excitation, depression, tremors, hyperaesthesia, seizures
  • Other CS - hypothermia (cats), salivation, miosis, ataxia, coma (dogs)
  • CS 1 - 3 d
99
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity

A
  • Radiator antifreeze
  • Sweet taste
  • Toxic metabolite = glycolaldehyde
  • 5 mL to kill cat
  • 20 mL to kill dog
  • Stage 1 (30 min - 12 h) - CS due to metabolites - drowsy, stumbling, stupor, V+, drunken state
  • Stage 2 (12 - 24 h) - metabolic acidosis -> tachycardia + tachypnoea
  • Stage 3 (24 - 72 h) - acute renal failure due to calcium oxalate, precipitates in microvasculature + renal tubules -> weakness, depression, PUPD or anuria, oxaluria
100
Q

Grapes + raisins toxicity

A
  • V+, D+. anorexia, ataxia, weakness, acute renal failure (ARF)
  • Px good if no ARF
101
Q

Lily toxicity

A
  • Renal tubular necrosis
  • V+, PUPD, anorexia, pancreatitis, renal failure
  • Good Px
102
Q

Blue green algae toxicity

A
  • Bacteria in water soruce - cyanobacteria
  • Fresh/salt water - inc in summer
  • Affects GIT, liver, CNS within minutes to d
  • V+ (blood), salivating, D+, twitching, seizures, resp distress, collapse, sudden death
103
Q

Chocolate toxicity

A
  • Dark worse
  • Theobromine alkaloid
  • CNS stimulation, inc muscle contractibility of heart + skeletal
  • CS - V+, abdo pain, PUPD, ataxia, tachycardia (bradycardia), hypertension, irritability/excitability
  • PX good
104
Q

Xylitol toxicity

A
  • Inc insulin release -> severe hypoglycaemia, liver damage, seizures
  • In gum, sweeteners, sweets, baked goods, toothpaste, peanut butter
  • Within 30 - 60 min
  • Lethargy, ataxia, tremors, seizures, V+, coma
105
Q

Battery toxicity

A
  • Mercury, lithium, alkaline manganese, silver, zinc (many pass through w/o problems) - leaking
106
Q

Marijuana toxicity

A
  • Ataxia, CNS dullness, tremors
  • V+, bradycardia, mydriasis, hypothermia, urinary incontinence
  • Good Px
107
Q

Disease outbreak management (herd health)

A
  • Increase biosecurity protocols - PPR, sanitation + disinfectant protocols, prohibit visitors, order those vulnerable/high risk + require care
  • Control animal moverment
  • Infected/affected + in-contact - isolate + barrier nurse depending on illness, euth,
  • Clean - isolated + divided depending on immunity, vacc, remove from shelter
108
Q

Benefits of passive range of motion (PROM) physiotherapy

A
  • Reduces risk of contractures
  • Maintenance of muscle elasticity
  • Inc synovial fluid production (articular cartilage nutrition)
  • Maintaining joint range of motion
109
Q

Muscle stimulation contradindications (physio)

A
  • Impaired sensation
  • Infection - risk of spreading through muscle circulation
  • Malignancy
  • Thrombotic detachment
  • Joint damage
110
Q

Laser contraindications (physio)

A

Don’t laser over:
- Malignancy
- Eyes
- Pregnancy
- Thyroid
- Epilepsy

111
Q

Core stability

A
  • Postural stabilising muscles, hold body upright
  • Smaller muscles over joints
  • Large no. proprioceptive fibres
  • Allows balance + optimise nerve reactions
  • Lumbar spine - abdominals (transverse abdominus + multifidus), provide support + control movement in highly mobile area
  • Ideal to have good core strength in lumbar region (where a lot of movement from)
  • Poor core -> hypermobile -> injury -> poor quality of movement on all four limbs
112
Q

Proprioception

A
  • Altered following trauma/Sx/disease
  • To re-learn motor skill - re-trained for improved func
  • Targeted exercises
113
Q

Hydrotherapy

A
  • Function
  • Mobility + joint range
  • Pain + muscle tone
  • Muscle strength
114
Q

Hydrotherapy contraindications

A
  • Pul problems
  • Infection
  • Epilepsy - need to be on meds
  • Unstable Fx
  • Incontinence
115
Q

Hip dysplasia (conservative management) - assessment

A
  • Gait - shortened stride, stopping ++, slow transfers
  • Muscle atrophy - middle gluteals + pectineus
  • Palpation - pain response of muscles
  • ROM - reduced extension of hip, held more in flexion
  • ST flexibility - tight iliopsoas (around shoulders + lower cervical region)
  • Strength - poor 3 leg stand, poor endurance, if bilateral -> cranial shifting onto forelimbs
116
Q

Degenerative myelopathy assessment

A
  • Dragging HLs
  • Difficulty w/ functional transitions
  • Ataxia
  • Reduced conscious proprioception
117
Q

Medial patella luxation assessment

A
  • Reluctance to jump
  • Hip hitching type gait
  • Intermittent skipping during transitions
  • Muscle atrophy of quads + hamstrings
  • Tightness of gracilis + hamstrings
  • Poor posture - inc flexion of lumbosacral + coxofemoral joints
118
Q

Femoral head + neck excision (FHNE)

A
  • Weakness of gluteals, hamstrings + quads
  • Reduced ROM + pain - hip extension
  • Tightness of iliopsoas
  • Altered gait - partial weight bearing, poor stance posture

AAA VMS4005 (17 decks)

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