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AGACNP Exam > Common Problems in Acute Care #2 > Flashcards

Common Problems in Acute Care #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Most overdoses are treated how?

A

With supportive care

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2
Q

How does Tylenol overdose present?

A

Usually asymptomatic at first, then N/V with RUQ pain around 24-48 hours

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3
Q

What medication is used for Tylenol overdose?

A

N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

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4
Q

Tinnitus is seen in what overdose?

A

Salicylate

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5
Q

What is used to treat salicylate OD?

A

Activated charcoal

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6
Q

Blurred vision, miosis, and bradycardia can be signs of what overdose?

A

Organophosphate

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7
Q

What drug is used in organophosphate toxicity?

A

Atropine

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8
Q

How might antidepressant toxicity be tx?

A

IV benzos

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9
Q

What drug is used to treat serotonin syndrome?

A

Dantrolene sodium

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10
Q

What drug is used to treat benzo overdose?

A

Flumazenil

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11
Q

What drug is used to treat beta blocker OD?

A

Glucagon

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12
Q

Which drug is used to tx ethylene glycol (antifreeze) OD?

A

Fomepizole (Antizol)

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13
Q

Second degree burn is also called what?

A

Partial thickness

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14
Q

Each arm is what % in Rule of Nines?

A

9%

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15
Q

Each leg is what % in Rule of Nines?

A

18%

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16
Q

What electrolyte abnormality should you monitor for early in major burns (first 24-48 hours)?

A

Hyperkalemia

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17
Q

What electrolyte abnormality should you monitor for later in burns (around three days after)?

A

Hypokalemia

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18
Q

What should body temp be maintained at in the burn pt?

A

37-37.5

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19
Q

What two pain meds are most commonly used for pain management in burn pts?

A

Fentanyl or morphine

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20
Q

Partial thickness burns of greater than what % of TBSA require transfer to a burn center?

A

Greater than 10%

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21
Q

T4 cells are the same as what?

A

CD4 cells

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22
Q

How is AIDs diagnosed?

A

CD4 count < 200 and/or presence of an opportunistic infection

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23
Q

What test is initially used to diagnose HIV?

A

HIV - 1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay

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24
Q

What is a normal CD4 count?

A

500-1200

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25
Q

What should viral load ideally be in an HIV pt?

A

Zero/undetectable

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26
Q

What can an HIV take Bactrim prophylactically for?

A

PCP PNA

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27
Q

When should ART be started in an HIV pt?

A

As soon as you know pt is positive

28
Q

Truvada (emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) is prescribed for what?

A

To prevent HIV in all people at risk via sex or IV drug use

29
Q

Descovy (emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide) is prescribed for what?

A

To prevent HIV in people at risk via sex, excluding receptive vaginal sex

30
Q

What is the advantage of emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide over emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate?

A

Improved renal and bone safety

31
Q

Which type of arthritis generally involves the weight bearing joints?

A

Osteoarthritis

32
Q

Where do Heberden’s nodes appear?

A

DIPs

33
Q

Where do Bouchard’s nodes develop?

A

PIPs

34
Q

When do osteoarthritis pts feel better?

A

In the AM

35
Q

Where should you use canes in osteo?

A

On the opposite side from the affected side

36
Q

Is rheumatoid arthritis symmetrical or asymmetrical?

A

Symmetrical

37
Q

Ulnar devation is seen in what?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

38
Q

If someone is on methotrexate, what lab values should be monitored?

A

LFTs

39
Q

What type of fracture would you give abx for?

A

Open fx

40
Q

What is an avulsion fx?

A

Bone fragments are pulled off by attached ligament or tendon

41
Q

What is a subluxation?

A

Incomplete dislocation

42
Q

Paresthesias after orthopedic surgery may suggest what?

A

Compartment syndrome

43
Q

How do you diagnose compartment syndrome?

A

With a tonometer

44
Q

What are normal compartment pressures?

A

0-8 mm Hg

45
Q

A compartment pressure at or above what indicates compartment syndrome and need for fasciotomy?

A

Above 30 mm Hg

46
Q

What lab test is used to diagnose lupus?

A

ANA

47
Q

What broad class of drugs can often cause a lupus-like syndrome?

A

Cardiac meds

48
Q

How is temporal arteritis tx?

A

Prednisone

49
Q

A cup greater than 1/2 the diameter of the disc when assessing the eye can indicate what?

A

Glaucoma

50
Q

How do arteries differ from veins in the eye in appearance?

A

Arteries are brighter red and narrower than veins

51
Q

What is the earliest sign of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Microaneurysms

52
Q

What is AV nicking in the eye a sign of?

A

Chronic HTN

53
Q

What is arcus senilis and what is it a sign of?

A

Cloudy appearance of the cornea with white circle; 2/2 hyperlipidemia

54
Q

Is there usually pain in conjunctivitis?

A

No

55
Q

What kind of discharge does viral conjunctivitis have?

A

Watery

56
Q

What is the pathology of glaucoma?

A

Increased intraocular pressure

57
Q

Which type of glaucoma is acute?

A

Closed angle

58
Q

What is normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-20 mm Hg

59
Q

Is glaucoma painful?

A

Yes

60
Q

What is the first line drug class for chronic (open) angle glaucoma?

A

Prostaglandin analogs

61
Q

What do prostaglandin analogs end in?

A

-pro

62
Q

Are cataracts painful?

A

No.

63
Q

Diplopia in a single eye can be a sign of what?

A

Cataracts

64
Q

Halos around lights can be a sign of what?

A

Cataracts

65
Q

What is sarcoidosis and in what age does it occur?

A

Decreased muscle mass - in the elderly

66
Q

What is immunosenescence?

A

Immune system’s diminished function with age

AGACNP Exam (14 decks)

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