Clinical Psych Flashcards

1
Q

Who was the father of American psychology?

A

William James

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where was the first American Psychology Lab?

A

At Harvard; William James

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

James-Lange Theory of Emotion

A

We feel our emotions after our physiological reactions; we feel sad because we cry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

William James authored

A

Principles of Psychology describing his emotion theory in 1890

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

A

States that when confronted with an arousing event, people first feel and emotion then experience physiological reactions such as sweating, muscle tension, or trembling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Two-Factor Theory of Emotion

A

Developed by Schaechter and Singer; states that emotions are the result of physiological arousal and bodily responses to an event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Covert sensitization

A

Pairing of imaginative negative consequences with an undesirable behavior. Purpose is to reduce likelihood of the behavior; use of negative mental imagery and rehearsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Shaping

A

Using selective reinforcement (approximations) to modify a general response. Building a better bx by dividing it into small increments or steps and then teaching one step at a time until the desired bx is achieved; steps become a series of intermediate goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inoculation

A

Four-phase training program for stress management often used in CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Covert modeling

A

Increase desirable behavior by imagining others performing similar behaviors with positive outcomes; ct imagines specific positive consequences of new behavior; based on simple modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Participant modeling

A

A type of role modeling in which the therapist first engages in a desired behavior, and then through the use of aids the ct gradually moves toward the ability to perform the desired task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Coping Skills Training

A

Teach cts skills increasing cognitive, behavioral and affective proficiencies; commonly used for managing anxiety-provoking situations; uses positive self-statements and positive imagery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Avoidance conditioning

A

A form of Operant Conditioning in which an organism is trained to avoid certain responses or situations associated with negative consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Collaborative Empiricism

A

Aaron Beck’s cognitive therapy; Ct and therapist are equal partners working together with mutual understanding, communication and respect. Premise is that ct is capable of objectively analyzing his/her own issues and arriving at own conclusions. Uses guided discovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dichotomous thinking

A

Thinking in absolute terms, like “always,” “every,” or “never”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Emotional reasoning

A

Cognitive distortion in which individuals use their emotional state as evidence for rationale defending the source stimulus as the “cause” of their emotional state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Magnification

A

exaggerating negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Age of Freud’s oral stage

A

0-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Age of Freud’s anal stage

A

1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Age of Freud’s phallic stage

A

3-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Age of Freud’s latency stage

A

6-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Age of Freud’s genital stage

A

12+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Suppression

A

avoidance of thoughts/emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Reaction formation

A

acting or staging feelins in direct opposition to one’s true feelings because those true feelings are unacceptable to the self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Introjection

A

Deeply identifying with an idea or object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Displacement

A

expression of thoughts or feelings to a safe target rather than the true target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sublimation

A

transforming negative emotions into positive action or behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Frued believed projection was:

A

root of paranoia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Frued and phobias

A

displacement of emotions from original object to new of symbolic object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Frued mania/hypomania

A

polar opposite expression of underlying depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Frued and anxiety

A

bolstered defensed in response to id impulses spilling into the ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Object-cathexis

A

the id’s investment of the energy into an object that will satisfy an instinctual need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Symbolization

A

A way of handling inner conflicts by turning them into distinct symbols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

La Belle Indifference

A

A description of the unconcerned attitude toward symptoms that has been seen in Conversion Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Jung focused on (unlike Freud)

A

Social and aggressive origins over sexual drives; and adult and mid-life experiences over childhood; introduced concept of the collective unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Jung’s self

A

regulation center of psyche, archetype for the ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Jung’s shadow

A

AKA mask, part of oneself that opposes the ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Jung’s anima

A

feminine aspect of a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Jung’s animus

A

masculine aspect of the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How did Jung believe neurosis developed?

A

From conflicting archetypes as people strive to be more fully functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Jung’s transference includes:

A

both personal unconscious and the collective unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are two areas of interest for Jung?

A

Universal symbols and the meaning of life are two areas of interest for Jung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Categorical personality traits

A

Identified extroversion, introversion, orientations toward external or subjective inner worlds. Later these traits became part of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Heinz Kohut

A

Established self-psychology. Believed that narcissistic personality disorder is really a mask for fragile self-esteem, that people are born with a bipolar structure consisting of immature grandiosity and dependent over-idealization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Melanie Klein

A

Known for her work with young children; she is also one of the earliest developers of object-relations theory, taking into account social relationships specifically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who created the field of child psychoanalysis?

A

Anna Freud; she discovered that children’s symptoms were different from adults and that their sx were related to developmental stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Karen Horney

A

Was most well-known for her work with the neurotic personality that she developed from a childhood filled with anxiety; she id’d 3 ways of dealing with the world: moving toward, again, and away from people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Humanistic psychology

A

Arose after Freud’s theories. Placed a greater emphasis on a person’s freedom of choice, regarding free will as the person’s most important characteristic. Seldom focused on how psychological probs developed, instead, humanistic psychology was (and is) interested in therapeutic interventions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

William Fairbain

A

Object-seeking shaped mind and personality, a basic motivation to make and keep connections with other people. Pleasure-seeking is the manner to relate to objects - opposing Freud’s belief that object-related is manner to seek pleasure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How did Melanie Klein believe child psychoanalysis should be conducted?

A

Much like adult psychoanalysis, in opposition to Anna Freud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Margaret Mahler

A

Focus on emergence of individual self thru separation and individuation process. First 3 yrs form lifelong mature object-relations. First mth of life, biological needs dominate. 2nd mth recognition of mother-object, but not different from self (symbiosis), 6-36 mths separation-individuation phase. Successful resolution results in permanence of emotional-object, thus parent exists even when out of sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Personal Construct Therapy

A

A psychotherapeutic technique by which a person is assumed to control his or her world via personal constructs and cognitive categories. Therapists guide cts in daily practice at viewing the world in a way and interacting w/people using this novel point of view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Milan Systematic Family Therapy

A

An approach to therapy that contends pathology is not contained within an individual, but in the context of the family system. According to this approach, if interactional patterns within the systemic framework (family) changed, so would individual problem behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ego Psychology

A

Evolved from Freudian Theory and psychoanalysis; took shape thru Siggy and Anna’s contributions; finalized as distinct theory by Heinz Hartman, “Eg Psychology & the Prob of Adaptation” (1939); focuses on ego functions and person’s interpersonal and socio-cultural context; individuals are innately adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ego Psychology’s views of the ego

A

Ego is autonomous and adapts and shapes to the environment; operates thru defenses; personality organized thru interactions w/the world (also shaped by internal needs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ego psychology - what causes psychological problems?

A

Ego deficits and person-environment fit contribute to psychosocial problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

According to ego psychology, what are the ego functions?

A

Reality testing, judgment, sense of reality, affect and impulse regulation, primary and secondary thought processes and regression in the service of the ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In Ego Psychology, what is mastery-competence and adaptation?

A

The ability of the person to develop a “sense of competence” by mastering conflicts, internal needs, and environmental demands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ego Psychology and Object Relations

A

One should from a sense of self and others, and develop relationship to self and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Self-Psychology

A

One of the four main schools of psychology, founded by Heinz Kohut; evolved from classic Freudian approach and ego psychology, and highlighted the importance of empathy in therapy. The subjective “I” is the focus of study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Anna Freud

A

Focus on social and cultural factors’ influence and shaping of personality; didn’t focus on unconscious conflicts as much as her dad; focused on children (supportive, protective, educational); developed first-known classification system of childhood sx; formalized assmt procedures; looked at developmental level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Anna Freud and the Developmental Line

A

Series of id-ego interactions that decrease a child’s dependence on external controls and increase ego mastery of themselves and their world. Dependency to emotional self-reliance; sucking to rational eating; wetting and soiling to bowel control; irresponsibility to responsibility in body mgmt; play to work; egocentricity to companionship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Alfred Adler

A

Viewed neurosis as a result of a faulty lifestyle involving a struggle for power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Alfred Adler was one of the original founders of _______, and developed ___________

A

Psychoanalysis; Individual Psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Individual psychology

A

Not individualistic, but social. People are viewed within social context. People are motivated to belong. Problems in belonging misdirected to power, revenge, attention, or displays of inadequacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Adler believed children’s misbehavior stemmed from these misdirections:

A

Power struggle, revenge, attention, displays of inadequacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Adler’s Power Struggle

A

Belonging gained thru control; compliance diminishes personal value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Adler’s revenge

A

If a child cannot be in charge, seek revenge; feeling significant only when others hurt in the same way they have been hurt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Adler’s attention

A

Feeling significant only through attention seeking/engaging in inappropriate behavio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Adler’s displays of inadequacy

A

Belonging only through complete inadequacy, becoming helpless and incompetent; do not attempt tasks as failure is expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Adler’s Inferiority Complex

A

Inferiority motivates ultimate goal fro perfection or develops into neurosis. Neurosis develops from maladaptive efforts to compensate for inferiority. Influenced by family, friends, and birth-order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Adler’s Goals of Therapy

A

Increase feelings of community, promote feelings of equality, replace egocentric self-protection, self-enhancement and self-indulgence w/self-transcending, courageous and social contributions. Methods: socratic questioning, assessment, guided imagery, role-playing, problem-focused problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Premise of psychodrama

A

Guided dramatic action to examine problems and develop insight, personal growth, and integrate cognitive, affective, and behavioral components for an individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Key figure in psychodrama

A

Jacob L. Moreno, M.D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In psychodrama, who is the protagonist?

A

The person representing the “theme” of the drama

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In psychodrama, who are the auxiliary egos?

A

Represent significant others in the drama

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In psychodrama who is the audience?

A

They witness the drama and represent the world at large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In psychodrama, what is the stage?

A

The physical space to conduct the drama

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In psychodrama, who is the director?

A

The trained psychodramatist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the three phases of psychodrama?

A

Warm-up (theme is id’d and protagonist selected), action (dramatization occurs and protagonist explores new methods for resolution of the problem), sharing (group expresses connection w/the protagonist’s work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Eric Berne

A

Examined interactions through communication and scrutiny of habitual patterns of bx/associations. Awareness of intent behind communication (eliminate deceit) resulting in ct’s improved interpretation of personal bx. It was to be broadly applied, even outside of therapy. Believed people are capable of making their own decision and are responsible for their own fate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Berne’s Therapeutic Levels of Analysis

A

Structural analysis, transactional analysis, racket and game analysis, and script analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Berne’s Structural Analysis

A

Individual personality analyzed; three separate ego states: Parent (traditions and values that are copied from parental and authoritarian figures), child (creativity, humor, excitement, impulsive parts of personality), and adult (computer processor between ego states and outside world; logical, reasonable, and unemotional)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis

A

Interpersonal personality analyzed; interaction between ego states of two people; two levels: social (overt) and psychological (covert). Types of interactions: complementary (same ego state), crossed (mixed ego state), ulterior (dual levels of communication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Berne’s Racket and Game Analysis

A

Life positions of OKness of self and others. Four positions: I’m okay, you’re okay; I’m okay, you’re not okay; I’m not okay, you’re okay; and I’m not okay, you’re not okay. Rackets and games used to find support for one’s life position. Rackets are habitual way of feeling and games are seeking confirmation (strokes) regarding perspectives of self.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Berne’s Script Analysis

A

Life patterns at thematic levels analyzed. These are the patterns that virtually dictate life; arise from parents giving their children messages/injunctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

William Glasser

A

A developer of reality therapy and choice theory; an advocate for mental health as a public health issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Reality Therapy

A

An approach to psychotherapy that focuses on the client’s here-and-now and the means to creating a better future through decision-making and control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Systemic Therapy

A

A school of therapy that focuses on the interactional patterns and dynamics among group members in relationships (family and marital therapy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Thoughts on catharsis (behaviorists, Freud, Yalom)

A

Behaviorists believe that catharsis is a reduction in an emotional response resulting from extinction. Freud used to emphasize catharsis but this is no longer used in psychoanalysis. Yalom identifies catharsis as necessary for interpersonal learning in group therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

According to Yalom, what is the necessary precondition for all other therapeutic factors to occur?

A

Cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Identification

A

A defense mechanism in which one unconsciously takes on the characteristics of another person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Introjection

A

A defense mechanism whereby someone takes aspects of someone else (in the form of bx, ideas, or feelings) and unconsciously incorporates them into their personality or self-view. The source of the introjection or the introject, is usually someone important in the person’s life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Reintigration

A

A person’s attempt to resolve confusion regarding increased awareness of his or her ethnicity due to increased contact with other racial groups by accepting the views of both sides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Autogenic Training

A

The use of suggestion and deep breathing to reduce autonomic arousal and induce a sense of relaxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Contingency Management

A

The use of positive or negative reinforcement to increase the frequency of desired behaviors or decrease the frequency of undesirable behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Identification

A

A defense mechanism in which a person feels anxious about perceived failings and therefore mirrors the behavior of a person they consider successful in order to symbolically borrow that person’s success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Projective Identification

A

A concept introduced by Melanie Klein in which the individual deals with emotional conflict or internal or external stressors by falsely attributing to another his own unacceptable feelings, impulses, or thoughts. The other person, then, conforms to the individual’s fantasy that underlies the projective identification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Premise of Kohut’s Self-Psychology

A

Deficits in meeting a child’s needs of mirroring (infant rcvg approval and admiration from parent) and idealizing (presence of an adult worth idealizing) result in unhealthy narcissism. The therapist should provide opportunity for these needs to be met, does not work for narcissism (they are too preoccupied, can’t project)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Premise of Sullivan’s Interpersonal Theory

A

Identified the development of personality from emotional exchanges in a social context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Sullivan’s three modes of existence

A

Protaxic: serial sensations, single, unconnected experiences. Parataxic: sequential sensations, temporal causations (hindered parataxic dvpmt is root of neurosis. Transference is a parataxic distortion). Syntaxic: Emerges around age 1. Logic and analytical thinking, language acquisition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Klerman’s application of Interpersonal Theory to unipolar, non-psychotic depression

A

Aims to improve current interpersonal relationships to improve depression. Four areas addressed: grief, role disputes, role transitions, interpersonal deficits. Effective for relapse prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Motivational Interviewing

A

A client-centered, directive therapy that aims to enhance intrinsic motivation; this therapy technique is goal oriented and the primary focus is on examining and resolving ambivalence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Erich Fromm

A

A neo-Freudian who believed that personality development is largely influenced by societal and economic factors and problems are the result of society preventing people from achieving their true natures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Three notable humanistic therapies

A

Client-Centered, Gestalt, and Existential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Gestalt Therapy

A

Fritz Perls: Focus in discover/reunification of the whole self, identification and awareness of split off parts of the self, emphasizes personal accountability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Existential Therapy

A

Rollo May and Irvin Yalom: Client’s responsibility for finding/creating meaning and values in one’s life; addressed purpose of death, life, and limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Existentialism

A

A philosophical orientation that posits that humans are born with no inherent tendency toward good or evil, but only with the freedom to make choices that will define their essence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Wolfgang Kohler

A

Key figure in Gestalt Therapy. Research surrounding insight learning with apes. Buried food too far to reach, spontaneous use of tools - sticks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Polster and Polster’s “boundaries that hinder progress.” (Gestalt)

A

Projection: (Undesirable aspects of oneself results in suspiciousness). Introjection (Taking in what others say without analyzing it for oneself). Retroflection (Directing impulses, such as anger onto self). Deflection (Distancing gained thru distraction, humor, asking questions). Confluence (Seeing oneself as in-line with another, results in lack of awareness of conflicts).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Two phases of Motivational Interviewing

A

Increasing motivation for change (build rapport, recognize probs, explore ambivalence; useful for precontemplation) and strengthen commitment to the decision for change (goal setting, making bx plans, avoiding roadblocks to success; useful in contemplative stage).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Four principles of Motivational Interviewing

A

Empathy, pointing out discrepancies between values/beliefs and behaviors, accepting reluctance to change as natural (not resistance as pathology), encouraging self-efficacay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Self-Control Training

A

Program developed by William Miller that was first successfully implemented with less-dependent problem drinkers; it is now used in a variety of settings, including classrooms, where the focus is placed on establishing effective self - rather than externally - controlled behavior; some techniques used to accomplish this are self-recording, self-evaluation, self-determination of contingencies, and self-instruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Aversive conditioning

A

A counterconditioning process involving the pairing of a stronger noxious stimulus with the original stimulus resulting in the stronger noxious response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

Another counterconditioning technique whereby incompatible responses cannot be experienced at the same time, thus causing the stronger of the two to inhibit the weaker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Higher-Order Conditioning

A

A classical conditioning concept in which an established CS is paired with a neutral stimulus, thereby acting as a US, until it elicits a UR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Shaping

A

Teaching a desired behavior by reinforcing behaviors that gradually approximate the targeted behavior (“successive approximation”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Bandura’s Social Learning Theory

A

Learning thru observation of others; Four components: attention, retention, motoric performance, motivation. Sources of reinforcement: external, vicarious, and self-generated. Learning is separate from action and can occur without reinforcement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Bandura’s reciprocal determinism

A

Cognitions, behavior and environment all influence each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Four Assumptions of Social Learning Theory (Based on needs)

A

Need to establish concrete and observational goals, need to realign w/the contingencies of social reinforcement, need to model appropriate behaviors, need to establish family contracts that seek to develop normal family functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Structural Family Therapy

A

Focuses on the reorganization of strengthening of family relational structures as the major goal of treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Bowen’s Family Systems Therapy

A

A direct but non-confrontational approach that zeroes in on the role of the individual in the extended family system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Interpersonal Therapy

A

A patient’s presenting problem is related to interpersonal difficulty and therapy is aimed at addressing four primary problems: grief, role disputes, role transitions, or interpersonal deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Beck’s Theory of Depression

A

Maladaptive cognitions and dysfunctional attitudes create a vulnerability (diathesis) that when combined with continued stress results in depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Beck’s five common errors that can cause depressive symptoms:

A

Overgeneralization (neg events from one situation will happen in another), selective abstraction (focus on one aspect of situation, ignoring others), magnification (overestimating negative aspects), personalization (attribution of negative feelings of others onto oneself), and dichotomous thinking (all good or all bad judgments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Beck’s specificity hypothesis

A

Different types of cognitive content develops different degrees of depressive symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Beck’s cognitive triad

A

Negative view of self, negative view of the world, negative view of the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

P. M. Lewinsohn

A

Associated with the findings that a depressed individual’s self-evaluations reflect an unbiased perception of reality and more accurately correspond with observer evaluations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Ellis REBT: ABCs and DEFs

A

Activating events, Beliefs (rational or irrational attitudes about event), consequences (emotional and/or behavioral). Disputing interventions, Effective philosophy adopted, Feelings (new feelings result)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Selective Reinforcement

A

A behaviorist technique in which only the desired behaviors are rewarded in order to modify behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Rehm’s Self-Control Model of Depression

A

Based on Kanfer’s general model of self-regulation, which explains some bx persist in the absence of reinforcement. Depression occurs due to deficits in each of the self control process: self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. Ex. selective monitoring of negative events, little self-reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, and excessive self-punishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Rehm’s self-monitoring deficits include:

A

Attending only to negative events to the exclusion of positive ones; immediate, instead of long-term outcomes of bx.

133
Q

Rehm’s self-evaluation deficits include:

A

Setting stringent, perfectionistic self-evaluative standards; making inaccurate and depressive attributions for one’s own behaviors

134
Q

Rehm’s self-reinforcement deficits include:

A

Administering too few self-rewards; excessive self-administered punishment

135
Q

Five step procedure for self-instruction

A

Therapist modeling, therapist verbalization, patient verbalization, patient silently talks through, independent task performance

136
Q

Who created Self-Instruction

A

Meichenbaum. Goals is to build adaptive cognitions in performing tasks. It is effective testament for ADHD.

137
Q

Michenbaum’s Stress-Inocculation

A

Modifying cognitions to be healthier, adaptive, and practical will increase more functional emotions and behaviors.

138
Q

Three phases of stress-inoculation

A

Conceptualization (providing adaptive perspective and understanding of negative reactions to stressful events), Skills acquisition and rehearsal (teaching cts specific skills and rehearsing them), and Application and follow-through (practice of new skills in gradually more stressful situations).

139
Q

Programmed learning

A

A training program in which the student proceeds at his or her own pace through small, increasingly difficult lessons and their accompanying tests.

140
Q

Personal Construct Therapy

A

George Kelly. People develop constructs, which are hypotheses based on the interpretations of events that affect them. Individuals then develop a way to interact with their world, which becomes their personality. Processes are channeled by the ways we anticipate events (interact w/the world in a way congruent w/our expectations)

141
Q

Kelly’s Corollaries

A

Eleven corollaries that explain how we interpret information, why we see the world differently and how we influence the perceptions of others. Criticized for being confusing and overly simplistic, but still well utilized

142
Q

Who believed in the “person-as-scientist?”

A

George Kelly. Humans have the capacity for meaning making and revision of personal systems of knowing. We formulate our own hypothesis (constructs) about our life to make life meaningful and predictable. These systems of meaning are continually revised, extended, and refined.

143
Q

Kelly’s Core Constructs

A

Non-verbalized meanings, but are critical to one’s construct systems and embody basic values, sense of self, and social embededness. Core constructs find validation in relational, family and cultural contexts.

144
Q

William Glasser

A

Reality Therapy. Rooted in choice theory, imposes a sense of personal accountability in choice and change. Components are irresponsible fulfillment of needs results in “failure identity”. Needs: survival, power, belonging, freedom and fun.

145
Q

Reality Therapy’s Primary Goal

A

Replace failure identity with success identity discovering responsible and effective means to satisfy needs.

146
Q

Requisites for Reality Therapy

A

Comfortable relationship between therapist and client. Client ability/willingness to openly evaluate life to identify changes.

147
Q

Feedback loops

A

In a form of family therapy known as cybernetics, focuses on the positive feedback loops that maintain the family’s dysfunction.

148
Q

Feminist Therapy Theory

A

Goal is to help client become more self-defining and encompass more than just a woman’s view of the self. Focus is on mutual education and psychoeducation, egalitarian relationship, thus acknowledging inherent power differential and seeking to minimize it in the client-therapist relationship. Key issues are social context and oppression.

149
Q

Feminist Therapy Techniques

A

Egalitarian (self-disclosure of one’s own personal experiences), Pluralism (teaching ct multiple ways to view the world), External emphasis (Stressing the oppressive aspects of reality).

150
Q

Psychoanalytic Feminist Therapy

A

Nancy Chodorow. Freud’s assertion that the individual is born bisexual and the mother is the first sexual object. Combines feminist perspective to object-relations by proposing the child forms its ego in reaction to the dominating figure of the mother. Sons form independence easily because identify w/father. Only suffer w/dyadic relationship.

151
Q

Nonsexist Therapy

A

Therapeutic modality that focuses on an individual’s personal responsibility and behavior. A nonsexist therapist uses empathy to foster a caring environment that will enable an individual’s ability to change. The impact of sex roles is also explored; however, social change is not part of this therapy (individual change is most important).

152
Q

Nonsexist Therapy’s three distinct issues

A

Sexual stigma (shared society’s negative regard any non-heterosexual behavior, identity, relationship, or community), Heterosexism (societal beliefs and systems that encourage/perpetuate violence, hatred, and antipathy agains sexual minorities), and sexual prejudice (negative attitudes and belief based on sexual orientation or romantic affiliation).

153
Q

Multitheoretical Psychotherapy (MTP)

A

Jeff Brooks-Harris. Integrate training and treatment, with the premise that thoughts, feelings and actions interact and are shaped by biological, systemic, interpersonal, and cultural contexts. Integrates cognitive, behavioral, biopsychosocial, psychodynamic, systemic, and multicultural treatment appropaches.

154
Q

Self-reference

A

A persistent tendency to direct a discussion or the attention of others back to oneself

155
Q

Response cost

A

An Operant Conditioning procedure in which certain responses result in the loss of a valued commodity

156
Q

Thinning

A

A schedule of reinforcement in which there is a gradual change from continuous to intermittent reinforcement

157
Q

Behavioral Family Therapy (BFT)

A

Modifying behaviors and improving functioning by targeting presenting symptoms. Behavior is maintained by consequences and these can be modified. Two parts: Behavioral Parent Training (BPT) and Behavioral Couple Training (BCT)

158
Q

Behavioral Parent Training

A

Parents trained to respond to child’s behaviors with operant conditioning techniques

159
Q

Behavioral Couple Training

A

Assesses strengths and weaknesses of parent’s interaction; teaches communication and problem-solving skills;techniques include behavior exchange procedures (partners clearly verbalize needs to one another) and contingency contracting (if you do this for me, I’ll do that for you)

160
Q

Cognitive-Behavioral Family Therapy

A

Similar to behavioral therapy; includes an emphasis on cognition and may implement tools addressing underlying dysfunctional patterns of thoughts in the family members.

161
Q

Negative feedback loop

A

Restores equilibrium, minimize deviation, maintain status quo

162
Q

Positive feedback loop

A

Disrupt dysfunctional transactional patterns, help members reassess their methods of engaging, alter rules of family system

163
Q

Minuchin’s structural approach

A

Focus on the family interrelated system, assess/changes hierarchies, boundaries, alliances/splits.

164
Q

Haley’s Strategic Approach

A

Emphasis on family unit, assess/change hierarchies, communication, and interaction to address/resolve a presenting problem

165
Q

Triangulation: Coalition

A

One individual colludes with another against a third. Alliances/coalitions are when groups of family members are against another member or other part of the family.

166
Q

Enmeshment

A

Undifferentiated ego mass, which is defined by over-dependence on another family member, addressed in Bowenian family systems therapy.

167
Q

Extended Family Systems Therapy

A

Incorporation of multiple generations and intergenerational issues

168
Q

Goals and Techniques of Minuchin’s Structural Family Therapy

A

Goals: Altering perceptions of the problem (reframe) and enhancing adaptive patterns.
Techniques: Joining (therapist becomes “family member” to work to restructure family), Family Maps (Id’ing of boundaries, coalitions, and alignments), and Enactment/Role-plays (create boundaries that force parents to unite, demoting child from authority).

169
Q

Minuchin’s “detouring”

A

Distress expressed through third party (often child), blaming them for negativity or uniting for the sick child.

170
Q

Therapeutic double-bind

A

Occurs when therapist instructs the patient to behave in a way that forces him or her to either resolve the presenting problem or engage further in the therapeutic process (ex. encouraging family not to change)

171
Q

Goals of Haley’s Strategic Family Therapy

A

Therapists track improvements and actively direct reduction in symptoms, focus on the presenting problem only (not underlying causes), behaviorally defined objectives and criteria, may utilize disruption of feedback cycles, clarification of hierarchies, and paradoxical interventions like prescribing the problem.

172
Q

Premise of Haley’s Strategic Family Therapy

A

Directive problem-focuses approach to reduce dysfunctional, symptomatic problems in the family

173
Q

According to Haley, what are the source of family problems?

A

Misguided solutions that create chronic problems resulting in positive feedback in the family system, structural problems with incongruous hierarchies (power and control), and functional problems with members of the system covertly protecting and maintaining symptoms in the family.

174
Q

According to Haley, what do functional families do?

A

Have flexible problem-solving approaches, larger repertoire of problem-solving abilities, and maintain hierarchy within the family.

175
Q

Differentiated

A

A term used by Bowen to describe the separation between intellect and emotions as well as separation of self from others

176
Q

Bowenian triangles

A

Two family members recruit a third member to alleviate stress. The two members may be enmeshed and emotionally cut off.

177
Q

Structural family therapy triangulation

A

Occurs when each parent demands that the child take their side against the other parent

178
Q

Strategic Family Therapy triangulation

A

Cross-generational coalitions in which a member of one generation colludes with a member of another generation against a third member (usually a parent).

179
Q

Bowenian Family Therapy: Core Concepts

A

Differentiation, fusion, triangulation, emotional cutoff, and family projection

180
Q

Bowenian “differentiation”

A

How individuals view themselves objectively in the midst of intense family emotion; increasing individuation of most differentiated member may motivate individuation of other family members.

181
Q

Bowenian “fusion”

A

Lack of maturity where emotionality overpowers objective reasoning and individual lacks individuality; results in undifferentiated; results in undifferentiated family ego mass–overdependence or enmeshment among family members

182
Q

Bowenian triangulation

A

Two-against-one; in a conflicted dyad one member recruits a third person, which may represent an attempt to reduce stress or conflict; may result in covering-up of defusing the conflict. Multigenerational process occurs when the triangulation develops across generations–can lead to severe psychopathology

183
Q

Bowenian “emotional cutoff”

A

Denying and isolating one’s problems from the rest of family; used to cope with unresolved attachments to their families or origin.

184
Q

Bowenian family projection

A

Procedure in which parents come together for the sake of the child and his/her problems. The child will likely develop the problematic symptoms of his or her family.

185
Q

Bowenian therapeutic interventions

A

Shifting the hot triangle, working with the most available family members to achieve differentiation, de-trinagulating, repairing emotional cut-offs.

186
Q

Failure of Complimentarity

A

A term from Nathan Ackerman’s theory of family therapy from a psychoanalytical perspective; complimentarity refers to harmony in social roles in a family system.

187
Q

Complimentarity

A

The influence that partners have on each other and their relationship so that if one changes, the other has to.

188
Q

Retribalization

A

The first stage of network therapy; involves bringing together the client’s support system.

189
Q

Interpersonal (Context) Therapy

A

Meeting with those of significant importance to the client

190
Q

Structural Therapy

A

Chole Madanes: Challenging and undermining family systems in order to shock them into realigning and developing better ways of functioning.

191
Q

Virginia Satir’s Key Assumptions

A

The presenting problem is rarely the actual problem, the real problem is how one copes with problems, change is possible, responsibility for both behaviors and internal experiences, familiarity is a driving factor in making choices for many people.

192
Q

Satir’s Four Coping/Survival Stances

A

Placating, blaming, super-reasonable, irrelevant

193
Q

Stages of Group Therapy

A

Forming, storming, norming (more intimacy and trust), performing (open discussion and resolution of conflicts), adjourning

194
Q

Training of the person

A

The suggestion that the instructions given to the person during a debriefing might be the most important factor in stress debriefing

195
Q

Psychological First Aid

A

Three goals are recreate a sense of safety, establish meaningful social connections, establish a sense of efficacy

196
Q

Advocacy Consultant

A

Consultive approach that emphasizes social interventions. Goal is to promote social change.

197
Q

Behavioral consultant

A

Focuses on promoting specific behavioral changes in clients

198
Q

What is the key name in Mental Health Consultation?

A

Gerald Caplan

199
Q

Client-centered case consultation

A

Expert assessment of a client’s problems and suggests ways to handle it

200
Q

Consultee-centered administrative consultation

A

Focus on how consultee’s knowledge, attitudes, or behaviors affect the program

201
Q

Consultee-cented case consultation

A

Consultant works with consulted and indirectly assists the client through the consultee

202
Q

Program-centered administrative consultation

A

Direct assistance to the program

203
Q

Theme interference

A

Past or present unresolved personal problems that are unconsciously projected onto work tasks

204
Q

Diagnositc overshadowing

A

Occurs when a therapist erroneously attributes abnormal behavior to an intellectual disability

205
Q

Process consultation

A

An organizational development technique in which a consultant facilitates the client’s ability to achieve group goals using processes such as communication, desicion-making, interpersonal relations, and task performance

206
Q

Primary prevention

A

Programs that keep people from developing psychological disorders, and programs that foster healthy lifestyles

207
Q

Secondary prevention

A

Works on early identification of problems to prevent them from getting worse, like and early warning system

208
Q

Sue’s 1978 Minority Worldview

A

2x2 grid: Locus of control vs. Locus of responsibility

209
Q

Sue: IC-IR

A

Dominant cultural view of the US, most minority groups assume the other three. Characteristically white, middle-class. Emphasis on uniqueness, individuality, independence, self-reliance

210
Q

Sue: EC-ER

A

Poor conditions attributed to an exploitive system and inability to change it themselves (learned helplessness). May adopt “placater” attitude: going along with the system to avoid reprisal. Passivity is a form of defense. “Uncle Tom Syndrome” in AA cts (concealing feelings that are unacceptable to whites).

211
Q

Sue: EC-IR

A

Responsible for one’s conditions, helpless to change it. Marginilization and non-belonging may lead to self-hatred largely because they feel inferior to majority and feel responsible for that position.

212
Q

Sue: IC-ER

A

More likely to be demonstrated by minority groups that become aware of their own cultural identity and impact of racism on their lives.

213
Q

Cross’ Pre-encounter

A

Believe world operates as being non-Black, devaluing of Black identity/idealization of whiteness, denial of racial oppression, prefer white therapists

214
Q

Cross’ Encounter

A

Startiling personal/social event challenges previous thoughts, receptive to new frame of reference/interpretation of identity, increased racial/cultural awareness, prefer same-race therapist

215
Q

Cross’ Immersion-Emersion

A

Race/racial identity highly salient. Immersion: Idealize blackness, immerse self in black culture, rejection of non-black values, rage toward whites. Emersion: Anger and anxiety fade, internalize a black identity

216
Q

Cross’ Internalization

A

Internalizes elements of immersion experience, inner security, satisfaction and confidence in black identity, increased comfort with acceptance of other cultures

217
Q

Cross’ Internalization-Commitment

A

Confidence debelops into commitment, oriented toward change for comunity, adopt one of three identities: Black nationalist identity (pro-black,non-racist), Biculturalis identity (integration of black and white/other identity), Multiculturalist identity (integration of black with multiple other). Acceptance of diverse backgrounds

218
Q

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue: Minority Identity Development Model

A

Five stages: Conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness

219
Q

MID conformity

A

Self-deprecationg, group deprecation to others of same minority group, discriminatory to others in different minority grow, and group-appreciating of dominant group

220
Q

MID Dissonance

A

Individual feels a conflict between himself and all of the other groups (same minority, other minority, dominant group)

221
Q

MID Resistance and Immersion

A

Self-and-same-group appreciating, conflict between feelings of empathy for other minority experiences and of personal problems as a result of oppression, dominant group deprecating

222
Q

MID Introspection

A

Concerned with basis of self-deprecation, concerned with the nature of unequivocal appreciation for the same minority group, concerned with ethnocentric basis for judging others and concerned with the basis of dominant group depreciation

223
Q

MID Integrative Awareness

A

(prior name synergetic articulation and awareness). Self-and all-group-appreciating, with selective appreciation for the dominant group

224
Q

Goal of the Minority Identity Development Model

A

Recognition that all cultures have some positive and some negative attributes

225
Q

Helm’s White Racial Identity Model

A

Premise: Development of healthy racial identity depends on the racism in society. Two phase, each with three distinct statuses. Each stage has specific Information Processing Strategy (IPS)

226
Q

Helm’s Phase One

A

Abandonment of racism. Contact status: Uncomfortable and unsophisticated relationships with people of other races or ethnicities. Racist and lack awareness of racism. IPS: Denial and obliviousness. Disintegration Status: Acknowledge “whiteness” and question long-held beliefs. IPS: Suppression of information and ambivalence. Reintegration status: Retreat from dissonance fo prior status and consciously choose racism. IPS selective perception of negative out-group distortion

227
Q

Helm’s Phase Two

A

Establishment of non-racist white identity. Pseudo-independence status: Results from personally jarring event; questioning of previous definitions of whiteness and justifiability of racism. IPS: Selective perception and reshaping reality. Immersion-emersion: Movement away from paternalistic efforts to help other groups toward internalized desire to change oneself in a positive way. IPS: Hypervigilance and reshaping. Autonomy status: emotionally and intellectually internalize new non-racist white identity, including respect and appreciation for cultural differences. IPS: Flexibility and complexity.

228
Q

Cass’ 1979 Model

A

First non-pathologizing model for gay and lesbian

229
Q

Cass’ Confusion

A

Question assumptions about sexual orientation, experience turmoil, behavior is perceived as correct/acceptable, correct/undesirable, or incorrect/undesirable, may adopt strong anti-homosexual stance

230
Q

Cass’ Identity Comparison

A

Accept the possibility that one may be gay; isolation from both gay and heterosexual people

231
Q

Cass’ Identity Tolerance

A

Accept that they are gay and seek out gay and lesbian people; with positive experiences, feelings of isolation and self-hatred will decrease

232
Q

Cass’ Identity Acceptance

A

Selectively reveals his or her sexual orientation; increasing interactions with other gay people is important

233
Q

Cass’ Identity Pride

A

Experience incongruence between one’s own acceptance of identy and society’s rejection, pride in gay culture may be present or disclosure of one’s sexual orientation as a demonstration of pride.

234
Q

Cass’ Identity Synthesis

A

Gay or lesbian matures into an overall view of self, more positive contact with members of socially dominant group develops

235
Q

Sophie’s Model

A

First sexual identity model exclusively for lesbians: First awareness, testing and exploration, identity acceptance, identity integration

236
Q

Troiden’s Model

A

Following Cass, a model of gay and lesbian identity development. Sensitization (consider self heterosexaul but have experiences that cause them to feel different of marginalized), identity confusion (consider the possibility that they may be gay or lesbian), identity assumption (coming out process), identity commitment or integration (individual obtains a certain level of comfort with and commitment to homosexual self-discovery

237
Q

Myers’ Minority Stress Model

A

Argues that gay individual’s face chronic stress due to stigmatization like other minority groups

238
Q

Homosexism

A

An ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among non-heterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community sexism

239
Q

Homonegativism

A

Any prejudicial attitude or discriminatory behavior toward homosexuals or homosexuality

240
Q

Seven universal facial expressions

A

anger, contempt, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, surprise

241
Q

Paralinguistic communication

A

Nonverbal elements of communication that convey meaning

242
Q

High-context communication

A

Relies more on nonverbal or paralinguistics. Often associated with AA and other minorities

243
Q

Low-context communication

A

Tends to rely more on the content of the words. Often associated with Whites

244
Q

Blended biculturals

A

View two cultures as non-conflicting and integrated

245
Q

Alternating biculturals

A

Acknowledge American heritage, but are more influenced by their ethnic background

246
Q

Bicultural identification: Separated

A

Distance self from their ethnic background and are more invested in developing American identity.

247
Q

Autoplastic

A

Changing oneself (beliefs of behaviors that are contributing to distress)

248
Q

Alloplastic

A

Changing the environment that are contributing to the distress

249
Q

Etic

A

A description of a behavior or belief by an observer, in terms that can be applied to other cultures; that is, an etic account is culturally neutral

250
Q

Emic

A

Behavior or belief in terms of meaningful (consciously or unconsciously) to the actor; an emit account is culture-specific

251
Q

Self-Disclosure Key Figures

A

C.R. Ridley and Nancy Boyd-Franklin

252
Q

Intercultural non-paranoia

A

Fairly high levels of self-disclosure

253
Q

Functional paranoia

A

Medium levels of self-disclosure

254
Q

Healthy cultural paranoia (paranorm)

A

Med. levels of self-disclosure

255
Q

Confluent paranoia

A

Both cultural and pathological paranoia, present with high levels of cultural mistrust and low levels of self-disclosure as well as suspiciousness and uncooperativeness, will prefer to work with someone from same cultural background.

256
Q

Split-Self Syndrome

A

All-good of all-bad thinking. Splits off part of self representing”African me” as it is devalued in European-American system.

257
Q

Ethnographic

A

Research and therapeutic approach that focuses on observing human interactions in social settings and activities

258
Q

In Latino-American clients, what is the strongest family bond?

A

Mother-son

259
Q

Geriatric clients

A

Paranoia is relatively rare. Usually suspicion, perscutory ideation, paranoid delusions. Antipsychotics (neuroleptics) are effective in combo w/therapy.

260
Q

Most common and second most common demential in elderly.

A

Most common is Alzheimer’s followed by Vascular Dementia

261
Q

Anxiety in geriatric patients

A

Generally presents as fear

262
Q

Psychotherapy and geriatric population

A

Fewer instances of mental illness in elderly than other age groups

263
Q

Three common pharmocotherapy treatments for alcoholism

A

Acamprosate (calcium acetyl-homotaurine): Restores glutaminergic neurons to normal activity level, increases treatment completion and associated with higher abstinence rates); Naltrexone (often used in relapse prevention, improves coping with cravings and reduces use of alcohol); and Disfulfiram (a deterrent medication that involves aversive symptoms like flushing, headaches, nausea, decreased blood pressure, constriction in airways when the person consumes alcohol). Noncompliance with meds is common.

264
Q

Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) Relapse Prevention

A

Relapse is a common event in recovery; Increase awareness of high-risk situations; Build appropriate coping skills; Minimize negative outcomes from a relapse; Reinforce view of relapse as learning opportunity to reduce stigma/shame and encourage resumption of treatment/abstinence; Focus on relapse as a learning event, not evidence of treatment failure

265
Q

What percentage of relapses are due to negative affective states, interpersonal conflict, or social pressure?

A

75%

266
Q

Being around drinkers

A

Social environment can increase the likelihood or resuming consumption of alcohol and can trigger a relapse, but is less significant than negative emotions

267
Q

Overconfidence in alcoholism

A

Believing one is impervious to cravings or social pressures and that one has “conquered” their addiction can result in engaging in risking behaviors which ultimately can trigger a relapse

268
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 1

A

No impairment

269
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 2

A

Very mild cognitive decline (difficult to distinguish from normal aging)

270
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 3

A

Mild cognitive decline (early-stage AD). Family, friends, and co-workers notice changes. May be measurable with detailed clinical interview.

271
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 4

A

Moderate cognitive decline (mild or early-stage AD). Declines evident in clinical interview. Deficits in memory for recent events, complex tasks.

272
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 5

A

Moderately severe cognitive decline (moderate or mid-stage AD). Some assistance with ADLs required. Memory loss for personal details (phone number, address). Confusion related to time and place. Difficulty with personal history.

273
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 6

A

Severe cognitive decline (moderately severe or mid-stage AD). Personality changes; distorted personal history; not recognize close family members, spouse or caregiver; wandering is problematic.

274
Q

Alzheimer’s stage 7

A

Very severe cognitive decline (severe or late-stage AD); Loss or responsiveness to environment; general incontinence; abnormal reflexes; swallowing impaired.

275
Q

Neurobiological correlates of AD

A

Plaques and neurofibrillary tangles through cerebral cortex and hippocampus in ACh neurons. ACh biggest part in early stages; serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate in later stages.

276
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A

A brain deisease affecting dopamine-producing cells that affects motor movements and commonly presents with resting tremors

277
Q

Vascular Dementia

A

The second most common form of dementia, presents in a stage-wise decline of function due to impaired blood flow to the brain from various insults such as a stroke

278
Q

HIV and aging

A

HIV often causes dementia in the elderly; can be mistaken as AD because of not recognizing sexual activity in elderly population; HIV proceeds to AIDS 2x as fast in elderly

279
Q

What percentage of those with conduct disorder go on to develop antisocial personality disorder?

A

40%

280
Q

Parent Management Training

A

Developed by Gerald Patterson for conduct disorder; Teaches parents to reinforce prosocial behaviors and use time-outs and loss of privileges for aggressive or antisocial behaviors; alters parent-child interactions; improves sibling behavior and reduces depression in mothers; reduces rates of criminal offenses. (PMT better than other techniques)

281
Q

Multisystemic Treatment (MST)

A

For conduct disorder; intensive and comprehensive community treatment; targets adolescents, parents, school, and peers; treatment delivered at home, school, or local rec centers; emphasizes individual and family strengths; identifies context for conduct problems; interventions require daily and weekly efforts by family members

282
Q

Intellectual Distortion

A

Client mislabeling an emotion or other experience because of underdeveloped communication skills

283
Q

Psychosocial masking

A

Atypical behaviors due to poor social skills or life experiences that misrepresent another disorder

284
Q

Baseline exaggeration

A

Prior to onset of disorder, there are high levels of unusual behaviors

285
Q

Malingering

A

Exaggeration of symptoms or full fabrication of symptoms for secondary gain

286
Q

Tourette’s Disorder

A

2+ motor tics, 1+ vocal tic, for a minimum of one year, onset prior to age 18. Most cases mild. Affects 4x more males than females; exacerbated by stress

287
Q

Comorbidities with Tourette’s

A

ADHD - 50%; OCD - 40%; LD also common, ODD common, intellectual ability typically average or above with some knowledge of their tics

288
Q

Neurological findings of Tourette’s

A

Reduced caudate nucleus volume, possible damage to caudate nucleus and putamen (structures of basal ganglia); overactivation of dopamine (particularly D2 receptors) appears responsible for exaggerated, isolated, or random activation of the putamen resulting in involuntary vocalizations

289
Q

Dopamine agonist medication and Tourette’s

A

May worsen symptoms of ADHD

290
Q

Primozide

A

A neuroleptic drug used to help reduce tics of Tourette’s Disorder

291
Q

Fluoxetine

A

An antidepressant used to treat OCD and depression

292
Q

Clonodine

A

A drug originally developed to treat high blood pressure; it may be helpful in controlling tics, ADHD symptoms, and for some stabilizes mood

293
Q

Illusion of control

A

Occurs when an inflated sense of control and efficacy for completing taks helps buffer against anxiety, stress, and depression and promotes well-being

294
Q

Severe manic episodes

A

Feature grandiose delusions or hallucinations

295
Q

Medications for mania

A

Lithium - high risk of toxicity; anticonvulsants, such as valprioc acid and carbamazepine

296
Q

Etiological Theories regarding phobias

A

Psychoanalytic: No difference between social or specific, anxiety is a result of repressed id impulses. Biological theory: Genes and autonomic nervous system lability cause phobias. Cognitive Theory: Specific phobias arise from classical conditioning and are maintained through operant conditioning. More difficult to treat because they arise from both cognitive and behavioral factors.

297
Q

What is the first widely used behavioral treatment for phobias?

A

Systematic desensetization - utilizes relaxation and exposure to progressively more fearful stimuli in process known as reciprocal inhibition

298
Q

Reciprocal practice

A

Similar to systematic desensitization that involved gradual exposures. Also engages client in other behavioral activities to overcome the fear

299
Q

Interoceptive exposure

A

Exposure to internal cues that resemble panic-like symptoms

300
Q

Meds helpful for phobias?

A

Benzos, antidepressants, and anxiolytics. Paroxetine (Paxil) and Gabepentin (Neurontin) indicated for social phobia.

301
Q

Gender differences with Schizophrenia

A

Men and women get it equally, but men develop earlier (mid-20s) than women (late-20s). Women have better premorbid functioning and prognosis, display more affective symptoms, paranoid delusions, and hallucinations. Men display more negative symptoms and have worse premorbid functioning and worse prognosis

302
Q

Good prognostic indicators for Schizophrenia

A

Paranoid type; positive symptoms

303
Q

Neurotransmitter disturbances with Schizophrenia

A

Dopamine theory: prefrontal damage causes dopamine neurons to be under active. Serotonin, glutamate and GABA also involved.

304
Q

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

A

Characterized by eccentric interpersonal style, magical thinking, and illusions

305
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder

A

Characterized by a lack of desire to form social relationships, withdrawn, secretive

306
Q

Derealization

A

A person’s detached sense of reality from the environment

307
Q

Five stages of burnout

A

Honeymoon, awakening, brownout, despair, hitting the wall

308
Q

Three components fo burnout

A

Emotional exhaustion (drained by work demands), depersonalization and cynicism (treating others as objects), and low personal accomplishments or ineffectiveness (powerless, difficulty coping, difficulty understanding others’ problems)

309
Q

Habituation

A

A decrease in responsiveness resulting from repeated exposure to a stimulus

310
Q

Inhibition

A

The weakening of a conditioned response through extinction, and unconditioned response through habituation, or by the occurrence of a distracting stimulus.

311
Q

Beck Hopelessness Scale

A

20-item scale; High BHS scores and high BDI-II have very high risk of suicidal ideation

312
Q

Personalization

A

AKA attribution, it is assuming you or other directly caused things when that may not have been the case; when applied to others this is an example of blame

313
Q

Watson

A

Known for his work in Classical Conditioning

314
Q

Skinner

A

Most commonly associated with Operant Conditioning

315
Q

Bandura

A

Best known for work on Social Learning Theory

316
Q

Labeling

A

Related to overgeneralization; rather than describing the specific behavior, you assign a label to yourself or someone else that puts that person in absolute and unalterable terms

317
Q

Mental filter

A

Focusing exclusively on particular aspects of something while ignoring the rest, usually negative or upsetting aspects are those attended to

318
Q

Automatic speech

A

Speech that erupts involuntarily; it sometimes occurs as a consequence of senility, dementia, heightened emotional states, and in a small amount of people with Tourette’s

319
Q

Functional explanation

A

Emotional disturbance as an imbalance within the whole organism that interferes with normal functioning

320
Q

Lockean Psychology

A

People are born with a blank slate; all knowledge is learned; we gain knowledge through accidental associations from interactions with the physical world.

321
Q

Lockean primary qualities

A

Sensations that correspond to physical attributes (shape, mobility, solidity)

322
Q

Lockean secondary qualities

A

Sensations with no physical attribute, but are perceived and organized by the person, such as color, smell, and taste

323
Q

Relativism

A

An approach to understanding human behavior that posits all human behavior is shaped by cultural patterns

324
Q

Complementary Communication

A

Watzlawick, Beavin, and Jackson. In complementary communication, one person leads the other person. In symmetrical communication, leadership is equal and either person takes the lead.

325
Q

Elaborative Rehearsal

A

A type of rehearsal proposed by Craik and Lockhart (1972) in their Levels of Processing model of memory. In contrast to maintenance rehearsal (which involves simple rote repetition) elaborative rehearsal involves deep semantic processing of a “to be remembered” item, resulting in the production of durable memories.

326
Q

Mystification

A

Where a family member befuddles, confuses, or masks what is really going on, as when he or she speaks with such generalities as “the feeling just isn’t there”.

327
Q

Pseudohostility

A

Superficial bickering that masks the real conflicts between people

328
Q

Social Exchange Model

A

Thibaut and Kelley. Exchanges of behavior over time, whereby behaviors in one person induce corresponding behaviors in another.

329
Q

Narrative Therapy

A

White: A theoretical approach to treatment that values the stories of experiences shared by clients