Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Wilkins > Clinical Orientation FINAL SG > Flashcards

Clinical Orientation FINAL SG Flashcards

1
Q

Sally Sue is a 35 YO female who presents for her cleaning today. She tells you “My gums are bleeding when I brush”. She had infective endocarditis when she was 12yo. Is pregnant and has experienced morning sickness for 3 months and taking prenatal vitamins. Allergic to Mezlin
what is appropriate prophylactic antibiotic premedication regimen?

A

Clindamycin 600mg orally 1 hour before procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sally Sue is a 35 YO female who presents for her cleaning today. She tells you “My gums are bleeding when I brush”. She had infective endocarditis when she was 12yo. Is pregnant and has experienced morning sickness for 3 months and taking prenatal vitamins. Allergic to Mezlin
without prophylatic antibiotic premedication this patient is at risk of developing

A

endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a blood pressure reading of 142/93mmHg is classified as

A

mild hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

an example of a latent infection is

A

shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

an example of an RNA virus is

A

hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

infection in bloodstream could be termed all except

A

focal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is the mechanism of antiviral action of AZT

A

inhibits reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MOST common testing procedure to detect infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) measures

A

T-lymphocyte function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HIV belongs to what virus family

A

retroviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when evaluating patients diet, MOST important factor in demineralization process is

A

frequency of intake of fermentable carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

all of the following are proper posture techniques to be performed by the practicing clinical hygienist except…

A

position arms more than 20 degrees away from body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in relationship to the operators hips and knees, which of the following is proper high of operator’s chair except

A

hips slightly higher than knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F:
to maintain a neutral body posture, the operator should reduce unnecessary bending and stretching during the appointment. One way to do this is to place frequently used instruments an arm’s length from seated position

A

true and true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

all of the following are positions operators should avoid except one

A

keep wrist in neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

all of the following strategies help eliminate or reduce static loading except…

A

working w/ feet elevated when possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

while providing patient services, how should operator be positioned on the operator’s chair

A

sit on entire seat w/ both feet on floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which of the following Korotkoff sounds denotes systolic pressure

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal respiration rate for an adult in breaths per minute is

A

14-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common artery to palpate when taking and evaluating the pulse rate is

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

an increase in pulse rate is

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which of the following, in beats per minute, is the normal resting pulse rate for an adult

A

60-110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the surface antigen for hepatitis B indicate

A

active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what serum marker indicates low titer

A

anti HBe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F:
infection with hepatitis A can result in a chronic infection. Hepatitis C and hepatitis E were originally named non-A, non-B hepatitis

A

false and true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted through the

A

fecal oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hepatitis B is transmitted through

A

blood and all body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

immunity to Heptatits B is indicated by

A

anti-HBs in blood serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hepatitis C can be acquired by

A

percutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what serum marker correlates with viral replication

A

HbeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

hepatitis E is transmitted though

A

contaminated water and person to person by fecal oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what serum marker represents HBe antigen

A

HbeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which is true of Hepatitis B

A

has an incubation period of 2-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

percutaneous, blood, needles

A

HCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

coinfection with HBV, blood, sexual contact, perinatal

A

delta hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

fecal oral, food, water, shellfish

A

HAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

blood and all bodily fluids, sexual contact, perinatal

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

fecal-oral, contaminated water

A

HEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

hepatitis vaccine is given at what interval

A

0,1,6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

while activating the instrument, the finger rest acts as a

A

pivot point for movement, stabilizing point for the hand, and fulcrum for activation of wrist forearm motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

rolling the handle of the explorer between the thumb and fingers is important because it

A

key to adapting working end around line angles and in depressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when determining the cause of gingival recession on the facial surface of a first premolar, the clinician should observe the attachment of the

A

buccal frena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which of the following oral structures is associated with the torus palatinus

A

palatine raphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does akyloglossia refer to

A

short lingual frena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does ankylosis refer to

A

prevents eruption and orthodontic movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hepatitis D superimposes on the chronic

A

HbsAg carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

clostridium tetani (tetanus bacillus), staphylococcus aureus, and enteric bacteria are among the organisms that may travel in the

A

dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which of the following lesions is strongly associated with HIV infections

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

phase before lesion appears is called the _____ phase

A

prodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in patient states they have a cold sore, fever blister, DH should

A

reappoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

which fungal infection is most frequently occurring oral infection

A

oral candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

drug used to treat herpes simplex virus infections

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

tetanus also known as lock jaw is a

A

spread though airborne transmission

cause spore forming bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which disease is blood borne

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does surface antigen for hepatitis B indicate

A

active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

full name of dentist who is considered “father of dental hygiene”

A

Alfred C Fones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

first dental hygienist

A

Irene Newman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

coined term odonticurist

A

F.W. Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

large circular papillae at posterior region of the dorsum of the tongue, that form a “V” shape are called

A

circumvallate papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

most common malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

high risk profile in US for oral cancer is

A

excessive sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

most common site of oral cavity for oral cancer

A

lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

test can be used in dental office setting and consists of a transepithelial specimen spread on a slide

A

exfoliated cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

in HIV/AIDS, which cell in immune system is changed, replicated and then destroyed

A

T-4 (T-helper lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what procedure would you utilize with treating HIV/AIDS patient

A

disposable barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

not a symptom of AIDS

A

wickham’s striae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

not passed on through blood

A

hepatitis a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Passed on through fecal contamination

A

Hep A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Type of Hepatitis without vaccine

A

Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Reflection of light from lingual aspect through the teeth

A

Transillumination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Operating distance from patients mouth to eyes of operator

A

16”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Periodontal pocket is a:

A

Diseased sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Normal adult body temperature range

A

97.0-99.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mesial cavity in mand right second premolar classified as

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Gingival fibers arise from alveolar crest and inserts corona lot into lamina propria

A

Alveologingingival fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Chemical agents EPA registered for surface disinfection include

A

Sodium hypochlorite, iodophors, synthetic phenols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Structure non keratinized

A

Sulcular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Term used to describe a flat, nonraised lesion

A

Macule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Prerequisite for caries development except

A

Gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Streptococci most strongly cariogenic bacteria in mouth

A

S. mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Term used to describe lesion that is stem like

A

Pedunculated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Term describing premalignant lesion

A

Leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Through proper treatment and home care, hygienist hopes patient exhibits what gingival characteristic

A

Pink, attached, stippled, gingiva, red alveolar mucosa, pointed firm papilla

83
Q

Hygienist may recognize detrimental oral habits through

A

Dental or med hx, oral exam, question patient

84
Q

Most effective way to wear PPE gown

A

Cover clothing, knit cuffs covering, ties or velcro on back of gown

85
Q

With 0 degree angulation, the face of curette blade would be

A

Flat against two surface

86
Q

Greatest skill effective exploring or scaling distal/lingual line angle of tooth #18

A

Rolling instrument handle between fingers

87
Q

Primary reason for removing subgingival calculus bc it:

A

Acts as mechanical irritant

88
Q

Chronic liver disease may follow infection with

A

Hep B & D

89
Q

Situation NOT an issue when planning dental appt for patient

A

Drug interactions or clearance

90
Q

Viruses that persist in body & cause recurrent disease

A

Latent

91
Q

Which is not an oral manifestation of HIV

A

Pneumocystis carnii

92
Q

Black hairy tongue involves elongation of

A

Filiform papillae

93
Q

How often should patient perform oral cancer self exam

A

Monthly

94
Q

During oral cancer self exam, encourage patient to report all except

A

Bad odor

95
Q

TF

Virus cannot replicate outside a living organism; virus single strand nucleic acid

A

True; false

96
Q

TF

HIV can be transmitted by saliva; presence of HIV antibodies indicates immunity for AIDS

A

False; False

97
Q

Herpetic lesion of finger

A

Herpetic whitlow

98
Q

Infectious mono caused by what

A

Epstein-Barr virus

99
Q

Important human disease barrier

A

Intact skin

100
Q

40yr old man works at blood bank doesnt wear gloves; what disease might client have?

A

Hep B

101
Q

40 year old man:

Best choice of treatment for this client

A

Refer to physician & reschedule according to physician recommendation

102
Q

Greatest possibility of contracting herpetic whitlow would be touching patients

A

Saliva & vesicular lesions

103
Q

Wearing protective eyewear during professional oral healthcare prevents:

A

Herpes & injury

104
Q

After a known carrier of hep B has been treated, dental instruments should be

A

Processed the same

105
Q

Hand cleansers least likely to contribute disease transmission

A

Liquid only

106
Q

Behaviors associated with hand washing that are recommended

A

Short scrub beginning of day

107
Q

DH perform perio therapy on client with no complications what should the DH wear

A

Protective eyewear, mask, gloves, gown

108
Q

How often should face mask be changed

A

After each client

109
Q

Prevent disease transmission which is most acceptable

A

Small earrings

110
Q

Designing sterilization area, whats most crucial

A

Separation of contaminated and non contaminated areas

111
Q

Reason for selecting a chemical sterilant for instruments

A

Limited sterilization few heat sensitive items if ethelyne oxide unavailable

112
Q

Purchasing spore strips, which do you order

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

113
Q

Mrs needatoothfix’s “fever blisters” are

A

Herpes simplex

114
Q

Mrs needatoothfix’s med hx revealed info to make clinician suspect

A

Diabetes causing exaggerated response to plaque effects & delayed healing

115
Q

Mrs needatoothfixs contracted primary herpetic infection causing fever blisters between ages of

A

2-5 years

116
Q

Behaviors associated with hand washing that are recommended

A

Short scrub beginning of day

117
Q

DH perform perio therapy on client with no complications what should the DH wear

A

Protective eyewear, mask, gloves, gown

118
Q

How often should face mask be changed

A

After each client

119
Q

Prevent disease transmission which is most acceptable

A

Small earrings

120
Q

Designing sterilization area, whats most crucial

A

Separation of contaminated and non contaminated areas

121
Q

Reason for selecting a chemical sterilant for instruments

A

Limited sterilization few heat sensitive items if ethelyne oxide unavailable

122
Q

Purchasing spore strips, which do you order

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

123
Q

Mrs needatoothfix’s “fever blisters” are

A

Herpes simplex

124
Q

Mrs needatoothfix’s med hx revealed info to make clinician suspect

A

Diabetes causing exaggerated response to plaque effects & delayed healing

125
Q

Mrs needatoothfixs contracted primary herpetic infection causing fever blisters between ages of

A

2-5 years

126
Q

mrs. needatoothfix’s tongue is symptomatic of

A

geographic tongue

127
Q

what is one disadvantage of chemical vapor pressure sterilization

A

adequate ventilation necessary

128
Q

the DHYGst is using a standard dry-heat oven to sterilize instruments. The oven is preheated and the instruments have reached the same temperature as the oven. approximately how long will it take until sterilization is achieved

A

2 hours

129
Q

in the autoclave, wrapped instruments packs should be arranged loosely and placed as upright as possible so that

A

steam can penetrate

130
Q

most plastics can be renewed by which biologically verifiable method of sterilization

A

ethlyene oxide

131
Q

if instruments are sterilized with out being wrapped, they must be

A

directly transported to treatment area for immediate use

132
Q

after use, the preferred method of cleaning instruments is by

A

placing instruments in an ultrasonic cleaning unit

133
Q

the oral healthcare team uses ethylene oxide for sterilization. if you are responsible for purchasing spore strips to test sterility, which would you order

A

bacillus subtilis

134
Q

temperatures over ____ may destroy sharp edges of cutting instruments

A

160

135
Q

the term_____lines the tooth socket

A

radigraphically: lamina dura
formal: alveolar proper

136
Q

periodontal pockets can best be detected by

A

probing sulcular area

137
Q

which of the following about subgingival plaque is true

A

growth and pathogenicity are strongly influenced by supragingival plaque

138
Q

which of the following about supracalculus is true

A

supracalculus does not migrate to become subcalculus

139
Q

sharpy’s fibers are primarily made of

A

collagen

140
Q

tissue consistency refers to

A

resiliency

141
Q

mucogingival junction located btwn

A

attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa

142
Q

tissue that has little or no keratinization

A

sulcular epithelium and alveolar mucosa

143
Q

first bacteria to be deposited on tooth in bacterial plaque formation are

A

gram positive cocci

144
Q

the gingival fibers

A

brace marginal gingiva against tooth

145
Q

the periodontium consist of all except

A

enamel

146
Q

attachment apparatus consist of

A

PDL, bone, cementum

147
Q

principal fibers consist of

A

apical, horizontal, interradicular, oblique, alveolar crest

148
Q

gingival fibers consist of

A

dentogingival, transseptal, circumferential, dentoperiosteal, alveologingival

149
Q

type of mucosa on dorsum of tongue

A

specialized

150
Q

area within periodontium most susceptible to tissue breakdown is

A

gingival sulcus

151
Q

on completion of client’s gingival assessment, hygienist noted gingivae normal in appearance except on facial area of 28&29. in this area of inflammation, noted on gingival margin. all sucluar readings btwn 1-3mm and bases of sluci are at cej, most accurate description?

A

localized marginal gingivitis

152
Q

during periodontal exam 4mm pocket detected on direct facial surface of tooth 19. gingival margin located at CEJ. what type of pocket

A

periodontal pocket

153
Q

mucogingival problem exists when

A

less than 2mm of attached gingiva

154
Q

gingivitis is initiated most often by

A

microorganisms and their products

155
Q

probe reading of 6mm measures distance from

A

epithelial attachment to gingival margin

156
Q

localized recession that may be v-shaped, slitlike indention

A

stillman’s cleft

157
Q

following most reliable clinical sign of gingival inflammation

A

bleeding upon gentle probing

158
Q

following methods most successful for prevention of periodontal disease

A

regular oral self care practices and regular oral prophylaxis

159
Q

enlargement of marginal gingiva with formation of a lifesaver-like gingival prominence

A

mccalls festoons

160
Q

etiologic factor associated with high risk of oral cancer

A

habitual smoking

161
Q

prevention and control of dental diseases are

A

primarily goal of client education

162
Q

during oral cancer self exam, all of following conditions indicate to client a significant deviation from normal except

A

bilateral linear alba

163
Q

during DH maintenance appt the DHst and patient set goals and determine the course of action for the appointment what phase of process of care

A

planning

164
Q

determining that a client is dissatisfied with appearance of his/her tooth should occur within ____ phase

A

assessment

165
Q

self examination for oral cancer

A

introduces concept of “normal ranges”

166
Q

____ is development of dental caries

A

cariogenesis

167
Q

microorganisms that can grow in presence of free oxygen is

A

aerobe

168
Q

acute gingivitis appears in about

A

1 week

169
Q

plaque is primarily made of what

A

80% water

170
Q

what is hardest surface in oral cavity

A

(enamel but it’s not a choice) dentin

171
Q

T/F: subgingival plaque develops as result of downgrowth of supragingival plaque bacteria

A

false

172
Q

lesions are close to each other with margins that merge are

A

coalescing

173
Q

discrete, not running together, may be arranged in clusters

A

separate

174
Q

lesions of oral mucosa that appear as bright red patches

A

erythroplakia

175
Q

mass of tissue that projects outward from normal surface level called

A

polyp

176
Q

periodontal fibers that are located in root furcation area

A

interradicular

177
Q

in oral cavity, one way in which lining mucosa differs from masticatory mucosa is that

A

lining mucosa not keratinized

178
Q

following 2 diseases represent different forms of infection with same agent

A

shingles and chickenpox

179
Q

while a 35yo woman being seated in dental chair, a lesion is noted on lips. it appears as several discrete vesicles; some have ulcerated. when questioned the woman says she always gets sore like that before she gets a cold

A

herpes labialis

180
Q

waterlines best disinfected by

A

3-5 minutes

181
Q

Not a method of reducing airborne trasmissions of infectious agents

A

Rinsing mouth with air/water spray

182
Q

Which statement is false

A

All disinfection procedures kill bacterial spores and mycobacterium tuberculosis

183
Q

which is not a method of reducing airborne transmission of infectious agents

A

rinsing mouth with air/water spray

184
Q

which statement false

A

all disinfection on procedures kill bacteria spores

185
Q

to be classified as hospital-grade disinfectant, a disinfectant must be able to kill

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

186
Q

to retrieve additional gauze from drawer during oral prophylaxis appt. one should do what

A

wear overgloves

187
Q

HIV causes significant health changes in infected individuals by

A

attacking t-4 lymphocytes causing increasing in opportunistic infesting

188
Q

biological testing during sterilization process must be accomplished on a ____ basis to ensure effectiveness of process

A

weekly

189
Q

identify false statement regarding infection control procedures

A

gloves should be washed btwn pts to prevent spread of disease

190
Q

all of following standard agents used in disinfection except

A

alcohols

191
Q

LA participates in what regional board

A

CITA

192
Q

type of supervision LA ? stipulation?

A

general supervision
hygienist must have been working for 2 years
patient have been seen by dentist first
no new patient under general supervision

193
Q

which value means performing services for good of patient

A

beneficence

194
Q

father of preventive dentistry

A

Thaddeus P. Hyatt

195
Q

what is picture of?

A

oral CDX brush

196
Q

phenytoin

A

anticonvulsant

197
Q

Cyclosporine

A

immunosuppressant

198
Q

nephedipine

A

calcium channel blocker

199
Q

dilantin

A

anticonvulsant

200
Q

neoral

A

immunosuppressant

201
Q

procardia

A

calcium channel blocker

202
Q

ends in “olol”

A

beta blocker

203
Q

most common diuretic

A

HCTZ

204
Q

ends in “pril”

A

ace inhibitor

Wilkins (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions