Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TERM 2 > Clinical Assessment > Flashcards

Clinical Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Define diagnosis

A

A term denoting the disease or syndrome a person has or is believed to have
Identification and naming of a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some ways to gather information in order to make a diagnosis?

A

Identification of a disease by history, physical examination, laboratory studies, and radiological studies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What act are diagnosis protected under?

A

Regulated Health Professions Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a requirement in order to be permitted to give a diagnosis?

A

Professions able to communicate a diagnosis have access and training to interpret diagnostic tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Assessment

A

An appraisal or evaluation of a patient’s condition

An educated evaluation of a clients condition and physical basis for their symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the goal of an assessment?

A

A means to fully understand that patients problems, from the patients perspective as well as the clinicians, and the physical basis for the symptoms that have caused the patient to complain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Impairment

A

Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function.
Impairment of the client’s body structure or function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some ways impairment occurs?

A

Medical condition, Pathology or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can an impairment be treated using a wellness model of care?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 5 reasons it is required we assess?

A
  1. Safe treatment plan
  2. Effective treatment plan
  3. Monitor progress/ effectiveness
  4. A means to communicate with other health professionals.
  5. Required by law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What four things a therapist should know in order to carry out a safe treatment plan?

A
  • Identify red flags (Serious underlying pathologies)
  • Previous injury
  • Medications
  • Underlying health condition or pathology that may contraindicate the treatment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What information should be gathered in order to carry out an effective treatment?

A
  • Identify clients goals
  • Identify impairments
  • Establish goals for treatment
  • Facilitates treatment that has direction and intent
  • ensures that you are treating the cause of the complaint, otherwise treatment will yield poor results.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are SOAP notes?

A 
Soap notes are an acronym that stands for:
Subjective information
Objective Information
Assessment
Plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What information should be included in Subjective Data?

A

Patients perception of current symptoms

Health history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a client is returning for the second time what information should be collected to be put under subjective data?

A

Have their symptoms changed? and did they comply with self care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What information should be included in objective data?

A

Practitioners observations, testing, and physical findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some ways to find objective data?

A

Postural observations
Palpation
Functional/ROM testing and special orthopedic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The assessment portion of the intake process should include?

A
  • what you believe the cause of the complaint to be
  • an interpretation of the subjective & objective data
  • concise statement that can include more then one finding.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Your interpretation of the subjective and objective information in student clinic would be known as?

A

A clinical impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The planning portion of the intake process should include?

A
  • What the therapist will do to treat the problem
  • Treatment aims/ goals are stated along with the strategies to attain them.
  • Techniques used i.e type of massage, stretching, TrT therapy, self care, hydrotherapy, client education)
  • what structure those techniques were applied to and for how long
  • number and frequency of future treatments & when to re-examine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 6 steps to the evaluation process during intake?

A

Step 1: Conduct Subjective Examination
Step 2: Generate preliminary Clinical Hypothesis
Step 3: Conduct Objective Examination
Step 4: Confirm the clinical Hypothesis
Step 5: Summarize Clinical Findings
Step 6: Determine Appropriateness for Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is involved in conducting a Subjective examination?

A
  • Determine if there is a specific diagnosis

If so ask relating questions to the diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens if while conducting a subjective examination no prior diagnosis has been given?

A

elicit general information that serves to clarify the presenting problem and suggest a clinical diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is involved when conducting an objective examination?

A
  • Observe Client
  • Select Tests & Measures
  • Examine the client
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Generally what sequence should an assessment protocol follow?

A
  1. Case History
  2. Observation
  3. Palpation
  4. Rule outs
  5. Functional tests
  6. Special Tests
  7. Muscle Tests
  8. Neurological Tests
  9. Joint Play examination
  10. Lesion site palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which tests of the assessment protocol involve ROM/ AF/ PR/ AR?

A

Functional tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 8 guide lines of clinical assessment?

A
  1. Observe bilaterally
  2. Test unaffected side first
  3. Do the most painful test last
  4. If pain is reported during a test stop and identify location and nature of the pain.
  5. Take a thorough case history
  6. Always support the limp in a secure neutral position
  7. Rule out the proximal and distal joints
  8. Be aware of referred pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the position High seated?

A

Hips and knees are at 90 degree flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe Long seated position?

A

Hips at 90 degree flexion, knees extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the position Hook lying?

A

Supine, hips at 45 degrees flexion, knees at 90 degree flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is it ever ok to ask closed ended questions?

A

Yes at times it will help you gather important information and keep the interview focused.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What general information should be gathered during the intake?

A 
Presenting Complaint
General Health 
Occupation 
M.D & Meds
Previous Injury 
Pain
Function
Therapies
Current Symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two types or causes of pain?

A

Inflammatory

Mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes pain during an inflammatory response?

A

Pain results from chemical irritants of inflammation

Pain as a result of swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes a mechanical response to pain?

A

Pain results from the stretch or compression of pain and sensitive structures
These structures contain nociceptors, when they are stimulated, produce painful sensations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Acute pain?

A

Pain provoked by a harmful stimulation produced by injury or disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define chronic pain?

A

Pain that persists beyond the usual course of healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Chronic pain syndrome?

A

A clinical syndrome in which clients present high levels of pain that is chronic in duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define neurogenic Pain?

A

Pain as a result of non inflammatory dysfunction of the peripheral or central nervous system that does not involve nociceptors stimulation or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define referred Pain?

A

Pain that is felt at another location of the body that is distant from the tissues that have caused it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why does referred pain occur?

A

occurs because the same or adjacent neural segments supply the referred site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Radiculopathy is also know as?

A

Radicular or nerve root pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is radiculopathy?

A

Pain that is felt in a dermatome, myotome, or sclerotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does radiculopathy involve?

A

Spinal nerve or nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

an area of the skin supplied by one dorsal nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What can cause dermatome pain?

A

Injury can cause sensory alteration to the skin, or pain (usually burning or electric)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is myotome?

A

A group of muscles supplied by one nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is sclerotomal?

A

An area of bone or fascia innervated by a nerve root.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define visceral pain?

A

Pain that can be felt in a dermatome as a result of visceral injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is trigger point pain?

A

referred pain arising from a trigger point

51
Q

What are some pain syndromes untreated trigger points can cause?

A

radiculopathy
tension headaches
frozen shoulders
tennis elbow

52
Q

What does the acronym LOFDSAQ stand for?

A 
Location
Onset
Frequency
Duration
Severity
Aggravating/ relieving 
Quality
53
Q

What is Peripheralization?

A

As lesions worsens, the area of pain enlarges and moves distally from the original lesion this is known as peripheralization

54
Q

As the pain resolves it becomes more localized this is known as?

A

centralization

55
Q

What does it mean when pain is coming from a local area?

A

Usually indicates a lesion to a superficial structure such as muscles or tendons

56
Q

What does it mean when pain is diffused?

A

Pain that is not coming from one localized area

57
Q

What kind of injuries can cause diffused pain?

A 
Injury to a deep neural somatic structure
Joint subluxation or dislocation
Severe hematoma
Fractures
Trigger Points
58
Q

What are some questions that need to be answered when it comes to onset?

A

Was there a mechanism of injury (MOI)

How quickly did the pain or dysfunction begin

59
Q

What does insidious onset mean?

A

It means it happens gradually

60
Q

When someone reports of experiencing pain in an area all the time what might that indicate?

A

Usually indicates a severe injury or still in an active inflammatory state

61
Q

When do ligaments cause pain?

A

When they are overstretched

62
Q

When do muscles cause pain?

A

When contracted or stretched

63
Q

What can sometime cause pain in the morning?

A

Sometimes caused by adaptive shortening

64
Q

What does pain and stiffness in the more sometimes indicate?

A

Intrascapular swelling that builds overnight due to inactivity

65
Q

Pain at night often indicates?

A

suggest inflammation due to overuse/ excessive stress

Postural strain

66
Q

What does pain during weight bearing often indicate?

A

Pain only with weight bearing suggests articular (joint surface) or muscular injury

67
Q

What are three ways to measure the severity of pain?

A

Verbal pain scale
Visual Analogue scale
mild/ moderate/ severe

68
Q

What is something to look for when discussing aggravating factors of an injury?

A

any specific movements or positions that reproduce the pain

69
Q

When pain is associated with feeling sharp if frequently means that the pain typically is coming from what part of the body?

A 
The Skin and fascia
Superficial muscle
superficial ligament
acute inflammation 
periosteum (tennis elbow)
Radicular pain
70
Q

When pain is felt as being dull it is usually coming from what part of the body?

A 
Joints
deep muscle
Chronic muscles injuries
subchondral bone
chronic inflammation
deep or peripheral nerve
trigger points 
reffered pain
71
Q

When pain is felt as tingling or parasthesia it usually comes from?

A

Nerve injury

Circulatory problems

72
Q

What can cause numbness?

A

Can be caused by damage or impingement of nerve innervating a particular area.

73
Q

What does the sensation of a twinge pain feel similar to?

A

plucking on a string

74
Q

What can cause a twinge?

A

Could be due to a local injury to a muscle or ligament

75
Q

What can cause snapping or clicking?

A

Can be caused by a tendon flipping over a bone, thickened bursa, meniscal tear, or synovial plica

76
Q

What causes “grating”?

A

grating is most commonly caused by osteoarthritic changes to the joint

77
Q

Sound of tearing during an injury may indicate what?

A

a muscle or ligament tearing

78
Q

When a joint locks or catches what may this suggest about the injury?

A

That there is a loose body within the joint

79
Q

What is a loose body?

A

Meniscal tear in which the part torn off stays within the joint capsule

80
Q

When a joint gives way or is unstable what might this suggest?

A

severe joint injury damage especially to primary stabilizing ligaments

81
Q

What causes popping in a joint?

A

caused by negative pressure within a tendon synovial sheath, a tendon flipping over a boney prominence, or possibly by rupture of ligament or tendon

82
Q

When conducting an observation on a patient what are some things to look for?

A 
Swelling
Altered function
Redness
Deformities 
Imbalances
83
Q

When palpating what is the most important T of the 4 T’s?

A

Temperature

84
Q

What are the four T’s of palpation?

A

Texture
Tone
Tenderness
Temperature

85
Q

When conducting rules what is a good starting point?

A

to assess the joints above and below the affected area

86
Q

What is an active free test?

A

Amount of joint motion that can be achieved by the client during the performance of unassisted voluntary joint motion

87
Q

What is an passive relaxed test?

A

Amount of joint motion available when an examiner moves a joint through its anatomical or physiological range, without assistance from the client, while the client is relaxed.

88
Q

What is an active resisted test?

A

Used to determine the status of the contractile unit with the use of controlled isometric contractions, along the normal planes of movement of a given joint.

89
Q

Resistance during an active resisted test should last for durations of how long?

A

5 seconds at a time

90
Q

What range should your patient be in when conducting active resistance test?

A

Midrange

91
Q

Which functional test typically should always be done first?

A

Active free test

92
Q

How is the arrangement of testing done?

A

Most painful last

93
Q

What kinds of tissues does passive testing engage?

A

Inert tissue and contractile tissue

94
Q

What kinds of tissues does resisted testing engage?

A

engages contractile tissue only

95
Q

What is the goal of functional testing?

A

To try and reproduce the pain/ dysfunction

96
Q

What should be documented when conducting an active free test?

A 
willingness to move the joint
clients mobility or available ROM 
Amount of observable restriction
Pain
Quality of movement
Compensation 
Noises
97
Q

If a client comes in with a strained muscle what should be the order of testing?

A

Active free/ passive relaxed/ active resisted

98
Q

If a client comes in with an injury to a ligament what should be the order of testing?

A

Active free/ Active resisted/ passive relaxed

99
Q

How much force should be used during passive relaxed testing?

A

Enough force to determine the clients limitations

100
Q

What does passive relaxed test test?

A

test the inert joint structures

101
Q

What two tests can cause contractile tissue pain?

A

Passive relaxed and active resisted

102
Q

What should be documented when conducting a passive relaxed test?

A

Hypermobility
Hypomobility
If, when, and where they feel pain
the end feel i.e bone on bone

103
Q

what technique is used to feel the end feel or end range?

A

Over Pressure

104
Q

What are Cyriax’s six end feels?

A
  1. Tissue approximation
  2. bone to bone
  3. Tissue Stretch
  4. Muscle spasm
  5. Capsular
  6. Spring block
  7. Empty end feel
105
Q

what example off tissue approximation?

A

knee flexion

106
Q

What is an example of bone to bone?

A

Elbow extension

107
Q

What is an example of tissue stretch?

A

Internal rotation

108
Q

What is an example of capsular?

A

Early stretch

109
Q

What Cyriax notes four possible findings with resisted testing?

A
  1. Strong and Painless
  2. Strong and painful
  3. Weak and painless
  4. Weak and painful
110
Q

What does strong and painless result from a resistance test usually mean?

A

1-2 degree muscle strain

A minor lesion

111
Q

What does weak and painless results from a resistance test usually mean?

A

Interruption of nerve supply/ compression syndrome
Complete rupture of a muscle tendon
Nerve torn off no pain

112
Q

What does weak and painful results from a resistance test usually mean?

A

Partial rupture of a muscle tendon

painful inhibition caused by pathology

113
Q

What is Oxford Manual Muscle testing scale?

A 
Rated 0-5
0 no contraction
1 slight 
2 produce movement with gravity eliminated
3 overcome gravity
4 overcome some resistance
5 overcomes maximal resistance
114
Q

When should palpation be performed?

A

at assessment points and through out the treatment

115
Q

What questions should you be trying to answer while palpating?

A 
What is the structure
what is the quality
how does it differ from others
how does this relate to clients history
How does the structure reflect clients function
116
Q

What are the most common errors of palpation?

A

Lack of concentration/ too much pressure/ too much movement

117
Q

What is a technique that can be used to asses the tissue when palpating?

A

Drag

118
Q

What does turgor mean?

A

Fluid pressure

119
Q

What is a physiological barrier?

A

range of motion of normal circumstances

midrange is the range with least amount of resistance

120
Q

What is a elastic barrier?

A

When tissue is passed its passive range

121
Q

What is an anatomical barrier?

A

final resistance to normal range any further movement will cause damage to the tissue

122
Q

What is a fasciculations?

A

They are localized subconscious muscle contractions that do not involve the who muscle

123
Q

What does crepitus mean?

A

Clicks or crunchy

TERM 2 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions