Class 8-9 - Immunology Flashcards
List examples of innate immunity.
Skin, gastric juice, lymphatic system, specific markers (antigens) on cells
Acquired immunity is ___________
immunity developed after birth as a result of disease or vaccinations
Specific immunity is _____________
the immunity that distinguishes “self” versus “non-self” based on specific cellular markers
Humoral immunity is _________
liquid form of immune defense, represented by B lymphocytes and the immuno-globulins they produce
Cellular immunity is _________
the form of immune defense represented by T lymphocytes
Passive immunity is __________
Anti-bodies produced in another organism that are administered to a human
Ie. Maternal or antibody transfers
Define self-tolerance from perspective of immunology
the ability of a healthy immune system to distinguish between “self” and “non-self”
List major organs of the immune system
Spleen, thymus, tonsils and adenoids, lymph nodes, appendix, lymphatic vessels, bone marrow
Non-specific immunity is _________. List examples of non-specific immune cells
immune defense that does not require identification of “non-self” substances/organisms to eliminate them
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells
The two major classes of lymphocytes are ________.
B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?
T lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?
humoral
cellular
The major immunoglobulin in the blood is ___
IgG
IgM is __________
the very first class of immuno-globulins produced upon the initial encounter with a specific foreign antigen
IgA is found in __________
body fluids such as tears, saliva, secretions of respiratory, genito-urinary and GI tracts
IgD is almost exclusively found in ________
inserted into membrane of B cells, where it regulates the cell’s activation
IgE is responsible for the symptoms of _______. It is usually attached to ________
allergy
basophils, eosinophils, mast cells
What type of lymphocyte regulates the immune system?
T-CD4
The difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells is _______
Cytotoxic T cells need to recognize a specific antigen
Mature B cells are known as _______. They function to ________
plasma cells
synthesize a particular antibody
Type I Hypersensitivity is ______
Type II Hypersensitivity is ______
Type III Hypersensitivity is ______
Type IV Hypersensitivity is ______
allergy, immediate hypersensitivity disorder
cytotoxic hypersensitivity, antibody-mediated disorder
Immune complex-mediated disorder
cell-mediated hypersensitivity disorders
Describe cytotoxic immune reactions
B cells and T-CD8 killers attack antigens on membranes of organs and tissue cells
In relation to blood types, blood crossing is _________ and matching is ___________
determining blood type
mixing donor and recipient blood to determine compatibility
Erythroblastosis fetalis develops when ___________
mother and fetus have different blood types
Immune complex disease is __________
formation of immune complexes (clusters of iterlocking antigens and antibodies) that are trapped in and damage tissues such as KD, LU, skin, joints, blood vessels
Serum sickness belongs to Type ___ hypersensitivity. It can be caused by ___________
III
exposure to antibodies derived from animals, exposure to certain drugs
Humoral B cells
Type IV hypersensitivity is caused by ___________. These reactions are also called ____________.
Some examples are ____________.
immuno-competent cells (T-lymphocytes)
delayed hypersensitivity reactions
Ex: Leprosy, hashimoto, transplant rejection, PPD test
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions lead to ____________
inflammatory tissue damage and infiltration of cells, which are principally lymphocytes and macrophages
Define rheumatoid arthritis
a chronic relapsing disease characterized by general ill health, chronic synovial inflammation of joints and tendons in symmetric distribution and systemic signs and symptoms
Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as a type ___ hypersensitivity. It affects individuals with cell markers _____ on their membranes where connective tissues are being injured by Ig__
III
DR-1, DR-4
G, M
The function of the spleen w/ respect to immunology is _______
synthesize antibodies, filter out antibody-coated bacteria and blood cells
The major role of lymph nodes is _______
synthesize antibodies, scavenging infectious agents
The sub-populations of T-lymphocytes are _______
T-CD4 - helper T cells
T-CD8 Suppressors
T-CD8 - cytotoxic T cells
Describe process of triggering allergic response
First exposure to allergen - B cells produce IgE antibodies that attach to mast cells in LU, sking, tongue, nasal lining, GI tract
Subsequent exposure to allergen - IgE-primed mast cell releases chemicals that cause wheezing, sneezing, other allergic symptoms
Within pair of blood donor and recipient, whose erythrocytes will undergo hemolysis in case of incompatibility?
donor
A person with blood type AB will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type AB is the universal ________
no antibodies
A and B antigens
recipient
A person with blood type O will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type O is the universal _________
A and B antibodies
no antigens
donor
In an Rh-negative mother and her Rh+ fetus: what pregnancy is affected?
subsequent pregnancies after being sensitized during first pregnancy
Erythroblastosis fetalis is _______. What protective measures are available to avoid this condition?
destruction of erythroblasts in an fetus as a result of erythrocyte depletion
RhoGAM immuno-globulin
When should RhoGram immuno-globulins be introduced into blood of Rh-negative mother?
28 weeks of pregnancy
A positive PPD test suggests __________
prior exposure to tuberculosis via infection or vaccine
Cytotoxic immune response is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II, T Cell response
Humoral reaction is which type of hypersensitivity disorder?
Type III, B cell response.
What joints are not affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Hips and DIPS
Which disease is often seen with rheumatoid arthritis?
sjogrens : fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth
What are the two causes of osteopenia?
osteoperosis and osteomalacia
What is osteomalacia? what happens to the bone?
demineralization of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency.
Bones become softer and they break
What is osteoporosis?
Diminution of bone density
Rheumatoid arthritis affects what body tissue(s)?
bone, cartilage, tendons, joints
Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood serum (RF+) is an indicator for ________
rheumatoid arthritis
systemic sclerosis
What is rheumatoid factor (RF)?
the auto-antibody first found in rheumatoid arthritis. RF and IgG join to form immune complexes that contribute to the disease process
Sero-Negative Polyarthropathy indicates _______
no RF in blood serum (RF -)
Sero-positive Polyarthropathy indicates ________
RF +
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Sclerosis
Movement is recommended in rheumatoid arthritis (T/F)
True
Which phobia is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
kinesiophobia - fear of moving
*this is a huge dis-service to themselves and lack of movement will disable themselves.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is ________
a chronic auto-immune inflammatory illness, characterized by multi-system disorder including skin, joints, blood, kidney, lung, brain and other organs
Lupus patients develop _______ immunoglobulins that cause inflammation. Lupus erythematosus often produces a ________ rash on the face
anti-nuclear
butterfly
Lupus erythematosus is thought to be triggered by ___________
environmental factors - sunlight, diet
drugs
hormonal influences - especially estrogenic influences
Clinical presentations of SLE include __________
arthralgia, arthritis, tenosynovitis, avascular necrosis, joint deformity (uncommon), edema, redness
What is Graves disease?
An autoimmune disorder that involves overactivity of the thyroid gland
How does Graves disease affect basal metabolic reactions?
Antibodies that mimic TSH occupy TSH binding sites on thyroid gland leading to hyperthyroidism
Hallmarks of Graves disease are _________
exophthalmos (bulging eyes), heat intolerance, increased energy, difficulty sleeping, diarrhea, anxiety, hunger, weight loss
Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) is an autoimmune disease of ______ tissue characterized by _________
connective
excessive collagen deposition in the skin and internal organs such as lungs, GI tract, heart, kidneys, *mask like botox face
The limited symptoms of scleroderma are referred to by the acronym ________, which stands for _________
CREST
Calcinosis Raynaud's phenomenon Esophageal dysfunction Sclerodactyly Telangiectasias
Innate immunity is also known as ______. It is defined as ________.
natural immunity
the immune defenses we are born with and coded for in our genes
Scleroderma can be a predisposition to ________ cancer as a result of what condition? Describe this condition.
esophageal cancer
achalasia
remodeling of the esophagus, narrows down, LES fails to relax (stays closed) “esophageal jerky”
Myasthenia gravis is a disorder in which normal communication between the nerve and muscle is interrupted at the _________
neuromuscular junction
What is the treatment for scleroderma?
biologics, anti-inflammatory, Viagra – things that reduce/decrease sympathetic response
Scleroderma is aka as _______?
systemic sclerosis
In myasthenia gravis, the receptors for ________ at the muscle surface are destroyed or modulated by ________ that prevent the normal reaction from occurring.
acetylcholine (ACh)
antibodies
What is the test used for myasthenia gravis? what is the + sign?
confrontation test
eyes are tired, droopy (due to weak muscles)
Myasthenia gravis symptoms are often better at night (T/F )
False - it is worse at night, sleep makes it better (replenishes)
What are symptoms of myasthenia gravis? Provide examples
muscle weakening - swallowing difficulty, gagging, choking, paralysis, drooping head, difficulty climbing stairs, difficulty lifting objects, difficulty talking, difficulty chewing
Vision problems (starts w/eyes)- double vision, difficulty maintaining steady gaze, eyelid drooping (ptosis)
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disease of ____________ manifested by pain and progressive _________ of the spine
the joints of the vertebral column and sacroiliac joints
stiffening
Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is also know as?
Bechterew syndrome, Marie-Strumpell spondylitis, “Bamboo Spine”
Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is dominant in ________ (males/females).
It is purely genetic (T/F)
males
True
How is HIV virus transmitted?
sexually, needles (most common),
In females ankylosing spondylitis starts in the _____ and in males it starts in the ______.
neck and peripheral
sacral spine
List the conditions that can develop from ankylosing spondylitis
uveitis
peripheral arthritis (wind-moving)
circumstantial depression
Which type of HIV virus is more aggressive?
type I
What class of immunoglobulins represents humoral anamnestic “memory” response of the immune system?
IgG
Who has the highest burden of being vulnerable to HIV infection?
we are all vulnerable but some populations are more vulnerable: IV drug users (intravenous drug users), unprotected rectal intercourse, pregnant females (vertical transmission)
Which cancer is the most common in patients with AIDS?
lymphoma (often non-hodgkins - cancer of lymph glands)
List the disease stages of HIV infection
incubation
acute/prodrome
latent/carrier state
AIDS
HIV virus contains what type of genetic material?
double stranded RNA
List opportunistic infections and cancers of AIDS
herpes simplex virus (ulcers/blisters in mouth/genitals)
tuberculosis
oral/vaginal thrush - candida/fungal infections
herpes zoster (shingles)
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma (skin bruising)
HIV is most easily transmitted via _________
contaminated needles
HIV targets which cells?
T-CD4 helper, GI cells, neuroglia cells (dendrites), lymphocytes, macrophages
*they are attracted to the sanitation dept
Cell mediated immunity is lost in AIDS (T/F)
TRUE
*it targets T-CD4 helper cells
What is RNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase?
Enzyme that allows virus to transcribe RNA into DNA and translate it into proteins
normal mammal cells: DNA unwinds (double strands), then mRNA transcribes and delivers to ribosomes where translation into amino acid sequence occurs
