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Pathophysiology I > Class 8-9 - Immunology > Flashcards

Class 8-9 - Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

List examples of innate immunity.

A

Skin, gastric juice, lymphatic system, specific markers (antigens) on cells

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2
Q

Acquired immunity is ___________

A

immunity developed after birth as a result of disease or vaccinations

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3
Q

Specific immunity is _____________

A

the immunity that distinguishes “self” versus “non-self” based on specific cellular markers

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4
Q

Humoral immunity is _________

A

liquid form of immune defense, represented by B lymphocytes and the immuno-globulins they produce

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5
Q

Cellular immunity is _________

A

the form of immune defense represented by T lymphocytes

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6
Q

Passive immunity is __________

A

Anti-bodies produced in another organism that are administered to a human

Ie. Maternal or antibody transfers

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7
Q

Define self-tolerance from perspective of immunology

A

the ability of a healthy immune system to distinguish between “self” and “non-self”

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8
Q

List major organs of the immune system

A

Spleen, thymus, tonsils and adenoids, lymph nodes, appendix, lymphatic vessels, bone marrow

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9
Q

Non-specific immunity is _________. List examples of non-specific immune cells

A

immune defense that does not require identification of “non-self” substances/organisms to eliminate them

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells

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10
Q

The two major classes of lymphocytes are ________.

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes

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11
Q

B lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?

T lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?

A

humoral

cellular

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12
Q

The major immunoglobulin in the blood is ___

A

IgG

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13
Q

IgM is __________

A

the very first class of immuno-globulins produced upon the initial encounter with a specific foreign antigen

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14
Q

IgA is found in __________

A

body fluids such as tears, saliva, secretions of respiratory, genito-urinary and GI tracts

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15
Q

IgD is almost exclusively found in ________

A

inserted into membrane of B cells, where it regulates the cell’s activation

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16
Q

IgE is responsible for the symptoms of _______. It is usually attached to ________

A

allergy

basophils, eosinophils, mast cells

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17
Q

What type of lymphocyte regulates the immune system?

A

T-CD4

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18
Q

The difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells is _______

A

Cytotoxic T cells need to recognize a specific antigen

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19
Q

Mature B cells are known as _______. They function to ________

A

plasma cells

synthesize a particular antibody

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20
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity is ______
Type II Hypersensitivity is ______
Type III Hypersensitivity is ______
Type IV Hypersensitivity is ______

A

allergy, immediate hypersensitivity disorder

cytotoxic hypersensitivity, antibody-mediated disorder

Immune complex-mediated disorder

cell-mediated hypersensitivity disorders

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21
Q

Describe cytotoxic immune reactions

A

B cells and T-CD8 killers attack antigens on membranes of organs and tissue cells

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22
Q

In relation to blood types, blood crossing is _________ and matching is ___________

A

determining blood type

mixing donor and recipient blood to determine compatibility

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23
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis develops when ___________

A

mother and fetus have different blood types

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24
Q

Immune complex disease is __________

A

formation of immune complexes (clusters of iterlocking antigens and antibodies) that are trapped in and damage tissues such as KD, LU, skin, joints, blood vessels

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25
Q

Serum sickness belongs to Type ___ hypersensitivity. It can be caused by ___________

A

III

exposure to antibodies derived from animals, exposure to certain drugs

Humoral B cells

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26
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is caused by ___________. These reactions are also called ____________.
Some examples are ____________.

A

immuno-competent cells (T-lymphocytes)

delayed hypersensitivity reactions

Ex: Leprosy, hashimoto, transplant rejection, PPD test

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27
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions lead to ____________

A

inflammatory tissue damage and infiltration of cells, which are principally lymphocytes and macrophages

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28
Q

Define rheumatoid arthritis

A

a chronic relapsing disease characterized by general ill health, chronic synovial inflammation of joints and tendons in symmetric distribution and systemic signs and symptoms

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29
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as a type ___ hypersensitivity. It affects individuals with cell markers _____ on their membranes where connective tissues are being injured by Ig__

A

III
DR-1, DR-4
G, M

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30
Q

The function of the spleen w/ respect to immunology is _______

A

synthesize antibodies, filter out antibody-coated bacteria and blood cells

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31
Q

The major role of lymph nodes is _______

A

synthesize antibodies, scavenging infectious agents

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32
Q

The sub-populations of T-lymphocytes are _______

A

T-CD4 - helper T cells
T-CD8 Suppressors
T-CD8 - cytotoxic T cells

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33
Q

Describe process of triggering allergic response

A

First exposure to allergen - B cells produce IgE antibodies that attach to mast cells in LU, sking, tongue, nasal lining, GI tract
Subsequent exposure to allergen - IgE-primed mast cell releases chemicals that cause wheezing, sneezing, other allergic symptoms

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34
Q

Within pair of blood donor and recipient, whose erythrocytes will undergo hemolysis in case of incompatibility?

A

donor

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35
Q

A person with blood type AB will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type AB is the universal ________

A

no antibodies
A and B antigens
recipient

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36
Q

A person with blood type O will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type O is the universal _________

A

A and B antibodies
no antigens
donor

37
Q

In an Rh-negative mother and her Rh+ fetus: what pregnancy is affected?

A

subsequent pregnancies after being sensitized during first pregnancy

38
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is _______. What protective measures are available to avoid this condition?

A

destruction of erythroblasts in an fetus as a result of erythrocyte depletion
RhoGAM immuno-globulin

39
Q

When should RhoGram immuno-globulins be introduced into blood of Rh-negative mother?

A

28 weeks of pregnancy

40
Q

A positive PPD test suggests __________

A

prior exposure to tuberculosis via infection or vaccine

41
Q

Cytotoxic immune response is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II, T Cell response

42
Q

Humoral reaction is which type of hypersensitivity disorder?

A

Type III, B cell response.

43
Q

What joints are not affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Hips and DIPS

44
Q

Which disease is often seen with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

sjogrens : fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth

45
Q

What are the two causes of osteopenia?

A

osteoperosis and osteomalacia

46
Q

What is osteomalacia? what happens to the bone?

A

demineralization of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency.

Bones become softer and they break

47
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Diminution of bone density

48
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis affects what body tissue(s)?

A

bone, cartilage, tendons, joints

49
Q

Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood serum (RF+) is an indicator for ________

A

rheumatoid arthritis

systemic sclerosis

50
Q

What is rheumatoid factor (RF)?

A

the auto-antibody first found in rheumatoid arthritis. RF and IgG join to form immune complexes that contribute to the disease process

51
Q

Sero-Negative Polyarthropathy indicates _______

A

no RF in blood serum (RF -)

52
Q

Sero-positive Polyarthropathy indicates ________

A

RF +
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Sclerosis

53
Q

Movement is recommended in rheumatoid arthritis (T/F)

A

True

54
Q

Which phobia is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

kinesiophobia - fear of moving

*this is a huge dis-service to themselves and lack of movement will disable themselves.

55
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is ________

A

a chronic auto-immune inflammatory illness, characterized by multi-system disorder including skin, joints, blood, kidney, lung, brain and other organs

56
Q

Lupus patients develop _______ immunoglobulins that cause inflammation. Lupus erythematosus often produces a ________ rash on the face

A

anti-nuclear

butterfly

57
Q

Lupus erythematosus is thought to be triggered by ___________

A

environmental factors - sunlight, diet
drugs
hormonal influences - especially estrogenic influences

58
Q

Clinical presentations of SLE include __________

A

arthralgia, arthritis, tenosynovitis, avascular necrosis, joint deformity (uncommon), edema, redness

59
Q

What is Graves disease?

A

An autoimmune disorder that involves overactivity of the thyroid gland

60
Q

How does Graves disease affect basal metabolic reactions?

A

Antibodies that mimic TSH occupy TSH binding sites on thyroid gland leading to hyperthyroidism

61
Q

Hallmarks of Graves disease are _________

A

exophthalmos (bulging eyes), heat intolerance, increased energy, difficulty sleeping, diarrhea, anxiety, hunger, weight loss

62
Q

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) is an autoimmune disease of ______ tissue characterized by _________

A

connective

excessive collagen deposition in the skin and internal organs such as lungs, GI tract, heart, kidneys, *mask like botox face

63
Q

The limited symptoms of scleroderma are referred to by the acronym ________, which stands for _________

A

CREST

Calcinosis
Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias
64
Q

Innate immunity is also known as ______. It is defined as ________.

A

natural immunity

the immune defenses we are born with and coded for in our genes

65
Q

Scleroderma can be a predisposition to ________ cancer as a result of what condition? Describe this condition.

A

esophageal cancer

achalasia

remodeling of the esophagus, narrows down, LES fails to relax (stays closed) “esophageal jerky”

66
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a disorder in which normal communication between the nerve and muscle is interrupted at the _________

A

neuromuscular junction

66
Q

What is the treatment for scleroderma?

A

biologics, anti-inflammatory, Viagra – things that reduce/decrease sympathetic response

67
Q

Scleroderma is aka as _______?

A

systemic sclerosis

68
Q

In myasthenia gravis, the receptors for ________ at the muscle surface are destroyed or modulated by ________ that prevent the normal reaction from occurring.

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

antibodies

69
Q

What is the test used for myasthenia gravis? what is the + sign?

A

confrontation test

eyes are tired, droopy (due to weak muscles)

70
Q

Myasthenia gravis symptoms are often better at night (T/F )

A

False - it is worse at night, sleep makes it better (replenishes)

71
Q

What are symptoms of myasthenia gravis? Provide examples

A

muscle weakening - swallowing difficulty, gagging, choking, paralysis, drooping head, difficulty climbing stairs, difficulty lifting objects, difficulty talking, difficulty chewing

Vision problems (starts w/eyes)- double vision, difficulty maintaining steady gaze, eyelid drooping (ptosis)

72
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disease of ____________ manifested by pain and progressive _________ of the spine

A

the joints of the vertebral column and sacroiliac joints

stiffening

73
Q

Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is also know as?

A

Bechterew syndrome, Marie-Strumpell spondylitis, “Bamboo Spine”

74
Q

Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is dominant in ________ (males/females).

It is purely genetic (T/F)

A

males

True

76
Q

How is HIV virus transmitted?

A

sexually, needles (most common),

76
Q

In females ankylosing spondylitis starts in the _____ and in males it starts in the ______.

A

neck and peripheral

sacral spine

77
Q

List the conditions that can develop from ankylosing spondylitis

A

uveitis
peripheral arthritis (wind-moving)
circumstantial depression

78
Q

Which type of HIV virus is more aggressive?

A

type I

80
Q

What class of immunoglobulins represents humoral anamnestic “memory” response of the immune system?

A

IgG

80
Q

Who has the highest burden of being vulnerable to HIV infection?

A 
we are all vulnerable but some populations are more vulnerable: IV drug users (intravenous drug users), 
unprotected rectal intercourse, 
pregnant females (vertical transmission)
81
Q

Which cancer is the most common in patients with AIDS?

A

lymphoma (often non-hodgkins - cancer of lymph glands)

82
Q

List the disease stages of HIV infection

A

incubation
acute/prodrome
latent/carrier state
AIDS

83
Q

HIV virus contains what type of genetic material?

A

double stranded RNA

84
Q

List opportunistic infections and cancers of AIDS

A

herpes simplex virus (ulcers/blisters in mouth/genitals)
tuberculosis
oral/vaginal thrush - candida/fungal infections
herpes zoster (shingles)
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma (skin bruising)

85
Q

HIV is most easily transmitted via _________

A

contaminated needles

86
Q

HIV targets which cells?

A

T-CD4 helper, GI cells, neuroglia cells (dendrites), lymphocytes, macrophages

*they are attracted to the sanitation dept

87
Q

Cell mediated immunity is lost in AIDS (T/F)

A

TRUE

*it targets T-CD4 helper cells

88
Q

What is RNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase?

A

Enzyme that allows virus to transcribe RNA into DNA and translate it into proteins
normal mammal cells: DNA unwinds (double strands), then mRNA transcribes and delivers to ribosomes where translation into amino acid sequence occurs

Pathophysiology I (11 decks)

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