Chest Flashcards

1
Q

Which diseases cause egg shell calcification

A

Post radiotherapy lymphoma
Sarcoidosis
Amyloidosis
Silicosis
TB
Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the follow up for a solid nodule measuring >8mm in a low risk patient

A

<6mm - no follow- up
6-8mm - CT at 6-12 months then consider CT at 18-24 months
8 mm - Consider Ct at 3 months or tissue sampling or PET/CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the follow up of a ground glass nodules measuring >6mm

A

<6mm: No routine follow up required
>6mmCT at 6-12 months to confirm persistence then CT every 2 years until 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the halo sign in the lungs and what does it represent

A

Ground glass opacification surrounding a lung nodule or mass. Represents haemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of a benign solitary pulmonary nodule

A

1) Infectious granulomas (70-80%)
2) Harmatomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 patterns of benign calcification of a pulmonary nodules

A
  1. Laminated
  2. Diffuse solid calcification
  3. Central
  4. Popcorn calcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does popcorn calcification most likely present in a pulmonary nodule

A

Harmatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On CT-contrast Chest imaging of pulmonary nodules, why might you get a false negative

A

Large pulmonary nodules with central-non cavitating lesions or adenocarcinomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the main features of IPF

A

Bibasal subplueral reticular pattern fibrosis with HONEYCOMBING.
Traction bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is RB-ILD and DIP associated with?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the classic HRCT findings for a patient with DIP ?

A

Ground glass opacification in the lower lobes, peripheral and patchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What conditions are associated with lymphocytic interstitial pneumonias

A

Child - AIDS
Adult - Sjogrens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are Centrilobular nodules a features of RB-ILD ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does traction bronchiectasis indicate?

A

Fibrosis and therefore ILD - IPF or NSIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is an askin tumour ?

A

a ewings sarcoma of the chest wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the types of atelectasis ?

A

4 types:
1. obstructive - central bronchial obstruction causing collapse
2. passive /relaxation - relaxation of lung next to a lesion
3. cicatrical - architectural, e.g. fibrosis
4. adhesive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the sign of left upper lobe collapsed

A

luftsichel sign - (air sickle) - air cresent sign due to the expanded superior left lower lobe abutting the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the sign of right upper lobe collapse ?

A

golden S sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the juxtaphrenic peak sign ?

A

peaking of a heme-diaphragm due to collapse of a segment of lung - usually middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the cause of the flattened waist sign ?

A

flattening of the left heart boarder due to posterior shift of hilarity structures and resultant cardiac rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is round atelectasis ?

A

focal atelectasis with a round morphology - that always have an adjacent pleural abnormality - e.g. pleural effusion/thickening or plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the criteria for round atelectasis ?

A
  1. round morphology
  2. pleural abnormality
  3. opacity in contact with the pleura
  4. commet tail sign of the vessels
  5. volume loss of the hemithorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is consolidation?

A

complete filling of affected alveoli due to either water,pus,blood or cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the differential list for acute consolidation?

A

Pneumonia
ARDS - (non cardiac pulmonary oedema)
Pulmonary edema from heart failure if severe
pulmonary haemorrahge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the differential list for chronic consolidation

A

Adenocarcinoma
lymphoma
organising pneumonia
chronic eosinophilic pneumonia - inflammatory prossess characterised by eosinophils - causing the alveolar to fill up in the upper lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is organising pneumonia ?

A

non specific inflammatory response characterised by granulation polyps which fill the distal airways causing rounded, peripheral, nodular consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes ground glass opacification?

A

partial filling of the alveolar
thickening of the alveolar wall
reduced aeration of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the differentials for acute GGO?

A

pneumonia - usually atypical such as Pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia, or viral
pulmonary edema
haemorrhage
ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the differentials for chronic GGO

A

lung adenocarcinoma
organising pneumonia
chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
interstitial lung disease
hypersensitivity pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the differential for smooth interlobular thickening ?

A

pulmonary edema
lymphangitis carcinomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what’s the differential for nodular interlobular thickening ?

A

lymphangitis carcinomatosis
sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an infectious cause of centrilobular nodules?

A

viral pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is an inflammatory cause of centrilobular nodules ?

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is hypersensitivity pneumonitis ?

A

type 3 mediated immune réponse to an inhale organic compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is pulmonary capillary hemangiomatosis and what does it look like on CT?

A

vascular pathology characterised by abnormal capillary proliferation leading to pulmonary hypertension, looks like centrilobular nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the most common cause of perilymphatic nodules

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what causes solitary cavitary lesions?

A

squamous cell carcinoma > adenocarcinoma
TB
Fungal pneumonia
Cavitary bacterial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the differential for multiple cavitary lesions?

A

septic emboli - usually peripheral
vasculitis - GPA
metastases - squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is lymphangioleiomyomatosis

A

diffuse, cystic lung disease due to smooth muscle proliferation of the distal airways . results in bilateral, similar shaped cysts of similar size. usually associated with a pleural effusion - chylous effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the classic finding of pulmonary langerhans cells histocytosis

A

Nodules + bizarre-shaped pulmonary cysts in upper and mid lung zones in cigarette smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which condition is associated with lymphoid interstitial pneumonia

A

sjogrens syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what syndrome lines pulmonary cysts with renal cell carcinoma - chromophobe

A

birt-hogg-dube syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what causes predominantly upper lobe pulmonary fibrosis

A

end stage sarcoidosis
chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis
end stage silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is ranke complex

A

calcified gohn focus and mediastinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is mycobacterium avium complex

A

a non tuberculosis, mycobacterium that affects people usually with pre-existing pulmonary disease or old ladies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when does pneumocystis jiroveci cause pneumonia

A

when the CD4 sound < 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the classic CT finding of PJP

A

bilateral perihilar airspace opacities with peripheral sparing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the CD4 count in patients who develop cryptococcus neoformans pneumonia

A

< 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is a specific finding of ABPA ?

A

high attenuation mucus within a bronchiectatic airway - resulting in a finger in glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the treatment of an aspergilomma ?

A

embolisation or resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is an aspergilloma ?

A

aspergillus fungal hyphae and cellular debris. they form in pre-existing lung cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the Monod sign

A

curvilinear air surrounding the aspergilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the air cresent sign

A

seen in patients with angioinvasive aspergillosis crescent of air from retraction of infarcted lung that occurs with recovery of neutrophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is angioinvasive aspergillosis

A

aggressive infection whereby there is invasion and occlusion of the arterioles and small pulmonary arteries by fungal hyphae. seen only in neutropenic patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the most common cause of lobar pneumonia

A

streptococcus
Klebsillea - for alcoholic or immune patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchial pneumoniac

A

staph. aureus
also pneumococcus and klebsillea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what does viral pneumonia usually look like ?

A

bilateral and with hyperinflation - due to bronchial constricition leading to air trapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the halo sign ?

A

seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis - a mass with a peripheral ground glass appearance - demonstrating pulmonary haemorrahge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is a normal CD4 count ?

A

800-1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In AIDS , when do fungal infections occur ?

A

CD4 < 150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

in AIDS when does TB occur ?

A

CD4 200-300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where does Graft vs host disease commonly affect ?

A

the GI tract and the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is nocardia ?

A

an infection assocaited with bone marrow transplant and those with AIDS.
you get lobar consolidation and cavitating nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is isolated right upper lobe pulmonary oedema seen in

A

mitral regurgitation secondary to MI causing papillary muscle rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

where should a dialysis catheter be positioned

A

within the right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what type of lung cancer is not associated with smoking

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the size criteria of a pulmonary nodule ?

A

<3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the size criteria of a pulmonary mass ?

A

> 3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

a nodule with popcorn calcification usually indicates?

A

pulmonary harmatoma

70
Q

what describes of a nodule make it sound benign ?

A

calcification
sub pleural location
triangular shaped
small <3mm
clusters suggest infection

71
Q

are subsolid or solid nodules more likely to be malignant.

A

subsolid

72
Q

is upper lobe or lower lobe nodules more likely to be malignant ?

A

upper lobe

73
Q

when is follow up not recommended in pulmonary nodules ?

A

<6mm

74
Q

what is the most common subtype of lung cancer ?

A

adenocarcinoma

75
Q

which lung cancer does cavitation more likely occur in

A

squamous cell carcinoma

76
Q

in adenocarcinoma, what is lepidic growth ?

A

spread of malignant cells using the alveolar walls as scaffold

77
Q

how does adenocarcinoma of the lung normally present ?

A

speculated / solidatry nodule
ground glass nodule
chronic , diffuse ground glass/consolidation

78
Q

where doe most squamous cell carcinomas arise ?

A

usually bronchial tumours - or hilar lesions

79
Q

how does small cell carcinoma present ?

A

mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy

80
Q

how does large cell carcinoma present ?

A

in the lung periphery , as a large solid mass with irregular margins

81
Q

where does lung carcinoid tumour arise from ?

A

neuroendocrine cells in the bronchial walls

82
Q

What is DIPNECH?

A

diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia

Syndrome of.
1. multiple hyperplasia of neuroendocrine ells
2. carcinoid tumours
3. bronchiolitis obliterans

83
Q

how does primary lymphoma present ?

A

mass like consolidation

84
Q

how does post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder present ?

A

new pulmonary nodules in a patient after solid organ. transplantation

85
Q

which cancer can present as non resolving consolidation?

A

Adenocarcinoma

86
Q

what is a hilar mass a common presentation of ?

A

squamous cell carcinoma and small cell carcinoma

87
Q

what is a superior sulus tumour ?

A

a lung cancer occurring in the lung apex

88
Q

what is Horners syndrome

A

ipsilateral ptosis, mitosis and anhirdosis

89
Q

what is a pan cost tumour ?

A

superior sulcus tumour with involvement of the sympathetic ganglia causing hardeners syndrome

90
Q

in staging what does a malignant effusion mean ?

A

M1a tumour

91
Q

what stage of lung cancer is unresectable

A

T4/N2, N3 - Stage 111B

92
Q

Lung cancer:
T stage grading

A
  1. <3cm
  2. 3-5
  3. 5-7, metastatic nodules in the same lobe, invasion of chest wall,
  4. > 7 or invasion of mediastinum, great vessels, heart, diaphragm, spine, trace, esophageus
93
Q

Lung cancer :
N staging

A

n1 - same side, hilar or intrapulmonary
N2 - same side mediastinal nodes
N3 - opposite side or supraclaviciular

94
Q

Lung cancer :
M staging

A

M1 a - local thoracic mets
M1 b - sing extra thoracic
M1 c - multiple extrathoacic

95
Q

what is fleischner sign ?

A

widening of the pulmonary arteries due to clot

96
Q

what is Hamptons hump ?

A

peripheral wedge shaped opacity representing pulmonary infarct

97
Q

what is watermark sign

A

regional oligemia in the lung distal to the pulmonary artery thrombus

98
Q

in patients with AIDS, how does histoplasmosis present with ?

A

fever, malaise
CT demonstrates millary appearance plus reticulonodular air space opacification

99
Q

what side of the heart is most commonly affected in carcinoid ?

A

right side of the heart. including affecting the mitral valve due to the hormones secreted

100
Q

what type of mediastinal masses does Hodgkins lymphoma commonly present with ?

A

anterior mediastinal mass

101
Q

what type of nodal spread does Hodgkins lymphoma make ?

A

contiguous

102
Q

what diameter of the pulmonary artery suggests pulmonary hypertension?

A

> 3cm
or bigger than the aorta

103
Q

what are pulmonary artery wall calcifications pathagnomic for ?

A

chronic pulmonary artery hypertension due to shunts

104
Q

which drug is associated with pulmonary veno-occlusive diseased (pulmonary hypertension)

A

bleomycin

105
Q

what are the most common causes of fibrosing mediastinitis ?

A

histoplasmosis and tuberculosis

106
Q

classic features of UIP

A

subpleural reticulations, traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing

107
Q

causes of UIP

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
asbestosis
collagen vascular disease - RA
Drugs

108
Q

what is NSIP usually caused by

A

underlying collagen vascular disease
such as dermatomyositis, SLE, mixed CTD, sclerodermaa

109
Q

what is a key features of NSIP /

A

ground glass opacification with a peribronchial predominance with sparing of the immediate suppleural lung

110
Q

what does the reverse halo sign indicate ?

A

organising pneumonia = atoll sign.
central lucency with surrounding ground glass halo

111
Q

how does organising pneumonia look on CT ?

A

consolidative / ggo in a peribronchovascular and perihilar distirbution

112
Q

what is the key imaging findings of RB-ILD ?

A

centrilobular nodules in the lung apices -
due to sheets of macrophages filling the terminal airways
and apices - as the smoking pathogens go to the top

113
Q

what is the classic features of a harmatoma ?

A

contains fat
peripherally located
popcorn calcification

114
Q

focal cord paralysis is a common feature in which cancer ?

A

lung cancer

115
Q

which cancers classically cause lymphangitis carcinomatosis ?

A

certain cancers spread by plugging the lymphatics
C -Cervic
C- Colon
S- Stomach
B- Breast
P- Pancreas
T- thyroid
L - lung/Larynx/ Broncho

116
Q

where do most inhaled lung disease affect ?

A

the upper lobes as the lower lobes have better blood supply and more robust blood flow

117
Q

what is hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by ?

A

inhaled organic angitengs

118
Q

what is pneumoconiosis caused by

A

inorganic dust inhalation

119
Q

what is the most common feature of pneumoconiosis ?

A

multiple upper lobe predominant perilymphatic nodules

120
Q

what is Caplan syndrome

A

RA and either coal workers/silicosis. pneumoconiosis

121
Q

what type of consolidation is seen in chronic eosionphillic pneumonia ?

A

reverse bat wing: patchy , peripheral and upper lobe predominant

122
Q

what is the most common cause or pulmonary haemorhhage

A

microscopic polyangiitis - causing a pulmonary renal syndrome, with progressive renal failure

123
Q

what is granulomatosis with polyangiitis ?

A

small vessel vasculitis
1 - sinusitis
2 - lung disease
3- renal insufficiency
C-ANCA positive

124
Q

when is radiation pneumonitis most severe ?

A

3-4 months after treatment

125
Q

when does radiation fibrosis become apparent ?

A

6-12 months after therapy

126
Q

what is sarcoidosis ?

A

idiopathic non-caseating granulomas which merge to form nodules and masses within the body

127
Q

fibrotic changes to sarcoid most commonly occur where ?

A

mid to upper lobes

128
Q

what are the most common CT lung findings of sarcoid ?

A

egg shell calicifcaiotn lymph nodes
bilateral, symmetrical lymph nodes
upper lobe, perilymphatic nodules of varying sizes - granulomas

129
Q

what happens to the alveoli in pulmonary alveolar proteinosis ?

A

filling of the alveoli with proteinaceous lipid rich material

130
Q

what type of infection are patients with PAP susceptible of ?

A

nocardia

131
Q

what is the treatment of PAP

A

whole lung bronchoalveolar lavage

132
Q

what is lymphangioleiomyomatosis.

A

diffuse cystic lung disease caused by bronchiolar obstruction and destructive lung disease

133
Q

what is LAM associated with ?

A

women of child bearing age
presents with spontaneous pneumothorax and a chylrothorax

134
Q

what is birthday-hogg dude syndrome characterised with ?

A

skin non cancerous tumours
chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
renal/pulmonary cysts

135
Q

which nerve pass through the AP window ?

A

phrenic
vagus
recurrent laryngeal nerves

136
Q

what makes the tracheoesophgeal stripe?

A

the posterior wall of the trachea with the pleural layer of the medial right lung

137
Q

what makes the azygoesphogeal line ?

A

the posterior medial basal segment of the right lower lobe and the oesophagus and azygous vein

138
Q

what condition is a thymoma associated with ?

A

Myasthenia gravis

139
Q

who is at risk of developing a malignant germ cell tumour

A

patients with klinefleter syndrome

140
Q

dense calcification within a lymph node is seen in ?

A

sarcoidosis or post granulomatous disaes

141
Q

low attenuation lymph nodes raises the suspicion of ?

A

TB

142
Q

avidly enhancing lungs mets include

A

renal cell
thyroid
lung
sarcoma
melanoma

143
Q

what is unicentric castle mans disease present with ?

A

avidly enhancing enlarged lymph node/mass

144
Q

what is multicentricell castle was disease sene in ?

A

patients with HIV and Herpses simplex Visors 8

145
Q

where do morgangi hernias tend to arise ?

A

anterior medial - usually incidental finding, containing minaly fat. may have bowel

146
Q

what is the BTS guidelines follow up for a solid nodule ?

A

5-6mm - f/u in 12 months
>6mm - f/u in 3 months

147
Q

what are the preparations for FDG pet

A

> 4 hours between FDG pet and insulin
No excercsie for 24-48 hours
caffeine and alcohol and nicotine avoided for 12 hours
fasted for 6 hours

148
Q

what tissue types do teratomas commonly have

A

fat fluid and calcificatoin

149
Q

what do seminomas tend to present with

A

no calcification
increased levels of hCG, LDH, or alpha fetoprotein

150
Q

how does a malignant thymoma tend to present ?

A

with drop lesions into the pleura

151
Q

In left lower lobe collapse, on CXR what is obscured ?

A

the descending aorta

152
Q

what is a ganglioneuroma

A

benign tumourr fo sympathic ganglion cells

153
Q

what is a neuroblastoma

A

malignant tumour of ganglion cells seen in early childhood

154
Q

what type of neurogenic tumours typically occur in adults vs childnre

A

adults - peripheral nerves
children - sympathic

155
Q

what are the most common sympathic ganglion tumours in children

A

ganglioneuroma
neuroblastoma
ganglioneuroblastoma

156
Q

how does relapsing polychondritis present and what is it ?

A

idiopathic inflammation of the catilage
causes smooth , tracheal bronchial wall thickening with sparing of the posterior membranous trachea

157
Q

what is the morphological classification of bronchiectasis ?

A

three types
cyclindrical - mild
varicose
cystic - most severe

158
Q

what is the most common cause of bronchiectasis

A

chronic aspiration

159
Q

which congenital connective tissue disorders result in bronchiectasis ?

A

mounier-kuhn
williams-campbell

160
Q

what is the most common primary tracheal malignancy ?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

161
Q

which cancers most commonly metastasis to the lungs ?

A

BReaTH lungs
Breast
renal
Thryroid

(melanoma , sarcoma)

162
Q

which cancners will usually have a lung met at the time of diagnosis ?

A

CHEST
C - choriocarcinoma
Hypernephroma - wilms
Ewings sarcoma
Sarcoma
Testicular tumour

163
Q

what is pulmonary alveolar microlithatisi ?

A

tiny / sand like calcification deposits within the alveolar, classific appearance seen on cxr.
asymptomatic
may cause lung fibrosis

164
Q

what type of lung cancers doesn’t usually show up on PET

A

bronchial carcinoid tumours

165
Q

what is the main cause of pnaacinar emphysema?

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin

166
Q

what is Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

A

periosteal reaction of the long bones in association with lung disease

167
Q

how to firbous tumours of the pleural tend to look like ?

A

pleural based mass which tends to change position
low uptake on FDG

168
Q

which area is usually spared in astestbosis exposure plaques

A

the costophrenic angles

169
Q

which conditions lead to egg shell calcification?

A

silicosis
sarcoidosis

170
Q

which metastasis lead to mediastinal calcificaiton> ?

A

papillary/medullary thyroid cancer,
osteosarcoma
mucinous adenocarcinoma

171
Q

what is the classic wegners triad ?

A

sinusitis
renal disease
lung disesae

172
Q
A