Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ST2 Radiology > Breast and Gynae and obstectrics > Flashcards

Breast and Gynae and obstectrics Flashcards

1
Q

what is basal-type breast carcinoma ?

A

triple negative phenotype (-HER2, -ER, -PR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do milk of calcium calcifications represent ?

A

free floating calcium in tiny benign cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of calcification is typical for fibroadenoma ?

A

popcorn like calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is an oil cyst ?

A

where an area of fat necrosis gets walled off by fibrous tissue.
usually have egg shell calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where do most breast cancers present ?

A

50% present in the upper outer quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

following breast cancer treatment what is the mammography follow up regime ?

A

if < 50, have yearly mammograms until 50 - and then go onto the normal breast screening program

If >50 have yearly mammogram for 5 years, and then go onto normal breast screening programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what week gestation should you see a gestational sac ?

A

5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At what week gestation should you see a gestational sac ?

A

5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many weeks pregnant should you see a yolk sac ?

A

5.5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many weeks should you see an embryo ?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If the CRL >7mm and there’s no heart beat , what does that indicate ?

A

A failed pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do most ectopic pregnancies occur ?

A

The ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a heterotrophic pregnancy

A

IUP and Ectopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 forms of gestational trophoblastic disease ?

A

Complete hydtatidform mole
Invasive mole
Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a complete hydatidiform mole ?

A

Doesn’t contain any fetal parts ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why do complete hydatidiform moles occur ?

A

loss of the eggs DNA prior to fertilzation by the sperm and usually 46 Karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the classic US appearance of a molar disease ?

A

Enlarged uterus, Multicystic bunch of grapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In a molar pregnancy, what often occurs in the ovaries ?

A

Theca lutein cysts due to the elevated HCG ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment of a molar pregnancy ?

A

Endometrial suction curettage and 6 monthly follow up of HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes a partial hydatitform mole. ?

A

Triploid pregnancy XXX or XXY is caused by 2 sperm fertilising the same egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is chorionicity

A

Number of placentas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is amnionicity

A

The number of aminos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do monochorionic twins have ?

A

The same placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do monoamniotic twins have ?

A

A single amniotic sac and therefore share a placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is zygosity

A

Number of fertilised eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the twin peak sign indicate ?

A

Dichorionic/diamniotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a T -shape configuration of the placenta and insertion of the intertwin membrane indicate

A

Monochorionic / diamniotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is diagnostic of mono/mono twins ?

A

Intertwined cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are conjoined twins caused by ?

A

Late >13 days incomplete division of the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the Ultrasound findings of twin-twin transfusion syndrome ?

A

Single shared placenta
Disproportionate fetal sizes with ? 25% discrepancy
Disproportionate amniotic fluid with small twin having oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is nuchal translucency measured ?

A

At 11-14 weeks or CRL 45-85mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What thickness of nuchal translucency warrants further investigation ?

A

3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When could a omphalocele or gastroschisis be diagnosed and why ?

A

After 13 weeks, as normal midgut herniation occurs in the first trimester and is usually complete by 13 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific ultrasound finding of Down’s syndrome

A

Thickened nuchal fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an abnormal measurement for nuchal fold ?

A

> 6mm is a major marker for trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does cervical funnelling increase peoples risk of ?

A

Pre-term labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Before 24 weeks, what is the treatment of cervical shortening ?

A

Cervical cerclage due to increased risk of pre-term labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does a single umbilical artery increase the risk of ?

A

Trisomy 13 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord ?

A

Where the cord inserts outside the margin of the placenta, into the free membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is vasa Previa?

A

Where the fetal placental vessels go across the internal cervical os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is oligohydramnios most commonly associated with ?

A

IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What can oligohydramnios result in ?

A

Hypoplastic lungs

43
Q

What is potter sequence ?

A

Oligohydramnios resulting in :
Facial abnormalities
Club feet
MSK contractures - due to little space in the sac

44
Q

What genitourinary problems can lead to oligohydramnios

A

Renal agenesis - death
Congenital bladder outlet obstruction
Bilateral ureteropelvic junction obstruction
Renal dysplasia - ARPKD

45
Q

What causes polyhydramnios ?

A

Inability of the foetus to swallow :

1) Upper GI obstruction: duodenal or oesophageal atresia
2) Severe CNS anomlias - which causes difficulty in swallowing
3) twin to twin transfusions - with one twin with too much fluid and the other with no fluid
4) placental abnormalities

46
Q

What is a succenturiate lobe ?

A

Island of placental tissue separate from the main placenta - but connected to the main placenta by blood vessels

47
Q

When do you start to assess the placental position ?

A

In the 2nd trimester

48
Q

What is the normal position of the placenta?

A

More than 2 cm from the internal os

49
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Where the placenta covers the entire internal os

50
Q

What is placenta accreted ?

A

Deep attachment of the placenta into the myometrium - resulting in increased risk of haemorrhage at the time of placental separation

51
Q

What is placenta percreta ?

A

Where the placenta PENETRATES through the serous to invade other structures - there is a focal bulge in the uterine wall

52
Q

What does a chorioangioma look like on uS ?

A

Hypoechoic rounded mass in the placenta with a ectopic cystic areas and low resistance flow

53
Q

What is fetal hydrops ?

A

Fluid overload state characterised by :
Ascitis
Pericardial or pleural effusion
Skin thickening
Polyhydramnios
Placental enlargement

54
Q

How can the causes of polyhydramnios be classified?

A

Immune or non immune

55
Q

What causes immune fetal hydrops ?

A

Fetal haemolytic anemia - usually rh antigen

56
Q

What should the lateral ventricles measure ?

A

< 10mm

57
Q

Why is AFP elevated in anencephaly ?

A

Due to direct exposure of the neural tissue to the amniotic fluid

58
Q

What is ancephaly ?

A

Lack of development of the Calvary I’m and destruction of the fetal cerebral cortex

59
Q

What’s the difference between a meningocele and an encephalocele ?

A

Meningocele - contains meninges
Encephalocele - contains neural tissue

60
Q

What is a dandy walker malformation ?

A

Posterior fossa malformation ; triad of :
1 - hypoplasia of the vermis
2 - dilated 4th ventricle
3 - torcula lamboid inversion ( where the torcular is lying above the lamboid suture due to a very high tentorium )

61
Q

What is a chiral 2 malformation ?

A

Small posterior fossa plus a neural tube defect - this results in descent of the cerebella vermis through the foramen magnum

62
Q

What sign if very specific for chairi 2 malformation ?

A

Banana sign - flattening of the cerebellar

63
Q

When does a normal corpus callosum develop ? Which way does it develop?

A

20 weeks
Develops from the selenium to the rostrum

64
Q

What is the Viking helmet appearance seen in ?

A

Dysgenesis of the corpus callosum

65
Q

What is hydranencephaly ?

A

Complete cortical destruction due to infarction or infection - where the brain parenchyma is replaced with fluid

66
Q

Which condition are choroid plexus cysts seen in ?

A

Trisomy 18

67
Q

What is a sacrococygeal Teratoma

A

Germ cell tumour of the sacrum

68
Q

Which condition is an absent nasal bone seen in ?

A

Trisomy 21

69
Q

What is micrognathia ?

A

Hypoplasia of the mandible resulting in a small chin

70
Q

Where are morgani hernias located ?

A

Anterior on the right

71
Q

Where do bochdalek hernias arise ?

A

Left posterior thorax

72
Q

what is the difference between an immature and a mature teratoma

A

immature - malignant
mature - not malignant , also known as a dermoid cyst

73
Q

what do dermoid cysts look like ?

A

usually contain fat - meaning that it is mature
contains calcification - which can cause posterior acoustic shadowing

74
Q

what are the standard views performed at screening ?

A

MLO and CC

75
Q

what is the most common cause of an ovarian torsion ?

A

corpus luteal cyst or follicular cyst

76
Q

where are Gartner duct cysts located ?

A

anterior to the vaginal wall

77
Q

where are skyene duct cysts located ?

A

inferior to the pubic symphysis but lateral to the urethral opening

78
Q

what are popcorn calcifications seen in ?

A

benign fibroadenomas

79
Q

which cancer is most frequently missed on US and mammography but can be detected on MRI

A

lobular cancer

80
Q

which cancers don’t require contrast for MRI pelvic staging?

A

rectal and cervical cancers

81
Q

what are the IOTA rules ?

A

standardised rules for classifying ovarian lesions

82
Q

what are the ‘M’ rules in the IOTA classification ?

A

Malignant findings :

Solid mass
Multilocular solid mass > 10cm
blood flow
ascites
>3 papillary structures

83
Q

what is Salpingitis isthmica nodosa

A

nodular scarring of the Fallopian tube, thought to be due to previous PID

causes no spill on HSG with multiple tiny diverticular

84
Q

what is a septate uterus associated with ?

A

renal abnormalities

85
Q

what are the 4 ways a fibroid can degenerate ?

A

red
myxoid
cystic
hyaline

86
Q

what signal do fibroids have on MRI ?

A

low signal on T2

87
Q

what Is the most common type of fibroid degeneration ?

A

hyaline degeneration

88
Q

what does gynaecomastia look like on US ?

A

flamed shame mass behind the nipple

89
Q

what is CPAM

A

harmatous proliferation of small airways which communicate with the bronchial tree

90
Q

what is pulmonary sequestration?

A

aberrant lung tissue with systemic blood supply

91
Q

what is sequestration most commonly found ?

A

left lower lobe

92
Q

on a fetal heart US what indicates the right ventricle ?

A

moderator band

93
Q

what is the most common metal CHD ?

A

VSD

94
Q

what is atrial spetal defect strongly associated with?

A

downs syndrome

95
Q

what does transposition of the great arteries look like on fetal US

A

parallel course of the aorta and pulmonary artery .
the aorta arises from the RV ( identified with the moderator band )

96
Q

what is meconium ileus

A

bowel obstruction caused by impacted meconium in a foetus with cystic fibrosis

97
Q

does a omphalocele have peritoneal covering ?

A

yes

98
Q

where does the umbilical cord insert in an omphalocele ?

A

centrally at the base of the herniated sac

99
Q

what is an omphalocele ?

A

the most common anterior abdominal wall defect.
midline defect with herniation of intra-abdominal contents

100
Q

how fast do fetal kidneys grow

A

1mm per week
so a 20 week foetus should have 20mm (2cm) kidneys

101
Q

how would you see osteogenesis imperfect on us ?

A

short limbs, < 3SD

102
Q

what are patients with beckwith-wideman syndrome at risk of developing ?

A

wilms tumour

103
Q

what is the screening for beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

A

US every 3 months until 8 years

104
Q

what is the difference between bicornate bicervix uterus and uterine didelphys ?

A

in uterine didelphys the uterine cavities don’t communicate with each other

ST2 Radiology (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions