Chemisty Flashcards

1
Q

The atomic nucleus is composed of _____ and _____, while electrons are found _____ the nucleus.

A

protons, neutrons, outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Different types of atoms are called _____, which are distinguished by the number of _____ in their atomic nuclei.

A

elements, protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Isotopes have the same number of _____ but different numbers of _____, leading to variations in mass.

A

protons, neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes for _____ of the parent isotope to decay.

A

0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In Positron Emission Tomography (PET), radioactive isotopes are used as _____ to diagnose _____ in medicine.

A

radiotracers, diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The three types of intramolecular chemical bonding are _____, _____, and _____ bonds.

A

ionic, covalent, metallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intermolecular interactions include _____ forces and _____ bonds, which are crucial for biological processes.

A

van der Waals, hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The atomic mass of sodium (Na) is approximately _____, while its atomic number is _____ protons.

A

22.990, 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Carbon-14 is an example of an unstable isotope that can transform into a _____ atom through decay.

A

nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The structure of atoms is fundamental to understanding both _____ and _____ chemistry in biology.

A

organic, inorganic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Electrons are localised around the atomic nucleus in different electron ____ and also called ____ levels.

A

shells, energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Each energy level can host a limited number of ____, and they are broken down into ____ called orbitals.

A

electrons, subshells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The subshells include s, p, d, and ____, with each orbital being a ____ space.

A

f, 3-dimensional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Each orbital can contain up to ____ electrons, which spin in ____ directions to minimise repulsion.

A

2, opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic ____ and organised in ____ and periods.

A

number, groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Electronegativity is the power of an atom to attract a pair of ____ in a chemical ____.

A

electrons, bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Metal atoms tend to lose electrons, forming positive ions or ____, while non-metal atoms tend to gain electrons, forming negative ions or ____.

A

cations, anions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The d block can host ____ electrons in ____ orbitals, and compounds of transition metals are often ____ .

A

10, 5, coloured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In period 2 of the periodic table, the second energy level is filled with ____ and ____ orbitals.

A

2s, 2p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The structure of atoms includes the principal quantum numbers which indicate the number of ____ and the number of ____ in each shell.

A

shells, electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S orbitals are shaped like a ____ while p orbitals are shaped like a ____ .

A

sphere, dumbbell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Copper has an electron configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, and ____ .

A

4s1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sodium has an electron configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, and ____ .

A

3s1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The number of electrons in the outermost level determines the ____ properties of elements in the same group.

A

chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The atomic structure includes electrons, protons, and ____ which are found in the nucleus.

A

neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ionic bonds are formed through the electrostatic attraction between ____ and ____ ions.

A

positively charged, negatively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In ionic bonds, metal atoms ____ electrons while non-metal atoms ____ electrons.

A

lose, gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Compounds formed by ionic bonds are called ____ and are organized in ____ structures.

A

salts, ionic lattice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of ____ between atoms, typically between ____ elements.

A

valence electrons, non-metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The number of covalent bonds usually equals the number of ____ needed to complete the ____ shell.

A

electrons, valence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Molecules are formed when atoms are linked by ____ bonds, such as in ____ and ____ molecules.

A

covalent, water, oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A non-polar covalent bond occurs between atoms with ____ electronegativity, while a polar covalent bond occurs between atoms with ____ electronegativity.

A

equal, different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Metallic bonds are characterized by ____ electrons that are free to move, allowing metals to conduct ____ and ____.

A

delocalised, electricity, heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In metallic bonding, the attraction is between delocalised electrons and ____ ions.

A

metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Noble gases do not form bonds because they have ____ outer shells, making them ____ to react.

A

full, unlikely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The weakest intermolecular forces are known as ____ and include ____ forces.

A

van der Waals forces, London dispersion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dipole-dipole forces are stronger than ____ forces but only ____ of a covalent bond strength.

A

London dispersion, 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hydrogen bonds are the strongest form of intermolecular force involving hydrogen bound to ____ or ____.

A

oxygen, nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds, and ionic bonds are fundamental to forming the ____ structure of macromolecules like ____ and ____.

A

3D, proteins, nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The specific type of dipole-dipole interaction that involves hydrogen is called a ____ bond and has ____% of a covalent bond strength.

A

hydrogen, 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gecko lizards can adhere to walls thanks to ____ forces that form between tiny hairy structures on their feet and the surface.

A

van der Waals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In the context of biology, understanding the basic principles of organic and inorganic chemistry is essential for ____ and ____ calculations.

A

moles, molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The recommended reading for understanding weak interactions includes chapters from ____ and ____ books.

A

BTEC nationals applied science student book 1, Biology: A global approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In the BTEC Level 3 Nationals Applied Science, Chapter 1 focuses on ____ and ____.

A

Moles, molar masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

To calculate molarity, you need to know the ____ and the ____ of the solution.

A

moles of solute, volume of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The recommended video ‘Molarity Made Easy’ takes ____ minutes to complete and teaches about ____.

A

9, calculating molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

During the TBL activity, students first complete the ‘iRAT’ quiz and then work on the ____ quiz as a team.

A

tRAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In the team activity, students must discuss the questions they got wrong and attempt the ____ quiz again.

A

tRAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The ‘BIOL00005 - Mole Calculations’ smart worksheet focuses on ____ and ____ calculations.

A

Moles, molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Students are encouraged to upload their most challenging exercise on ____ after completing the team activity.

A

Padlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The recommended reading for BTEC Level 3 includes a student book that covers moles, molar masses, and ____.

A

molarities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The video ‘Interconverting Masses, Moles and Numbers of Particles’ is a ____ minute tutorial.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Primary alcohols are alcohols in which the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group is attached to ____ other carbon atoms and ____ alkyl groups.

A

one, one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Secondary alcohols are alcohols in which the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group is attached to ____ other carbon atoms and ____ alkyl groups.

A

two, two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tertiary alcohols are alcohols in which the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group is attached to ____ other carbon atoms and ____ alkyl groups.

A

three, three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In aldehydes, the functional group C=O is located at the ____ of the chain and always has at least ____ hydrogen atom attached.

A

end, one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In ketones, the functional group C=O is located in the ____ of the chain and is attached to ____ R groups.

A

middle, two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Carboxylic acids are considered ____ acids and they dissociate in ____.

A

weak, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In aqueous solution, carboxylic acids are only slightly ionised, producing low concentrations of ____ ions and ____ ions.

A

hydronium, alkanoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Esters are a derivative of carboxylic acids that contain the ____ group, -COO, and are named after the parent carboxylic acid from which they are derived.

A

ester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The nomenclature of esters involves removing the -____ acid suffix from the parent carboxylic acid and replacing it with -____.

A

oic, oate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The alkyl chain attached to the oxygen atom of the -COO- group is added as the ____ word in the name of the ester.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Triglycerides are stored in _____ tissues and serve as a source of _____ for the human body.

A

adipose, energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Amines can be thought of as derivatives of _____, where one or more hydrogens are replaced by an _____ or aryl group.

A

ammonia, alkyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The common way to name amines is to use the alkyl prefix followed by _____, while the IUPAC name uses the prefix _____ followed by the alkane stem.

A

-amine, amino-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Each amino acid contains an amine (-NH) and _____ (-COOH) group, which can react to form a _____ bond.

A

carboxylic acid, peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The primary structure of a protein is defined by the sequence of _____ bonded by covalent _____ bonds.

A

amino acids, peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The secondary structure of a protein involves interactions between weakly charged _____ and _____ atoms.

A

nitrogen, oxygen

69
Q

Triglycerides are hydrolyzed to release _____ when it is needed, such as during _____ or between meals.

A

energy, fasting

70
Q

The new amide bond formed between two amino acids is also called a _____ link or _____ bond.

A

peptide, peptide

71
Q

Proteins can have anywhere from 3 amino acids (like Glutathione) to more than _____ amino acids (like Titan) bonded together.

A

34000

72
Q

The four levels of structure in proteins include three related to a single polypeptide chain and the fourth related to proteins with _____ or more polypeptide chains.

A

two

73
Q

The two shapes that can form within proteins due to hydrogen bonds are the ____ and ____.

A

α-helix, β-pleated sheet

74
Q

The α-helix shape occurs when hydrogen bonds form between every ____ peptide bond.

A

fourth

75
Q

The β-pleated sheet shape forms when two parts of the polypeptide chain are ____ to each other.

A

parallel

76
Q

Most fibrous proteins, such as ____ and ____, have secondary structures.

A

collagen, keratin

77
Q

The secondary structure of proteins relates to hydrogen bonds forming between the ____ group and the ____ group.

A

amino, carboxyl

78
Q

Hydrogen bonds in proteins can be broken by high temperatures and ____ changes.

A

pH

79
Q

Further conformational change of the secondary structure leads to additional bonds forming between the ____ groups.

A

R

80
Q

The additional bonds in tertiary structure include hydrogen, disulphide, ionic, and weak ____ interactions.

A

hydrophobic

81
Q

Disulphide bonds only occur between ____ amino acids.

A

cysteine

82
Q

The properties of amino acid side chains that determine protein folding include charged, polar hydrophilic, or ____.

A

hydrophobic

83
Q

The enormous variation in protein sizes and shapes enables them to carry out a multiplicity of ____.

A

roles

84
Q

Proteins serve as ____ that orchestrate metabolic reactions and as ____ that transmit materials across cell membranes.

A

enzymes, transport molecules

85
Q

The total heat energy of a system is known as ____ and the randomness of a system is referred to as ____.

A

enthalpy, entropy

86
Q

The change in Gibbs’ free energy is related to changes in ____ and ____ during a chemical reaction.

A

enthalpy, entropy

87
Q

The temperature in degrees K is calculated by adding ____ to the temperature in degrees Celsius, where 0 K is known as ____ zero.

A

273, absolute

88
Q

Free energy, denoted by the letter ____, is crucial for understanding whether enzyme-catalyzed reactions will ____ or not.

A

G, happen

89
Q

Proteins function as ____ that enable muscles to contract and as ____ that fight infection.

A

molecular motors, protective antibodies

90
Q

The relationship between enthalpy, entropy, and energy is derived from the work of ____ who is known for Gibbs’ free energy.

A

J. Willard Gibbs, Gibbs

91
Q

In biological systems, the change of free energy during a reaction is really ____ for determining the reaction’s feasibility.

A

important, important

92
Q

The change in Gibbs’ free energy (ΔG) indicates whether a reaction is ____ or requires ____ to occur.

A

spontaneous, energy

93
Q

If ΔG is negative, the reaction is considered ____, while a positive ΔG indicates that ____ must be supplied.

A

spontaneous, energy

94
Q

An ice cube melting in hot water is an example of a spontaneous process that occurs at a ____ rate compared to melting in ____ water.

A

faster, cold

95
Q

Not all spontaneous reactions occur at the same ____, as the rate can depend on factors like ____ and temperature.

A

speed, environment

96
Q

A reaction with a negative ΔG means it can occur without ____ input, while a positive ΔG means it is ____ without energy.

A

net energy, non-spontaneous

97
Q

Organic chemistry primarily deals with ____ compounds and their ____ properties.

A

carbon, chemical

98
Q

A homologous series has the same functional group and the same ____ formula, differing by ____ each time.

A

general, -CH2

99
Q

As you ascend a homologous series, the size of the molecule ____ and physical properties like ____ change.

A

increases, boiling point

100
Q

The general formula for alkanes is ____ and represents a series of compounds with ____ properties.

A

CnH2n+2, similar

101
Q

Functional groups in organic chemistry determine the ____ and ____ properties of molecules.

A

physical, chemical

102
Q

The displayed formula shows all atoms and their ____ in a 2D representation of an ____ molecule.

A

bonds, organic

103
Q

Structural isomerism occurs when compounds have the same ____ formula but different ____ chains.

A

molecular, hydrocarbon

104
Q

The skeletal formula simplifies the displayed formula by removing all ____ and ____ bonds.

A

C-H, hydrogen

105
Q

Members of a homologous series have gradually changing ____ properties, such as ____ and density.

A

physical, boiling point

106
Q

In organic chemistry, R represents any atom or group of atoms except for ____ in functional groups.

A

hydrogen

107
Q

Positional isomers arise from differences in the position of a ____ group in each isomer, such as butan-1-ol and ____-2-ol.

A

functional, butan

108
Q

Functional group isomers have the same molecular formula but different ____ groups, like butanol and ____.

A

functional, ethoxyethane

109
Q

A carbon atom with four different atoms or groups attached is called a ____ carbon or chiral ____.

A

chiral, centre

110
Q

Compounds with a chiral centre exist as two optical isomers known as ____ which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other, like your left and ____ hand.

A

enantiomers, right

111
Q

The d- and l- convention is used for naming enantiomers in ____; d-isomers of sugars are most common in living organisms, while l-isomers of ____ are found in proteins.

A

biology, amino acids

112
Q

Stereoisomers have the same atoms connected, but the atoms are arranged differently in ____; this is known as ____ isomerism.

A

space, stereoisomerism

113
Q

Optical isomers differ in their ability to rotate plane ____ light, hence they are called ‘optical’ ____.

A

polarised, isomers

114
Q

Geometric isomerism is one type of stereoisomerism, while the other type is ____ isomerism.

A

optical

115
Q

The term ‘chira’ comes from a Greek word meaning ____; this relates to the handedness of chiral molecules.

A

hand

116
Q

Enantiomers are important in drug interactions because they must match the shape of their corresponding _____ and _____.

A

receptors, molecules

117
Q

The drug thalidomide was withdrawn due to its two enantiomers having _____ activities, one being _____ and the other harmful.

A

different, therapeutic

118
Q

The R enantiomer of thalidomide acts as a _____ while the S form inhibits the growth of _____ in the developing fetus.

A

sedative, blood vessels

119
Q

Enantiomers are not superimposable, similar to how your right hand cannot fit into your left _____.

A

glove

120
Q

The problem with thalidomide highlights the importance of understanding the _____ of enantiomers in drug development and their _____ effects.

A

activities, different

121
Q

Only one of the two enantiomers of a drug often has therapeutic properties because it binds to the relevant _____.

A

receptor

122
Q

The two enantiomers of thalidomide are referred to as R and S isomers due to the presence of a _____ carbon.

A

chiral

123
Q

The S enantiomer of thalidomide caused severe limb malformations and other _____ in babies.

A

abnormalities

124
Q

The interconversion of enantiomers in the body means that separating them before administration may not be _____ in preventing harm.

A

effective

125
Q

The thalidomide case illustrates the critical need for _____ in drug design to ensure safety and efficacy.

A

chiral specificity

126
Q

The tragedy of thalidomide led to many countries tightening their ____ and keeping the drug off the ____ for many years.

A

drug testing regimes, market

127
Q

The S form of thalidomide has renewed interest in its use for treating ____ by reducing the ____ supply to cancerous cells.

A

cancer, blood

128
Q

Blocking the ability of cancerous cells to build new ____ could be an effective therapy using thalidomide.

A

blood vessels

129
Q

The use of thalidomide against cancer must be strictly ____ due to its history and potential ____ effects.

A

controlled, side

130
Q

In biological fluids, a pH of 7 is considered _____ and indicates _____ conditions.

A

neutral, neither acidic nor basic

131
Q

When the pH of a solution is less than 7, it indicates that the solution is _____ and has _____ [H+].

A

acidic, high

132
Q

A base is defined as any ion or molecule that tends to _____ H+ and results in a _____ pH.

A

accept, higher

133
Q

The dissociation of water produces one OH- and one _____, leading to a concentration of [H+] at _____ °C.

A

H+, 25

134
Q

The pH of pure water is _____, which corresponds to a [H+] of _____ M.

A

7, 10-7

135
Q

To maintain proper cellular function, the pH must be kept within a specific range around _____.

A

7

136
Q

An example of an acid is _____, while an example of a base is _____.

A

HCl, NH3

137
Q

When an acid is added to a solution, the concentration of H+ will _____ and the pH will _____.

A

increase, decrease

138
Q

The maintenance of pH is essential because changes can disrupt the _____ and _____ of proteins.

A

shape, function

139
Q

In pure water, the concentrations of [H+] and [OH-] are both equal to _____ M at 25 °C.

A

10-7

140
Q

The dissociation constant Ka of weak acids and bases is typically ____ because they are mainly ____ at equilibrium.

A

< 1, undissociated

141
Q

Buffers are solutions that minimize changes in pH when ____ or ____ is added.

A

strong acid, strong base

142
Q

The Henderson Hasselbalch equation is used to calculate the pH of a buffer solution, expressed as pH = pKa + log10([A-]/[AH]). When [A-] = [AH], the equation simplifies to ____ = ____.

A

pH, pKa

143
Q

For a strong acid like HCl, the relationship [H+] [Cl-] > [HCl] indicates that most of the HCl is ____ and the dissociation constant Ka is ____ than 1.

A

dissociated, greater

144
Q

To maintain a stable pH, a buffer is created by mixing a weak acid with its ____ base.

A

conjugate

145
Q

When a small amount of strong acid is added to a buffer solution, the pH does not change because H+ reacts with ____ to form ____.

A

CH3COO-, CH3COOH

146
Q

The maximal buffering capacity occurs when the pH of a buffer solution is equal to its ____ value.

A

pKa

147
Q

In weak acids, the dissociation constant Ka is less than 1 because they are primarily in the ____ form at equilibrium.

A

undissociated

148
Q

The effective pH range of Acetate/CH3COOH is between ____ and ____.

A

4.76,3.6-5.6

149
Q

The pH of a buffer solution containing 0.15M acetic acid and 0.25M sodium acetate is calculated using the ____ formula. The pKa of acetic acid is ____.

A

Henderson-Hasselbalch,4.76

150
Q

To prepare a TRIS buffer, you can combine TRIS base with TRIS hydrochloride in the appropriate ____. Alternatively, you can convert TRIS acid form into TRIS base form using ____.

A

ratio,NaOH

151
Q

The pH is considered neutral at ____, while pH values below ____ indicate an acidic solution. Values above ____ indicate an alkaline solution.

A

7,7,7

152
Q

Hydrogen ion homeostasis in the human body is maintained by intracellular and extracellular buffer systems to keep pH around ____.

A

7

153
Q

The concentration of H+ is conventionally expressed as ____, calculated using the formula pH = -log[H+].

A

pH

154
Q

The effective pH range of HEPES is between ____ and ____, while the effective pH range of Tris/HCl is between ____ and ____.

A

7.48,6.8-8.2,8.06,7.5-9

155
Q

The effective pH range of PIPES is between ____ and ____, and the effective pH range of Tricine is between ____ and ____.

A

6.76,6.1-7.5,8.05,7.4-8.8

156
Q

To adjust the pH of a TRIS buffer, you dissolve the TRIS base in water and then adjust the pH with ____. This generates the acid form of TRIS after a fraction of the base reacts with ____.

A

HCl,HCl

157
Q

The pH of a solution with an H+ concentration of 10^-7 mol/L is ____, while a solution with an H+ concentration of 10^-8 mol/L has a pH of ____.

A

78

158
Q

Acids tend to release ____, while bases tend to accept ____. This is essential for understanding the behavior of buffers in solutions.

A

H+,H+

159
Q

The effective pH range of NaH2PO4/NaHPO4 is between ____ and ____, while the effective pH range of NaCO3/NaHCO3 is between ____ and ____.

A

7.20,5.8-8.0,10.33,9.0-10.7

160
Q

A strong acid and base completely dissociate when they are in ____ and ____.

A

solution, solution

161
Q

Weak acids and bases are not fully dissociated when they are in ____ and ____.

A

solution, solution

162
Q

A buffer is a solution that minimizes the change of the pH when ____ acid or ____ base is added.

A

strong, strong

163
Q

A buffer can be made by mixing a ____ acid and its ____ base.

A

weak, conjugate

164
Q

The pK of a buffer solution is the pH at which the acid (HA) and the base (A-) are at ____ concentration.

A

equal

165
Q

Maximal buffering capacity occurs when pH = ____.

A

pKa

166
Q

Buffers help maintain a stable pH when ____ or ____ are introduced to a solution.

A

strong acids, strong bases

167
Q

The components of a buffer solution include a weak acid and its ____ base.

A

conjugate

168
Q

The pH of a buffer solution is most effective when it is equal to the ____ of the buffer.

A

pKa