Chapters 46 & 41 Flashcards

1
Q

What is urinary elimination?

A

The processes involved in the formation, storage, and excretion of urine.

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2
Q

What are the key importance of urinary elimination in nursing practice?

A
  • Preventing complications such as UTIs
  • Maintaining patient comfort, dignity, and quality of life
  • Using effective assessment, intervention, and education strategies
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3
Q

What are the main structures involved in the urinary system?

A
  • Kidneys
  • Ureters
  • Bladder
  • Urethra
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4
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A
  • Filter blood to remove waste and excess water
  • Maintain electrolyte balance
  • Regulate acid-base status
  • Secrete hormones such as erythropoietin and renin
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5
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Nephron

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6
Q

What is the role of the ureters?

A

Muscular tubes that propel urine from the kidneys to the bladder via peristaltic waves.

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7
Q

What is the function of the bladder?

A

A hollow, distensible, muscular organ that stores urine.

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8
Q

What happens during micturition?

A

The detrusor muscle of the bladder contracts and the urethra relaxes.

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9
Q

How long is the male urethra compared to the female urethra?

A

Male: approximately 8 inches; Female: 1.5–2 inches.

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10
Q

What is glomerular filtration?

A

The process where blood plasma is filtered through the glomeruli, producing about 125 mL/min of filtrate.

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11
Q

What factors affect the glomerular filtration rate?

A
  • Blood pressure
  • Capillary permeability
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12
Q

What percentage of filtrate is reabsorbed in the renal tubules?

A

Approximately 99%

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13
Q

What is the role of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)?

A

Increases water reabsorption, raising urine concentration.

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14
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Promotes sodium (and thus water) reabsorption, affecting blood volume and pressure.

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15
Q

What subjective data should be collected during a urinary elimination assessment?

A
  • Voiding patterns
  • Symptom inquiry
  • Medication and fluid intake history
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16
Q

What are some signs to look for during a physical examination of urinary elimination?

A
  • Bladder distention or tenderness
  • Perineal skin for irritation or breakdown
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17
Q

What is a bladder scan used for?

A

A noninvasive measurement of postvoid residual volume.

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18
Q

What does urinalysis examine?

A
  • Urine color
  • Clarity
  • pH
  • Specific gravity
  • Presence of protein, glucose, bacteria, or casts
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19
Q

What does an abnormal specific gravity indicate?

A

Possible dehydration or renal pathology.

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20
Q

What are the aseptic techniques for preventing UTIs?

A
  • Use sterile technique during catheter insertion
  • Proper specimen collection
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21
Q

What are some strategies for managing urinary retention?

A
  • Assess for bladder distention
  • Use bladder scans or straight catheterization
  • Assist patients to a proper voiding position
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22
Q

What types of urinary incontinence are there?

A
  • Stress incontinence
  • Urge incontinence
  • Overflow incontinence
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23
Q

What are some management strategies for urinary incontinence?

A
  • Pelvic floor (Kegel) exercises
  • Scheduled voiding
  • Environmental modifications
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24
Q

What is the proper procedure for indwelling catheter insertion?

A

Cleanse the urethral meatus using circular strokes with each cotton swab used only once.

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25
Q

What should be documented when removing a catheter?

A

Time of removal and monitoring for urinary function recovery.

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26
Q

What constitutes normal urinary patterns?

A

Normal urine output, color, odor, and consistency.

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27
Q

True or False: Phenazopyridine can turn urine orange.

A

True

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28
Q

What is the expected outcome for a patient with postoperative urinary retention?

A

Successful restoration of normal voiding patterns without complications.

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29
Q

What is the significance of accurate assessment in urinary elimination?

A

To identify issues such as retention, incontinence, or infection.

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30
Q

What are some nursing interventions for urinary elimination?

A
  • Catheter care
  • Patient education
  • Environmental modifications
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31
Q

What strategies are essential for preventing UTIs and skin breakdown?

A

Particularly important for vulnerable populations like the elderly or postoperative patients.

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32
Q

What is the process of urination?

A

The process of urination involves the following steps:
* Filtration of blood in the kidneys
* Formation of urine in the renal tubules
* Storage of urine in the bladder
* Expulsion of urine through the urethra.

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33
Q

What factors commonly influence urinary elimination?

A

Factors that influence urinary elimination include:
* Fluid intake
* Medications
* Age
* Gender
* Neurological function
* Physical activity.

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34
Q

Compare and contrast normal and abnormal urine characteristics.

A

Normal urine characteristics include:
* Clear or pale yellow color
* Mild odor
* Specific gravity of 1.005 to 1.030.

Abnormal urine characteristics may include:
* Dark color
* Strong odor
* Presence of blood or protein.

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35
Q

What are the nursing implications of common diagnostic tests of the urinary system?

A

Nursing implications include:
* Preparing the patient for tests
* Monitoring vital signs
* Ensuring hydration
* Educating the patient about the procedure.

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36
Q

Discuss nursing measures to promote normal micturition.

A

Nursing measures to promote normal micturition include:
* Encouraging regular toilet habits
* Providing privacy
* Assisting with positioning
* Ensuring adequate fluid intake.

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37
Q

Discuss nursing measures to reduce urinary tract infection.

A

Nursing measures to reduce urinary tract infection include:
* Encouraging hydration
* Promoting proper hygiene
* Urging timely urination
* Avoiding irritants like caffeine.

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38
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is responsible for the storage of urine.

A

[bladder]

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39
Q

What is urination (micturition)?

A

The process of emptying the bladder

Involves the coordinated function of the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

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40
Q

What is the role of the kidneys in urination?

A

Filter blood, producing urine that travels through the ureters to the bladder.

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41
Q

What triggers the urge to urinate?

A

Stretch receptors in the bladder when it reaches a volume of 200–400 mL.

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42
Q

How does the brain regulate urination?

A

Signals the external urethral sphincter to relax while the detrusor muscle contracts.

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43
Q

List factors that commonly influence urinary elimination.

A
  • Age
  • Fluid intake
  • Medications
  • Medical conditions
  • Psychological factors
  • Activity level
  • Pregnancy
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44
Q

What is urinary retention?

A

Inability to completely empty the bladder.

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45
Q

What are the types of urinary incontinence?

A
  • Stress incontinence
  • Urge incontinence
  • Overflow incontinence
  • Functional incontinence
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46
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Frequent urination at night.

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47
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Painful urination.

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48
Q

What is polyuria?

A

Excessive urination.

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49
Q

What is oliguria?

A

Decreased urine output.

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50
Q

What are the characteristics of normal urine?

A
  • Color: Pale yellow to amber
  • Clarity: Clear
  • Odor: Mild
  • pH: 4.5–8
  • Specific gravity: 1.005–1.030
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51
Q

What indicates abnormal urine clarity?

A

Cloudy urine, often indicating infection or proteinuria.

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52
Q

What does dark or bloody urine indicate?

A

Hematuria, which can be due to infection, trauma, or kidney stones.

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53
Q

What does foul-smelling urine suggest?

A

Urinary tract infection (UTI).

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54
Q

What does sweet or fruity odor in urine indicate?

A

Diabetes due to ketones in urine.

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55
Q

What does foamy urine indicate?

A

Excess protein, often related to kidney disease.

56
Q

What is the purpose of urinalysis?

A

Detects infection, kidney disease, or metabolic disorders.

57
Q

What does urine culture identify?

A

Bacteria in urinary tract infections (UTIs).

58
Q

What is the significance of a 24-hour urine collection?

A

Measures kidney function.

59
Q

What does a bladder scan measure?

A

Post-void residual urine.

60
Q

What is cystoscopy?

A

Endoscopic examination of the bladder.

61
Q

What do blood tests like BUN, Creatinine, and GFR evaluate?

A

Kidney function.

62
Q

List nursing measures to promote normal micturition.

A
  • Encourage adequate fluid intake
  • Promote a regular voiding schedule
  • Assist with mobility issues
  • Teach pelvic floor exercises
  • Provide privacy and relaxation techniques
  • Use absorbent products if needed
63
Q

What are nursing measures to reduce urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A
  • Encourage proper perineal hygiene
  • Promote adequate hydration
  • Encourage regular urination
  • Avoid catheterization when possible
  • Educate patients about irritating substances
  • Suggest wearing cotton underwear
64
Q

What are comorbidities that affect the kidneys?

A

Comorbidities include:
- Hypertension
- Acute Injury
- Rhabdomyolysis
- Autoimmune diseases like lupus

65
Q

What are common urinary elimination problems?

A

Common problems include:
- Urinary retention
- Stress incontinence
- Urinary incontinence
- Polyuria (excessive urination)
- Oliguria (little urination)
- Nocturia (urination at night)

66
Q

What considerations should be taken into account for urinary issues?

A

Considerations include:
- Infection control
- Growth & development
- Psychosocial implications
- Health literacy
- Patterns of urination (odor, clarity, symptoms)
- Cultural considerations
- Laboratory tests (BUN, GFR)
- Physical assessment (kidney, bladder, perineal)

67
Q

What are the goals in planning for urinary issues?

A

Goals include:
- Promoting normal urination
- Maintaining elimination habits
- Adequate fluid intake
- Complete bladder emptying
- Preventing infection
- Warm baths/showers

68
Q

What are the types of catheterization in acute care?

A

Types include:
- Intermittent catheterization
- Suprapubic catheterization (permanent)
- External catheters

69
Q

What are the sizes for catheters in males and females?

A

Catheter sizes:
- Female: 12-14 Fr
- Male: 14-18 Fr

70
Q

What is the purpose of bladder retraining?

A

Bladder retraining aims to restore normal bladder function and maintain continence.

71
Q

What is the normal pH range for urine?

A

4.6-8.0

pH level indicates acid-base balance. Acid pH helps protect against bacterial growth.

72
Q

What does the presence of protein in urine indicate?

A

Very sensitive indicator of kidney function

Damage to the glomerular membrane allows larger molecules such as protein to seep through.

73
Q

Under what condition might glucose appear in urine?

A

Poorly controlled diabetes

Inability of tubules to resorb high serum glucose concentrations (> 180 mg/100 mL).

74
Q

What causes ketones to be present in urine?

A

Breakdown of fatty acids

Occurs with poor control of type 1 diabetes, dehydration, starvation, or excessive aspirin ingestion.

75
Q

What is the normal range for specific gravity in urine?

A

1.005-1.030

Measures concentration of particles in urine.

76
Q

What does high specific gravity indicate?

A

Concentrated urine

Elevated by dehydration, reduced renal blood flow, and increased ADH secretion.

77
Q

What does low specific gravity indicate?

A

Diluted urine

Reduced by overhydration, early renal disease, and inadequate ADH secretion.

78
Q

What is the normal range for red blood cells (RBCs) in urine?

A

Up to 2

Elevated numbers indicate inflammation or infection.

79
Q

What is the normal range for white blood cells (WBCs) in urine?

A

0-4 per low-power field

Elevated levels may indicate infection.

80
Q

What does the presence of bacteria in urine indicate?

A

Infection or colonization

If the patient shows no symptoms, it may indicate colonization.

81
Q

What are casts in urine, and what do they indicate?

A

Cylindrical bodies not normally present

Their presence indicates renal disease.

82
Q

What do crystals in urine indicate?

A

Increased risk for renal calculi

Patients with high uric acid levels may develop uric acid crystals.

83
Q

True or False: Protein is normally present in urine.

A

False

Protein presence is a sensitive indicator of kidney function.

84
Q

Fill in the blank: The presence of _______ in urine can indicate renal disease.

A

casts

Casts take on the shape of objects within the renal tubule.

85
Q

What complication is associated with suctioning in a patient with a head injury?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

Suctioning increases intracranial pressure even when provided in the appropriate time interval.

86
Q

What should be performed before suctioning to reduce the risk of intracranial pressure?

A

Hyperventilation

Hyperventilation helps in minimizing the risk of increased intracranial pressure.

87
Q

What are the risks of too-frequent suctioning in patients?

A
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypotension
  • Arrhythmias
  • Possible trauma to the mucosa of the lungs

Frequent suctioning can lead to multiple complications that affect patient safety.

88
Q

True or False: Suctioning can lead to arrhythmias in patients.

A

True

Arrhythmias are one of the potential complications associated with suctioning.

89
Q

Fill in the blank: Suctioning increases _______ even when provided in the appropriate time interval.

A

intracranial pressure

This is a crucial consideration for nursing care in patients with head injuries.

90
Q

Which condition involves collapsed alveoli that prevent the normal exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

A

Atelectasis

Atelectasis is a pulmonary condition leading to a collapse of the alveoli.

91
Q

What condition impairs the efficient transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the lung?

A

Acute pulmonary embolism

Acute pulmonary embolism causes decreased arterial PO2 and an increase in the alveolar-arterial oxygen tension gradient.

92
Q

What structural abnormality alters the ability of the lungs to distend?

A

Kyphosis

Kyphosis results in increased intra-alveolar pressure but does not cause collapsed alveoli.

93
Q

True or False: A myocardial infarction may lead to collapsed alveoli.

A

False

A myocardial infarction may affect pulmonary circulation and result in dyspnea but does not cause collapsed alveoli.

94
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ is a pulmonary condition that leads to a collapse of the alveoli.

A

Atelectasis

Atelectasis prevents normal gas exchange.

95
Q

What are the most common gas exchange abnormalities in acute pulmonary embolism?

A

Decreased arterial PO2 and increased alveolar-arterial oxygen tension gradient

These abnormalities impair oxygen and carbon dioxide transfer.

96
Q

What does kyphosis affect in the lungs?

A

Compliance

Kyphosis alters lung distension ability, affecting compliance.

97
Q

What symptom may result from myocardial infarction affecting pulmonary circulation?

A

Dyspnea

Myocardial infarction can lead to difficulty in breathing.

98
Q

What is a cause of transient urinary incontinence?

A

Fecal impaction

Transient incontinence is caused by medical conditions that are treatable and reversible.

99
Q

What type of incontinence can be caused by idiopathic bladder overactivity?

A

Urge urinary incontinence

This means the cause of this type of incontinence is unknown.

100
Q

What condition can cause functional incontinence?

A

Cognitive impairment

Cognitive impairment affects the ability to manage urinary function.

101
Q

True or False: Overactive bladder can be associated with neurologic problems.

A

True

Urge urinary incontinence can also be related to a strong sense of urgency.

102
Q

Fill in the blank: Urge urinary incontinence can be associated with a strong sense of urgency related to an overactive bladder caused by _______.

A

neurologic problems

103
Q

Which patient is most likely to exhibit symptoms such as dysuria, urgency, frequency, and nocturia?

A

A patient with a urinary tract infection.

Dysuria, urgency, frequency, and nocturia are symptoms that may be exhibited by patients with urinary tract infections.

104
Q

What symptoms may a patient with kidney failure experience?

A

Oliguria.

A patient with kidney failure may experience oliguria.

105
Q

What symptoms may patients receiving diuretic therapy exhibit?

A

Polyuria.

Patients receiving diuretic therapy may exhibit polyuria.

106
Q

What symptoms may patients with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus exhibit?

A

Polyuria.

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus may exhibit polyuria.

107
Q

What substance in urine indicates a possible abnormality?

A

Glucose, 2+

A normal urinalysis should not be positive for glucose due to complete reabsorption.

108
Q

What is the acceptable level of protein in urine?

A

Under 8 mg/100 mL

The presence of protein at 6 mg/100 mL is within normal limits.

109
Q

What is the acceptable range for red blood cells in urine?

A

0 to 2

The presence of 2 red blood cells is considered acceptable.

110
Q

What is the acceptable white blood cell count in urine?

A

0 to 4

A white blood cell count of 4 is within normal limits.

111
Q

True or False: The presence of glucose in urine typically indicates a normal finding.

A

False

Glucose should not be present in urine under normal circumstances.

112
Q

What underlying factor may lead to the presence of urinary ketone bodies?

A

Starvation, Dehydration, Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Ketones are produced when the body uses fat for energy, particularly when carbohydrates are inadequate.

113
Q

Does epilepsy lead to the presence of ketone bodies in urine?

A

False

Epilepsy affects the nervous system and is not associated with ketonuria.

114
Q

Does hyperthyroidism lead to the presence of ketone bodies in urine?

A

False

Hyperthyroidism affects the endocrine system and does not cause ketonuria.

115
Q

What condition is associated with the body breaking down fatty acids for energy?

A

Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

In uncontrolled diabetes, the body cannot utilize glucose effectively, leading to fat breakdown.

116
Q

Fill in the blank: Ketones are produced as a by-product when the body uses ______ for energy production.

A

fat

This process occurs particularly when carbohydrate intake is low.

117
Q

Which of the following can lead to ketonuria? (Select all that apply) - Epilepsy, Starvation, Dehydration, Hyperthyroidism, Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

A

Starvation, Dehydration, Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Only these conditions are associated with the presence of ketone bodies in urine.

118
Q

What is urinary incontinence?

A

Characterized by any involuntary loss of urine

Urinary incontinence can manifest in various forms, including urge and stress incontinence.

119
Q

Which types of urinary incontinence are common?

A

Urge incontinence and stress incontinence

These are the two most prevalent forms of urinary incontinence.

120
Q

True or False: Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and functional incontinence.

A

False

Mixed incontinence is actually a combination of stress and urge incontinence.

121
Q

Is urinary incontinence common in older adults?

A

Yes

Urinary incontinence is frequently observed in the older adult population.

122
Q

Fill in the blank: Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and _______.

A

[urge]

This distinction is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

123
Q

What condition is suspected with increased blood pressure, tachycardia, dizziness, decreased level of consciousness, and the need to sit in a high Fowler’s position?

A

Hypoxia

Hypoxia is characterized by clinical signs such as apprehension, restlessness, and behavioral changes.

124
Q

What are some clinical signs and symptoms of hypoxia?

A
  • Apprehension
  • Restlessness
  • Inability to concentrate
  • Decreased level of consciousness
  • Dizziness
  • Behavioral changes

Hypoxia may also lead to fatigue and agitation.

125
Q

What vital sign changes are associated with hypoxia?

A
  • Increased pulse rate
  • Increased rate and depth of respiration

These changes reflect the body’s response to insufficient oxygen.

126
Q

What does hyperlipidemia refer to?

A

Elevated levels of fat/triglycerides in the blood

Hyperlipidemia can cause xanthelasma but not the signs presented in the patient.

127
Q

What is the effect of hypovolemia on blood pressure?

A

Causes blood pressure to decrease

Hypovolemia is typically associated with shock or severe dehydration.

128
Q

What symptoms are associated with hyperventilation?

A
  • Rapid respirations
  • Sighing breaths
  • Numbness and tingling of hands/feet

Hyperventilation does not present the signs in the scenario provided.

129
Q

What immediate action should the nurse take for a patient with COPD receiving oxygen therapy and showing high carbon dioxide levels?

A

Remove the mask

The simple face mask is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention.

130
Q

Why is the simple face mask contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention?

A

It delivers 6 L/min or more of oxygen, preventing PaO2 from falling

This prevents stimulation of peripheral receptors that trigger breathing.

131
Q

What flow rate of oxygen is typically delivered by a simple face mask?

A

6 L/min or more

This rate is too high for patients with COPD to avoid carbon dioxide retention.

132
Q

What is the appropriate oxygen delivery method for a patient with COPD who retains carbon dioxide?

A

Use a nasal cannula

A nasal cannula allows safe delivery of lower rates of oxygen without rebreathing exhaled carbon dioxide.

133
Q

What are the risks of reapplying a simple face mask on a patient with high carbon dioxide levels?

A

Continued carbon dioxide retention

This could worsen the patient’s condition.

134
Q

What oxygen concentration does a nonrebreather mask typically deliver?

A

60% to 90% oxygen

Nonrebreather masks are contraindicated for COPD patients due to high oxygen levels.

135
Q

What flow rate does a nonrebreather mask require?

A

10 to 15 L/min

This high flow rate can be harmful for patients with COPD.

136
Q

True or False: Covering the patient’s mouth and nose with a simple face mask is safe for patients with COPD.

A

False

It allows for continued carbon dioxide retention.