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A&P > Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton > Flashcards

Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

What is orthopaedics?

How many bones are in the adult body?

Do children have more or less bones than adults?

A

correction of musculoskeletal system (not just feet)

206

more

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2
Q

Which has more bones: the axial skeleton or appendicular?

Are the clavicle, scapula and hips part of the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

appendicular (126 bones while axial has 80)

appendicular

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a type of bone:
long, short, flat, wide, irregular, sesamoid, sutural

The femur, tibia, fibula, humerus, phalanges, ulna and radius are all example of what type of bone?

A

wide

long

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4
Q

Which two types of bone vary between different people?

Which type of bone is named for its location not shape?

Which two types of bone do not have red bone marrow?

A

sesamoid and sutural (note: they are small)

sutural

sesamoid and sutural

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5
Q

Match the bones with their type:

a. flat
b. long
c. sesamoid
d. sutural
e. short
f. irregular

i. carpal and tarsal
ii. vertebrae, hips, some of face, calcaneus
iii. phalanges
iv. patellae
v. cranial, sternum, ribs, scapulae
vi. cranium joints

A

a & v (cranial, sternum, ribs, scapulae are flat)
b & iii (phalanges are long bones)
c & iv (patellae is sesamoid)
d &vi (cranium joints are sutural)
e & i (carpal and tarsal are short)
f & ii (vertebrae, hips, some of face and calcaneus are irregular)

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6
Q

Match the descriptions with the bones:

a. slightly curved, mostly compact bone
b. thin and spongy, high surface area for protection and attachment
c. act like pulleys, form in tendons

i. sesamoid
ii. long
iii. flat

A

a & ii, b & iii, c & i

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7
Q

Red marrow is mostly in which type of bones?

A

flat, irregular and long (and some short bones)

hint: not the s bones

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8
Q

Match the five types of depression with their description:

a. fissure
b. foramen
c. fossa
d. sulcus
e. meatus

i. shallow dent
ii. tube-like opening
iii. hole
iv. trench
v. narrow slit

A 
a& v
b& iii
c& i
d& iv
e& ii
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9
Q

Which 3 types of processes are for joints? Which 7 are for attachment points?

  • crest
  • epicondyle
  • condyle
  • facet
  • line
  • spinous process
  • head
  • trochanter
  • tubercle
  • tuberosity
A

joints:
condyle, facet, head (think: CoFaHe or “coffee”)

attachment: crest, epicondyle, line, spinous process, trochanter, tubercle, tuberosity

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10
Q

Match the five types of processes with their description:

a. condyle
b. facet
c. head
d. crest
e. epicondyle

i. prominent ridge
ii. on a narrow area, rounded
iii. above condyle, usually rough
iv. large and round with smooth end
v. smooth and flat

A 
a& iv
b& v
c& ii
d& i
e&iii
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11
Q

Match the other five types of processes with their description:

a. line
b. spinous process
c. trochanter
d. tubercle
e. tuberosity

i. non-prominent ridge
ii. very large
iii. thin, sharp
iv. rough, bumpy, various sizes
v. rounded, various sizes

A 
a&i
b&iii
c&ii
d&v
e&iv
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12
Q

Which bones of the face are cranial? Which bones are facial?

A

cranial: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid (FSETOP)
facial: nasal, maxillae, zygomatic, mandible, lacrimal, palatine, nasal conchae, vomer (NVMMZLIP)

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13
Q

Where is the:

  • metopic suture
  • coronal suture
  • sagittal suture
  • lambdoid suture
  • squamous suture
A
  • metopic suture: the two frontal bones
  • coronal suture: parietal and frontal
  • sagittal suture: the two parietal bones
  • lambdoid suture: occipital and parietal
  • squamous suture: parietal and temporal
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14
Q

Which two cranial bones have pairs?

Which two facial bones don’t have a pair?

How many bones are in the skull (excluding the ossicles)?

A

parietal and temporal (tp)

mandible and vomer (mv)

22 skull bones

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15
Q

Mastoiditis is the infection of air cells in which cranial bone?

The TMJ is the connection of which two bones?

A

temporal bone

temporomandibular joint so temporal and mandibular

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16
Q

Which two cranial nerves go through the temporal bone?

Which three blood vessels go through the temporal bone?

A

facial (7) and vestibulocochear (8)

stylomastoid artery, carotid artery and jugular vein

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17
Q

What is the depression and process of the TMJ?

Where are the temporal squama and zygomatic process on the face?

What is the section that connects the temporal and zygomatic called?

A

mandibular fossa and articular tubercle

temporal squama: temple
zygomatic process: cheek

zygomatic arch

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18
Q

Where do neck muscles attach to the temporal bone?

A

mastoid process

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19
Q

Match the bone depression or process to what it contains:

a. internal auditory meatus
b. styloid process
c. stylomastoid foramen
d. petrous portion
e. carotid foramen
f. jugular foramen

i. tongue and neck muscles and ligament attachments
ii. facial and vestibulocochear nerve
iii. jugular vein
iv. inner and outer ear, carotid foramen
v. facial nerve and stylomastoid artery
vi. carotid artery

A 
a& ii
b& i
c& v
d& iv
e& vi
f& iii
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20
Q

Which nerve goes through the occipital bone?

The atlanto-occipital joint connects the occipital condyles to the cervical vertebra which allows which movement?

The occipital bone allows which part of the brain to connect to the spinal cord?

A

accessory nerve (3)

nodding

medulla

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21
Q

Which arteries go through the occipital bone and what is the foramen for them called?

What is the midline projection of the occipital bone called and what attaches to it?

A

vertebral and spinal arteries; foramen magnum

external occipital protuberance; ligamentum nuchae which connnects to the 7th cervical vertebrae to support the head

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22
Q

What are the two curved ridges beside the external occipital protuberance called?

Which canal is above the occipital condyles?

A

superior nuchal lines

hypoglossal canal

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23
Q

Which bone is the keystone of the cranial floor? What is behind it?

A

sphenoid

sinus behind

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24
Q

What are the two different ridges and depression of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone called?

What does the depression of the sella turcica contain?

A

two ridges: tuberculum sellae, dorsum sellae
depression: hypophyseal fossa

pituitary gland

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25
Q

What nerve and artery go through the optic foramen of the sphenoid bone?

What goes through the superior orbital fissure?

Where do some mandible muscles attach to the sphenoid bone?

A

optic (2) nerve and ophthalmic artery

blood vessels and cranial nerves

pterygoid process

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26
Q

Sphenoid bone:

Which foramen is at the base of the pterygoid process?

Which artery does the lacerum foramen contain?

Which nerve passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

foramen ovale

ascending pharyngeal artery

maxillary branch of the 5th nerve (trigeminal)

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27
Q

Where is the ethomid bone?

Is the ethmoid bone compact or spongy?

What is the plate at the top of the nasal septum called?

A

between the eyes, top of the nose

spongy

perpendicular plate

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28
Q

Where is the cribriform plate?

What attaches to the crista galli to separate the two sides of the nose?

What are ethmoidal cells?

A

roof of the ethmoid bone

falx cerebri (membrane that separates the two sides of the nose)

ethmoid cells: 3-18 air spaces which make the ethmoid sinuses

29
Q

Which conchae is not included in the ethmoid bone?

Which conchae helps with smell?

What do the turbinates (nasal conchae) do?

Where is the foramina for the olfactory nerves?

A

inferior conchae (but superior and middle conchae are)

superior conchae

humidify and filter

perpendicular plate

30
Q

Which facial bone does the maxillae not articulate with?

A

mandible

31
Q

Match the facial bone with its description:

a. nasal bone
b. lacrimal bone
c. palatine bone
d. vomer
e. maxillae
f. inferior nasal conchae

i. top sides of the nose
ii. inferior part of bony nasal septum
iii. has the tear ducts
iv. upper jawbone, most of hard palate
v. L shaped, back of mouth, above teeth
vi. humidifies and filters

A 
a& i
b& iii
c& v
d& ii
e& iv
f& vi
32
Q

What bone is the smallest facial bone?

Which facial bone is triangular?

What does the lacrimal fossa contain?

Which nutrient can help prevent cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

lacrimal bone

vomer

tear ducts

folic acid

33
Q

What does the maxillae separate?

What is the ridge in the maxillae that has pockets for the upper teeth called?

What is the hard palate of the maxillae called?

A

nose from the mouth

alveolar process (the pockets for teeth are called alveoli)

palantine process

34
Q

Which bone contains the inferior orbital fissure?

A

maxillae

35
Q

In the maxillae, which nerve is in the infraorbital hole?

In the maxillae, which hole is the nasopalatine nerve and blood vessels in?

A

trigeminal (5) nerve

incisive hole

36
Q

Which two nerves does the maxillae contain?

A

trigeminal (5) nerve and nasopalatine nerve

37
Q

Which bone is the strongest facial bone?

Which process is how the mandible attaches to the temporal bone?

Which process has temporalis muscle attachment?

A

mandible (lower jaw, also largest facial bone)

condylar process

coronoid process

38
Q

mandible

Which bone is the only freely moveable bone in the skull (aside from the ossicles)?

Which depression is between the condylar and coronoid process?

Which foramen has the mental nerve?

A

mandible

mandibular notch

mental foramen

39
Q

Which foramen has blood vessels for the lower teeth?

Which process of the mandible has the lower teeth?

A

mandibular foramen

alveolar process

40
Q

What is a suture?

What three things make the skull unique?

What is more common: broken nose cartilage or broken nose bones?

A

immoveable joint

sutures, paranasal sinuses, fontanels (soft spots)

broken nose cartilage

41
Q

Which two bones and cartilage make up the nasal septum?

A

vomer, ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate) and septal cartilage (made of hyaline cartilage)

42
Q

Which three cranial bones and four facial bones form the eye socket (orbit)?

A

cranial: frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid (FSE)
facial: maxillae, palatine, lacrimal, zygomatic
(Max, PLZ)

43
Q

Which

  • two bones make up the roof of the orbit
  • two bones make up the lateral wall
  • three bones make up the floor of the orbit
  • four bones make up the medial wall of the orbit
A

roof: frontal and sphenoid
lateral wall: zygomatic, sphenoid
floor: maxillae, zygomatic, palatine
medial wall: maxillae, lacrimal, ethmoid, sphenoid

  • sphenoid: roof, lat wall and medial wall
  • zygomatic: lat wall and floor
  • maxillae: floor and med wall
  • frontal only on roof
  • palatine only on floor
  • lacrimal and ethmoid only on med wall
44
Q

Which four bones have the paranasal sinuses?

What do the paranasal sinuses do?

A

frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae

humidify, filter, resonation (voice quality)

45
Q

Match the fontanel (soft spot) with its description:

a. anterior fontanel
b. posterior fontanel
c. anterolateral fontanel
d. posterolateral fontanel

i. paired, between parietal, occipital and temporal bone, irregular, closes at 12 mo
ii. unpaired, largest, between parietal and frontal bone, closes at 18-24 mo
iii. unpaired, between parietal and occipital bone, close at 2 mo
iv. paired, between frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bone, closes at 3 mo

A

a& ii
b& iii
c& iv
d& i

“lateral” fontanels are between 3 or more bones

46
Q

Which bone is U shaped, doesn’t articulate with any other bone and can be broken during manual strangulation?

A

hyloid

47
Q

Which bones fuse from childhood to adulthood in the spine?

A

the 5 sacral bones fuse into 1 and the 4 coccygeal fuse into 1

48
Q

How many vertebral are in the cervical, thoracic and lumbar section of the spinal column?

Which parts of the spinal column don’t move?

Which two curves are considered the “primary curves” of the spinal column?

A

cervical: 7; thoracic: 12; lumbar: 5

coccyx and sacrum

thoracic and sacral (as the cervical curves convex at 3mo when head is held up and lumbar curves convex when walking starts)
note: curves fully developed at age 10

49
Q

In the intervertebral disc, what is the outer and inner ring made of?

What are the inferior and superior plates of the intervertebral disc made of?

What happens to discs during aging?

A

outer: annulus fibrosus (fibrocartilage), its fibrous
inner: nucleus pulposus, its soft, pulpy and elastic

plates: hyaline cartilage (thin layer)

nucleus pulposus hardens and is less elastic

50
Q

Which is the smallest vertebra?

Does the spinal cord go through the vertebral body or vertebral arch?

Do the nutrient foramina go through the vertebral body or vertebral arch?

Which has the pedicles: the vertebral body or vertebral arch?

A

coccyx

vertebral arch

vertebral body

vertebral arch

51
Q

Match the processes with their function:

a. transverse processes & spinous process
b. superior articular processes & inferior articular processes

i. muscle attachment
ii. intervertebral joints (how adjacent vertebra attach)

A

a& i, b& ii

52
Q

What type of cartilage covers the articular processes?

What is the small type of vertebra besides the coccyx?

What are the first and second cervical vertebra called?

A

hyaline

cervical

atlas and axis

53
Q

Which cervical vertebra doesn’t have a spinous process?

Which cervical vertebra doesn’t have a spinous process or a vertebral body?

A

axis and atlas

atlas

54
Q

What is unusual about the cervical vertebral foramina?

What type of foramen do cervical vertebra have that the other vertebra don’t? What passes through them?

What is special about the spinous process of C1-C6?

A

how large it is

transverse foramen; vertebral artery, vein and nerves

they are bifid (spinous process branches into 2 at the tip)

55
Q

Which joint allows you to nod yes? To shake your head?

A

nod: atlanto-occipital joint
shake: atlanto-axial joint (note: the axial “dens” attaches)

56
Q

What part of the spine being driven into the medulla is the usual cause of death from whiplash injuries?

A

the dens of the axial vertebra (C2)

57
Q

Which cervical vertebra can be seen and felt?

A

C7 (vertebra prominens)

58
Q

Which thoracic vertebra have spinous processes that point down? That point back?

Which vertebra has transverse processes that costal facets that articulate with rib tubercles?

What is the difference between a facet and a demi-facet?

A

down: T1-T10; back: T11, T12

T1-T10

facet: head of rib articulates with body of one vertebra
demi-facet: head of rib articulates with 2 adjacent vertebral bodies

59
Q

What are vertebrocostal joints?

What type of facets does T1 have and for which ribs?
Which type of facets do T2-T8 have and for which ribs?
Which type of facets do T10-T12 have and for which ribs?

A

articulations between thoracic vertebrae and ribs

T1: superior facet for rib 1 & inferior demifacet for rib 2
T2-T8: superior and inferior demifacet for ribs 2-9
T10-T12: facets on each side of the vertebral body for ribs 10-12

60
Q

On the lumbar vertebra, where do the following processes project?

  • superior anterior process
  • inferior anterior process
  • spinous process

Are the lumbar vertebra the strongest?

A
  • superior anterior process: medially
  • inferior anterior process: laterally
  • spinous process: posteriorly

yes

61
Q

Which type of vertebra have inferiorly projecting spinous processes?

When do the sacral vertebra start and end fusing?

Is the sacrum wider in men or women?

A

thoracic

start: 16-18, end: 30

women

62
Q

Describe the parts of the sacrum:

a. transverse line
b. sacral ala
c. sacral hiatus
d. sacral cornu
e. apex
f. base
g. sacral promontory
h. auricular surface
i. median sacral crest
j. lateral sacral crest

A

a. transverse line: ridges where sacral vertebra fused
b. sacral ala: smooth surfacee where S1 transverse processes fused
c. sacral hiatus: when 4th or 5th vertebra doesn’t meet
d. sacral cornu: inferior articular process of 5th vertebra, connects to coccyx
e. apex: narrow inferior portion of sacrum
f. base: broad superior portion of sacrum
g. sacral promontory: used to measure pelvis, anteriorly projecting base border
h. auricular surface: ear shaped, articulates with ilium of hip bone
i. median sacral crest: posterior sacrum, fused spinous processes
j. lateral sacral crest: fused transverse processes

63
Q

When does the coccyx fuse?

What are the coccygeal cornua (that connect to sacral cornua) made of?

A

20-30

pedicles and superior articularly processes

64
Q

When does the sternum fuse?

What are the three parts of the sternum?

Where is the sternal angle?

What are the clavicular notches lateral to?

A

25

manubrium, body (middle, largest), xiphoid process (smallest, inferior)

where the manubrium and body meet

lateral to the suprasternal notch (depression on superior surface of the sternum)

65
Q

The manubrium attaches to the costal cartilage of which ribs?

The sternum body articulates with the costal cartilage of which ribs?

What does the xiphoid process attach to?

A

1 & 2

2-10 (directly or indirectly)

some abdominal muscles

66
Q

What is the xiphoid process made of in childhood? When does it finish changing?

When can the xiphoid process fracture?

How many ribs are there?

What type of cartilage is costal cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage, age 40 (ossifies)

during improper CPR

12

hyaline

67
Q

Which ribs are vertebrosternal (true ribs)?

Which ribs are vertebrochondral?

Which ribs are floating?

A

ribs 1-7 (attach directly to sternum)

8-10, attach to each other and to 7th rib

11 & 12, attach to vertebrae but not sternum

68
Q

What is costochondritis?

What is the tubercle of the rib?

What is the costal groove of the rib?

What are the two ways a rib can attach to a vertebra?

A

inflammation of the costal cartilage

where neck of rib joins the body

inner surface of ribs, protects intercostal blood vessels and nerve

by head (to body of vertebra) or articular part of tubercle (to vertebral transverse process)

A&P (9 decks)

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