Chapter 6 - Skeletal System Flashcards
1
Q
a tough, ropelike protein that makes cartilage tough
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Collagen
2
Q
large molecules consisting of many polysaccharides attaching to and encircling core protein
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Proteoglycans
3
Q
contains collagen and proteoglycans.
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Cartilage
4
Q
form large aggregates, attract and retain large amounts of water between the polysaccharides.
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Proteoglycans
5
Q
contains large amounts of collagen fibers, making these structures very tough, like ropes or cables.
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Tendons and ligaments
6
Q
make the cartilage smooth
and resilient
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Proteoglycans
7
Q
most of the minerals in bone, in the form of calcium
phosphate crystals
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Hydroxyapatite
8
Q
osteogenesis imperfecta/ imperfect bone formation, rare disorder caused by any
one of a number of faulty genes that result in either too little collagen formation, or poor quality collagen
CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease
A
Brittle bone disease
9
Q
longer than they are wide
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Long bones
10
Q
approximately as wide as they are long; examples are the bones of the wrist and ankle
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Short bones
11
Q
this shape enhances their function in the movement of appendages.
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Long bones
12
Q
well-suited to providing a strong barrier around soft organs such as the brain and heart
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Flat bones
13
Q
include the vertebrae and facial bones, which have shapes that do not fit readily into the other three categories
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Irregular bones
14
Q
they help transfer force between long bones
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Short bones
15
Q
have a relatively thin, flattened shape
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Flat bones
16
Q
these bones tend to have specialized functions, such as providing protection while allowing bending and flexing of certain body regions such as the spine
CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
A
Irregular bones
17
Q
two ends of a bone
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Epiphysis
18
Q
central shaft of bone
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Diaphysis
19
Q
covers the ends of the
epiphyses where the bone articulates (joins) with other bones.
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Articular
20
Q
where the bone grows in length.
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Epiphyseal plate
21
Q
The large cavity in the diaphysis
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Medullary cavity
22
Q
when bone growth stops, the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Epiphyseal line
23
Q
soft tissue that fills the spaces
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Marrow
24
Q
consists mostly of adipose tissue
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
A
Yellow marrow
25
consists of blood-forming cells and is the only site of blood formation in adults
CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow
Red marrow
26
__________ have proportionately more red marrow than do adult bones because, as a person ages, red marrow is mostly replaced by yellow marrow.
Children’s bones
27
In adults, red marrow is confined to the bones in the central axis of the body and in the most proximal diaphyses of the limbs. True or False
False - epiphyses
28
the outer surface of bone covered by dense connective tissue
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Periosteum
29
the surface of the medullary cavity is lined with a thinner connective tissue membrane
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Endosteum
30
contained by the periosteum and endosteum
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Osteoblasts
31
osteoblasts when surrounded by matrix, they are referred to as ____________
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
osteocytes
32
bone-destroying cells
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Osteoclasts
33
function in the formation of bone, as well as in the repair and remodeling of bone
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Osteoblasts
34
osteoclasts are also present and contribute to bone repair and remodeling by removing existing bone, called ____________
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
bone reabsorption
35
bone is formed in thin sheets of extracellular matrix called __________
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Lamellae
36
osteocytes located between the lamellae within spaces
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Lacunae
37
gives the osteon the appearance of having tiny cracks within the lamellae
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Canaliculi
38
mostly solid matrix and cells
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Compact bone
39
Cell processes extend from the osteocytes across the extracellular matrix of the lamellae within tiny canals called ________
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Canaliculi
40
consists of a lacy network of bone with many small, marrow-filled spaces
CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone
Spongy bone
41
Compact bone is also known as the ___________ bone
cortical
42
forms the perimeter of the diaphysis of a long bone and the thinner surfaces of all other bones
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
Compact bone
43
repeating units of a compact bone
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
osteons
44
consists of concentric rings of lamellae surrounding a central canal
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
osteons
45
located in lacunae between the lamellae of each osteon
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
Osteocytes
46
has a predictable pattern of repeating units
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
Compact bone
47
Each osteon consists of concentric rings of lamellae surrounding a central canal, or _____________.
CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal
Haversian canal
48
Nutrients leave the blood vessels of the central canals and diffuse to the osteocytes through the canaliculi. Waste products diffuse in the opposite direction. True or False
True
49
Osteocytes are connected to one another by cell processes in canaliculi. True or False
True
50
very porous and is located in the epiphyses of long bones and lines the medullary cavity of long bones.
Spongy Bone
51
Spongy bone consists of delicate interconnecting rods or plates of bone called __________
trabeculae
52
Spongey bone has more bone matrix and more open space than compact bone. True or False
False - It has less bone matrix and more open space than compact bone.
53
It adds strength to a bone without the added weight that would be present if the bone were solid mineralized matrix.
trabeculae
54
Nutrients exit vessels in the marrow and pass by diffusion through canaliculi to the osteocytes of the trabeculae. True or False
True
55
The spaces between the trabeculae are filled with ________
marrow
56
the formation of bone by osteoblasts.
Ossification
57
After an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by a bone matrix, it becomes a mature bone cell or osteoblast. True or False
False - osteocytes
58
In the fetus, bones develop by five processes, each involving the formation of a bone matrix on preexisting connective tissue. True or False
False - two
59
The bone formation that occurs within connective tissue membranes is called ____________
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
intramembranous ossification
60
bone formation that occurs inside hyaline cartilage is called _____________
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
61
The chondrocytes release matrix vesicles, which initiate the formation of hydroxy- apatite crystals
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
62
occurs primarily in the bones of the skull
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
intramembranous ossification
63
where the process begins as the trabeculae radiate out from the centers
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
ossification centers
64
the bones at the base of the skull and most of the remaining skeletal system develop through this process
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
65
Usually, two or more ossification centers exist in each flat skull bone. True or False
True
66
The cartilage models have the general shape of the mature bone and increase its size
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
67
chondrocytes in the center of the model absorb some of the cartilage matrices and enlarge.
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
68
occurs when osteoblasts begin to produce bone within connective tissue membranes
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
intramembranous ossification
69
As this process is occurring in the center of the cartilage model, blood vessels accumulate in the perichondrium
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
70
The center part of the diaphysis, where bone first begins to appear, is called the _____________
primary ossification center
71
A medullary cavity forms in the center of the diaphysis as osteoclasts remove bone and calcified cartilage, which are replaced by the bone marrow.
CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification
endochondral ossification
72
appears after the primary ossification center has already appeared
secondary ossification centers
73
occurs by the deposition of new bone lamellae onto the existing bone or other connective tissue.
CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth
bone growth
74
This type of bone growth occurs through endochondral ossification
CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth
epiphyseal plate
75
As osteoblasts deposit new bone matrix on the surface of bones between the periosteum and the existing bone matrix, the bone increases in width, or diameter. This process is called ____________
CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth
appositional growth
76
Growth in the length of a bone, which is the major source of increased height in an individual, occurs in the ____________.
CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth
epiphyseal plate
77
The removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts and occurs in all bone
Bone remodeling
78
The shape and composition of bones are constantly changing through bone remodeling. True or False
True
79
A short bone increases in length and diameter as new bone is deposited on the outer surface and growth occurs at the epiphyseal plate. True or False
False - long
80
As the bone diameter increases, the thickness of the compact bone relative to the medullary cavity tends to remain fairly constant. True or False
True
81
Bone remodeling is important to maintain blood calcium levels within normal limits. True or False
True
82
Calcium is removed from bones when blood calcium levels decrease, and it is deposited when dietary calcium is inadequate. True or False
False - adequate
83
Too little bone formation or too much bone removal, as occurs in __________, weakens the bones and makes them susceptible to fracture
osteoporosis
84
blood vessels in the bone are also damaged in a bone fracture. True or False
True
85
___________ after the injury, blood vessels and cells from surrounding tissues begin to invade the clot.
Two to three days
86
The network of fibers and islets of cartilage between the two bone fragments is called a _________
callus
87
Spongy bone formation in the callus is usually complete __________ after the injury.
4–6 weeks
88
occurs when an open wound extends to the site of the fracture or when a fragment of bone protrudes through the skin.
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
open fracture or compound fracture
89
If the skin is not perforated, the fracture is called a __________
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
closed fracture or simple fracture
90
If the soft tissues around a closed fracture are damaged, it is called a ___________.
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
complicated fracture
91
An ____________ does not extend completely across the bone
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
incomplete fracture
92
a _________ the bone is broken into at least two fragments
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
complete fracture
93
An incomplete fracture on the convex side of the curve of the bone is a _________.
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
greenstick fracture
94
___________ are incomplete fractures in which the two sections of bone do not separate; common in the skull.
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
Hairline fracture
95
a complete fracture in which the bone breaks into more than two pieces—usually two major fragments and a smaller fragment
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
comminuted fracture
96
one fragment is driven into the spongy portion of the other fragment
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
impacted fracture
97
run parallel to the length of the bone
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
Linear fractures
98
at right angles to the length of the bone
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
transverse fracture
99
take a helical course around the bone
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
Spiral fractures
100
run obliquely in relation to the length of the bone
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
oblique fractures
101
have rough, toothed, broken ends
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
Dentate fractures
102
have breakage lines radiating from a central point
CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures
stellate fractures
103
Bone is the major storage site for _________ in the body
calcium
104
Calcium (Ca2+) moves into bone as osteoclasts build new bone and out of bone as osteoblasts break down bone. True or False
False - osteoblast, osteoclast
105
When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity decreases, osteoclasts release calcium from bone into the blood, and blood calcium levels increase. True or False
False - osteoclast activity increases
106
if blood calcium levels are too high, osteoclast activity decreases, osteoblasts remove calcium from the blood to produce new bone, and blood calcium levels decrease. True or False
True
107
PTH and vitamin D are secreted when blood cal- cium levels are too __________
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
low
108
Calcitonin is secreted when blood calcium levels are too __________.
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
high
109
PTH works through __________ simultaneous mechanisms to increase blood calcium levels.
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
three
110
PTH indirectly stimulates ___________ to break down bone, which releases stored calcium into the blood.
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
osteoclasts
111
PTH stimulates the _________ to take up calcium from the urine and return it to the blood.
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
kidney
112
PTH stimulates the formation of active vitamin D, which, in turn, promotes increased calcium absorption from the ___________.
CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver
small intestine
113
Calcitonin works to decrease blood calcium levels by inhibit- ing osteoclast activity. True or False
True
114
a bacterial infection in bone.
Osteomyelitis
115
the causative organism in
| Osteomyelitis
Staphylococcus aureus
116
___________ bones in the average adult skeleton
206
117
a hole in a bone
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
foramen
118
If the hole is elongated into a tunnel-like passage through the bone, it is called a canal or a _______
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
meatus
119
depression in a bone is called a _______
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
fossa
120
rounded projection on a bone
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
tubercle or tuberosity
121
a sharp projection from a bone is called a _______
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
process
122
The smooth, rounded end of a bone, where it forms a joint with another bone, is called a _________
CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle
condyle
123
The constricted area between head and body
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Neck
124
Enlarged (often rounded) end
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Head
125
Small, flattened articular surface
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Facet
126
Prominent ridge
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Crest
127
Enlargement near or above a condyle
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Epicondyle
128
Large tuberosity found only on proximal femur
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Trochanter
129
Cleft
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Fissure
130
Cavity
CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus
Sinus
131
Total number of bones in the axial skeleton
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
80
132
Total number of bones in the appendicular skeleton
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
126
133
Total number of bones found in the skull
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
22
134
Total number of bones found in the auditory ausicles
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
6
135
Total number of bones found in the vertebral column
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
26
136
Total number of bones found in the thoracic cage
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
25
137
Total number of bones found in the girdle and upper limb
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
64
138
Total number of bones found in the girdle and lower limb
CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77
62
139
encloses the cranial cavity, consists of 8 bones, surround and protect the brain
braincase or neurocranium
140
the 14 __________ form the structure of the face
facial bones or viscerocranium
141
__________ of the facial bones are rather solidly connected to form the bulk of the face.
13 or Thirteen
142
forms a freely movable joint with the rest of the skullCHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
mandible
143
form a large portion of the side of the head
parietal bones and temporal bones
144
parietal bones and temporal bones are joined together by a ___________
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
squamous suture
145
a joint uniting bones of the skull
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
suture
146
Anteriorly, the parietal bone is joined with the ___________
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
frontal bone
147
parietal bones and frontal bone are joined together by a ___________
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
coronal suture
148
Posteriorly, the parietal bone is joined with the ___________
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
occipital bone
149
parietal bones and occipital bone are joined together by a ___________
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
lambdoid suture
150
A prominent feature of the temporal bone is a large opening, the _________, a canal that enables sound waves to reach the eardrum.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
external auditory canal
151
The _______ of the temporal bone can be seen and felt as a prominent projection just posterior to the ear.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
mastoid process
152
a single bone that extends completely across the skull and resembles a butterfly
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
sphenoid bone
153
the cheekbone
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
zygomatic bone
154
consists of joined processes of the temporal and zygomatic bones form a bridge across the side of the face, and provides a major attachment site for a muscle moving the mandible
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
zygomatic arch
155
forms the upper jaw and contains the superior set of teeth
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
maxilla
156
forms the lower jaw and contains the inferior set of teeth
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
mandible
157
cone-shaped fossae, so named because the eyes rotate within them.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
orbits
158
how many bones form the orbits?
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
7 or seven
159
They provide openings through which nerves and blood vessels communicate with the orbit or pass to the face.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
superior and inferior orbital fissures
160
The optic nerve, for the sense of vision, passes from the eye through the _________ and enters the cranial cavity.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
optic foramen
161
passes from the orbit into the nasal cavity
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
nasolacrimal canal
162
It contains a duct that carries tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
nasolacrimal canal
163
A small _________ can be seen in the orbit just above the opening of this canal.
CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture
lacrimal bone
164
What are the seven bones that form the orbit?
```
Sphenoid
Frontal
Zygomatic
Ethmoid
Lacrimal
Maxilla
Palatine
```
165
divides the nasal cavity into right and left halves.
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
nasal septum
166
What are the structures that form the nasal septum?
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
Vomer
| Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
167
forms the inferior half of the nasal septum
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
Vomer
168
forms the superior half of the nasal septum
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
169
the nasal septum consists of _________ cartilage.
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
hyaline
170
The bridge of the nose is formed by the _________.
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
nasal bones
171
Each of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity has three bony shelves, called the _________
CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae
nasal conchae
172
The ________ increase the surface area in the nasal cavity.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
conchae
173
The ________ decrease the weight of the skull and act as resonating chambers during voice production.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
sinuses
174
These air cells open into the middle ear instead of into the nasal cavity.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
mastoid air cells
175
foramina that transmit important nerves to the face.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
foramen rotundum, foramen ovale
176
The bones forming the floor of the cranial cavity
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones
177
A major artery to the menin- ges (the membranes around the brain) passes through the __________.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
foramen spinosum
178
The internal carotid artery passes through the ___________
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
carotid canal
179
internal jugular vein passes through the ___________
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
jugular foramen
180
The large ____________, through which the spinal cord joins the brain, is located in the posterior fossa.
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
foramen magnum
181
The central region of the sphenoid bone is modified into a structure resembling a saddle and contains the pituitary gland
CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica
sella turcica
182
the smooth points of articulation between the skull and the vertebral column, and are located beside the foramen magnum.
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
Occipital condyles
183
The muscles involved in moving the tongue, the hyoid bone, and the pharynx (throat) originate from this process
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
styloid processes
184
where the mandible articulates with the temporal bone, is anterior to the mastoid process.
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
mandibular fossa
185
forms the roof of the mouth, which is also the floor of the nasal cavity.
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
hard palate
186
The anterior two-thirds of the hard palate is formed by the _______, the posterior one-third by the_________ bones.
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
maxillae, palatine
187
the muscular part at the back of the roof of the mouth.
CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles
soft palate
188
The hard and soft palates separate the nasal cavity and nasopharynx from the mouth, enabling us to chew and breathe at the same time. True or False
True
189
an unpaired, U-shaped bone, not part of the skull and has no direct bony attachment to the skull or any other bones.
hyoid bone
190
The ____________ has the unique distinction of being the only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone. Also, it provides an attachment for some tongue muscles, and it is an attachment point for important neck muscles that elevate the larynx
hyoid bone
191
the central axis of the skeleton, extending from the base of the skull to slightly past the end of the pelvis
vertebral column or spine
192
there are _______ bones in cervical vertebrae, _______ thoracic vertebrae, _________ lumbar vertebrae, ______ sacral bone, _______ cocyx bone
7, 12, 5, 1, 1
193
cervical region curves ___________
CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly
anteriorly
194
the thoracic region curves _________
CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly
posteriorly
195
the lumbar region curves _________
CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly
anteriorly
196
the sacral and coccygeal regions together curve__________.
CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly
posteriorly
197
an abnormal posterior curvature of the spine, mostly in the upper thoracic region, resulting in a hunchback condition.
CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis
Kyphosis
198
an abnormal anterior curvature of the spine, mainly in the lumbar region, resulting in a swayback condition.
CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis
Lordosis
199
an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.
CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis
Scoliosis
200
The weight-bearing portion of each vertebra is the ______-
body
201
There are two spinous processes posteriorly and one transverse process vertically. True or False
False - There is one spinous process posteriorly and two transverse processes laterally.
202
The vertebral bodies are separated by pads of fibrocartilage
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
intervertebral disks
203
The vertebral arch surrounds a large opening called the __________
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
vertebral foramen
204
encloses and protects the spinal cord and protects it from injury
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
vertebral canal
205
Each vertebral arch consists of two ______, which extend from the body to the transverse process of each vertebra,
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
pedicles
206
two ________, which extend from the transverse processes to the spinous process.
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
laminae
207
The ___________ extend laterally from each side of the arch, between the pedicle and lamina, and the spinous process projects dorsally from where the two laminae meet.
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
transverse processes
208
The __________ can be seen and felt as a series of projections down the midline of the back
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
spinous processes
209
Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord through gaps between successive vertebrae, called the _____________.
CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks
intervertebral foramina
210
The vertebral foramina are formed by notches in the lamina of adjacent vertebrae. True or False
False - pedicles
211
Each vertebra has a superior and an inferior _______ where the vertebrae articulate with each other.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
articular process
212
smooth “little face”
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
articular facet
213
first cervical vertebra
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
atlas
214
a considerable amount of rotation occurs at these vertebraCHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
axis
215
responsible for a “yes” motion of the head
atlas
216
allows a slight tilting of the head from side to side
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
atlas
217
possess long, thin spinous processes that are directed inferiorly.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
thoracic vertebrae
218
large, thick bodies and heavy, rectangular transverse and spinous processes.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
lumbar vertebrae
219
carry a large amount of weight
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
lumbar vertebrae
220
Low back pain and other medical ailments are more common in this area than in other regions of the column.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
lumbar vertebrae
221
The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae form the _________.CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
median sacral crest
222
fuses the five sacral vertebrae into a single bone
Sacrum
223
often the site of “caudal” anesthetic injections given just before childbirth.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
Sacral hiatus
224
a landmark that can be felt during a vaginal examination.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
sacral promontory
225
used as a reference point to determine if the pelvic openings are large enough to allow for normal vaginal delivery of a baby.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
sacral promontory
226
do not have the typical structure of most other vertebrae
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
coccyx or tailbone
227
easily fractured when a person falls by sitting down hard on a solid surface or in women during childbirth.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
coccyx
228
consist of extremely reduced vertebral bodies, without the foramina or processes, usually fused into a single bone.
CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process
coccyx
229
protects the vital organs within the thorax and prevents the collapse of the thorax during respiration
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
Rib Cage
230
there are _____ pairs of ribs
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
12
231
ribs 1–7, attach directly to the sternum by means of costal cartilages
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
true ribs
232
ribs 8–12, do not attach directly to the sternum
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
false ribs
233
ribs 11 and 12
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
floating ribs
234
the bone that resembles a sword
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
sternum
235
forms the handle of the sternum
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
manubrium
236
forms the blade of the sternum
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
body
237
forms the tip of the sternum
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
xiphoid process
238
a depression called the __________ is located between the ends of the clavicles where they articulate with the sternum.
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
jugular notch
239
an important landmark because it identifies the location of the second rib
CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6
sternal angle
240
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is very important to place the hands over the body of the sternum rather than over the xiphoid process. True or False
True
241
consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs, as well as the girdles, which attach the limbs to the axial skeleton.
appendicular skeleton
242
consists of four bones, two scapulae and two clavicles, which attach the upper limb to the body.
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
pectoral girdle
243
a flat, triangular bone with three large fossae where muscles extending to the arm are attached
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
scapula or shoulder blade
244
where the head of the humerus connects to the scapula.
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
glenoid cavity
245
a projection that extends from the scapular spine to form the point of the shoulder
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
acromion process
246
A ridge, called the _______, runs across the posterior surface of the scapula.
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
spine
247
articulates with the scapula at the acromion process.
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
clavicle
248
the first bone to begin ossification in the fetus but the last to complete ossification
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
clavicle
249
provides for the attachment of arm and chest muscles.
CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle
coracoid process
250
the long bone of the upper limb, which extends from the shoulder to the elbow
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
humerus
251
attaches the humerus to the scapula at the glenoid cavity.
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
humeral head
252
Around the edge of the humeral head
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
anatomical neck
253
lateral to the head and the muscles originating on the
scapula attach to these
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle
254
where the deltoid muscle attaches
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
deltoid tuberosity
255
provide attachment sites for forearm muscles
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
Epicondyles
256
found on the medial side (little finger) of the forearm
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
ulna
257
found on the lateral side (thumb) of the forearm
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
radius
258
forms most of the elbow joint
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
trochlear notch
259
point of the elbow
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
olecranon process
260
helps complete the “grip” of the ulna on the distal end of the humerus.
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
coronoid process
261
located on the lateral side of the distal end of the radius
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
Styloid process
262
distal to the radial head where one of the arm muscles, the biceps brachii, attaches
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
Radial tuberosity
263
what are the parts of the radius?
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
Radial tuberosity, styloid process
264
what are the parts of the ulna?
CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head
olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head
265
a relatively short region between the forearm and the hand
wrist
266
the wrist is composed of 8 carpal bones. True or False
True
267
what are the eight carpal bones of the wrist?
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, and Trapezium
268
five ________ are attached to the carpal bones and form the bony framework of the hand
metacarpal bones
269
when the bones and ligaments that form the walls of the carpal tunnel do not stretch.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
270
formed by the ends, or heads, of the five metacarpal bones associated with the thumb and fingers
Knuckles
271
The thumb has only two phalanges. True or False
True
272
The phalanges of each finger are called proximal, middle, and distal, according to their position in the digit. True or False
True
273
the place where the lower limbs attach to the body and formed when the right and left hip bones join each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
pelvic girdle
274
includes the pelvic girdle and the coccyx
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Pelvis
275
the most superior bone used to form the hip
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Ilium
276
The right and left hip bones to join each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly to form a ring of bone called the ________
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
pelvic girdle
277
inferior and posterior for hip bone formation
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Ischium
278
inferior and anterior for hip bone formation
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Pubis
279
can be seen along the superior margin of each ilium
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Iliac crest
280
located at the anterior end of the iliac crest
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Anterior superior iliac spine
281
where the hip bones converge anteriorly
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Pubic symphysis
282
where the pubic symphysis articulate with the sacrum posteriorly
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Sacroiliac joints
283
the socket of the hip joint
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Acetabulum
284
the large hole in each hip bone that is closed off by muscles and other structures
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Obturator foramen
285
formed by the pelvic brim and the sacral promontory
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Pelvic inlet
286
bounded by the ischial spines, the pubic symphysis, and the coccyx
CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet
Pelvic outlet
287
The female pelvis tends to be broader than males. True or False
True
288
Both the inlet and the outlet of the female pelvis are larger than those of the male pelvis, and the subpubic angle is greater in the female. The increased size of these openings helps accommodate the fetus during childbirth. True or False
True
289
single bone found in the thigh
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
Femur
290
The ________ of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone.
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
head
291
articulate with the tibia
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
condyles
292
points of ligament attachment
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
Epicondyles
293
break of the femoral neck
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
broken hip
294
can be distinguished from the humerus by its long neck, located between the head and the trochanters
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
Femur
295
points of muscle attachment
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
trochanters
296
located within the major tendon of the anterior thigh muscles and enables the tendon to bend over the knee
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
patella
297
The patella is a uniquely shaped bone, called a ________ bone.
CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat
sesamoid
298
The _______ is the larger of the two and is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.
CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula
tibia
299
where the muscles of the anterior thigh attach
CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula
tibial tuberosity
300
The fibula does not articulate with the femur, but its head is attached to the proximal end of the tibia. True or False
True
301
consists of the distal ends of the tibia and fibula forming a partial socket that articulates with a bone of the talus
CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula
ankle
302
prominences which can be seen on each side of the ankle
CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula
Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula
303
what are the 7 tarsal bones?
Medial, Intermediate, Lateral cuneiforms, Cuboid, Navicular, Talus, and Calcaneus.
304
arranged and numbered in a manner very similar to the metacarpal bones and phalanges of the hand
metatarsal bones and phalanges of the foot
305
There are three primary arches in the foot, formed by the positions of the tarsal bones and metatarsal bones, and held in place by ligaments. True or False
True
306
commonly named according to the bones or portions of bones that join together
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
joints or articulations
307
In general, fibrous and cartilaginous joints have little or no movement, while synovial joints have considerable movement. True or False
True
308
Articulating surfaces of two bones united by fibrous connective tissue. They have no joint cavity and exhibit little or no movement.
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Fibrous joints
309
non movable joints
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
synarthroses
310
slightly movable joints
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
amphiarthroses
311
freely movable joints
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
diarthroses
312
fibrous joints between the bones of the skull
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Sutures
313
In a newborn, some parts of the sutures are quite wide and are called _______
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
fontanels or soft spots
314
Fibrous joints in which the bones are separated by some distance and held together by ligaments. An example is the fibrous membrane connecting most of the distal parts of the radius and ulna.
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Syndesmoses
315
Consist of pegs fitted into sockets and held in place by ligaments. The joint between a tooth and its socket is a sample of it.
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Gomphoses
316
Unite two bones by means of cartilage. Only slight movement can occur at these joints. The connecting cartilage can be either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Cartilaginous Joints
317
Joints containing hyaline cartilage
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
synchondroses
318
joints containing fibrocartilage
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
symphyses
319
Freely movable joints that contain fluid in a cavity surrounding the ends of articulating bones. Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
Synovial Joints
320
In certain synovial joints, the synovial membrane may extend as a pocket, or sac, called a __________
CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints
bursa
321
gliding joints and consist of two opposed flat surfaces that glide over each
other
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
Plane joints
322
consist of two saddle-shaped articulating surfaces oriented at right angles to each other, joint between the metacarpal bone and the carpal bone (trapezium) of the thumb
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
Saddle joints
323
permit movement in one plane only
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
Hinge joints
324
shock-absorbing fibrocartilage pads
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
menisci
325
restrict movement to rotation around a single axis and consists of a cylindrical bony process that rotates within a ring composed partly of bone and partly of ligament
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
Pivot joints
326
consist of a ball (head) at the end of one bone and a socket in an adjacent bone into which a portion of the ball fits and allows a wide range of movement in almost any direction
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint
Ball-and-socket joints
327
condyloid joints and are elongated ball-and-socket
joint
CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joints
Ellipsoid joints
328
a bending movement that decreases the angle of the joint to bring the articulating bones closer together
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Flexion
329
a straightening movement that increases the angle of the joint to extend the articulating bones
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Extension
330
movement of the foot toward the plantar surface
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Plantar flexion
331
movement of the foot toward the shin
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Dorsiflexion
332
usually defined as extension of a joint beyond 180 degrees and can be a normal movement, such as looking up at the stars, but it can also result in injury
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Hyperextension
333
movement away from the median or midsagittal plane
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Abduction
334
movement toward the median plane
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Adduction
335
when the elbow is flexed, ________ is rotation of the forearm so that the palm is down
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
pronation
336
rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces up
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
supination
337
turning the foot so that the plantar surface (bottom of the foot) faces laterally
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Eversion
338
turning the foot so that the plantar surface faces medially
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Inversion
339
the turning of a structure around its long axis, as in shaking the head “no.”
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Rotation
340
occurs at freely movable joints, such as the shoulder
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Circumduction
341
movement in which a structure, such as the mandible, glides anteriorly
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Protraction
342
structure glides posteriorly
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Retraction
343
movement of a structure in a superior direction
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Elevation
344
movement of a structure in an inferior direction
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Depression
345
movement of a structure to one side
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Excursion
346
a movement unique to the thumb and little finger
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Opposition
347
returns the digits to the anatomical position
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Reposition
348
when the bones of a joint are forcefully pulled apart and the ligaments around the joint are pulled or torn
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Sprain
349
when the bones remain apart after injury to a joint
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Separation
350
when the end of one bone is pulled out of the socket in a ball-and-socket, ellipsoid, or pivot joint
CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition
Dislocation
