Chapter 17- GI Flashcards

1
Q

Where are MALTomas most common

A

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What infection is associated with rose spots

A

Typhoid fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What mutation is associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

STK11; AMP kinase related pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are buzz words for norovirus

A

Cruise ships, schools, hospitals, nursing homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some complications of yersinia infection

A

Reactive arthritis, erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does Zollinger-Ellison syndrome usually occur

A

Fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the predominant infiltrate in zollinger elision syndrome

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What IBD has lead pipe sign

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What cancer are people with esophageal webs more prone to

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the term for longitudinal stripes of edematous erythematous mucosa that alternate with less severely injured, paler mucosa (Watermelon stomach)

A

GAVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should you think of with foamy macrophages in small intestine/colon

A

Whipple disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is mutated with abetalipoproteinemia

A

MTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should you think of with cobblestone apperance

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wheat are the symptoms of menetrier disease

A

Hypoproteinemia, weight loss, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What takes of shigella

A

M cells in intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does EPEC primarily cause

A

Endemic diarrhea in kids less than 2 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is mutated in adenocarcinoma of esophagus

A

TP53 and downregulation of CDKN2A in early stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What chromosome is APC on

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of transport is defective in whipple disease

A

Lymphatic transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What infection can mimic appendicitis

A

Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the clinical presentation of small bowel infarction

A

Abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, decreased bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the symptoms of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Dyspepsia, dysphagia, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the risk factors for gastritis cystica

A

Trauma, prior surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do you see in peripheral blood smear of abetalipoproteinemia

A

Acathnocytic red cells (burr cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What apoproteins are deficiency with abetalipoproteinemia

A

B-48 and B-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most freq cause of GI diagnosis in USA

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What should you think of with whipworms and rectal prolapse

A

Trichuris trichura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of transport is an issue with carcinoid syndrome

A

Transepithelial transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most common site of metastasis of adenocarcinomas small intestine/colon

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the shape and gram of campylobacter

A

Comma shaped, flagellated, gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is there fat/vitamin malabsorption in crohns or UC

A

Crohn s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for H. Pylori infection

A

Serologic test for antibodies, fecal bacterial detection, urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What HLAs are associated with celiac disease

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the term for FAP with fibromatosis and osteomas

A

Gardner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the term for a painful, superficial ulceration of oral mucosa

A

Aphthous ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What disorder is associated with the rule of 2s

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of carcinoid tumor

A

Cuntaneous flushing, sweating, bronchospasm, colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, right-sided cardiac valvular fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is te wall apperance of ulcerative colitis

A

Thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the cause of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Incomplete formation of diaphragm allowing abdominal viscera to herinate into chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What digestion is defective in disaccharidase deficiency

A

Terminal digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some signs of pyloric stenosis

A

New onset regurgitation, male, persistent projectile vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is caused by submucosal artery that does not branch properly within the wall of the stomach

A

Dieulafoy lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe malabsorptive diarrhea

A

Follows generalized failure of nutrient absorption, associated with steatorrhea, and relieved by fasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most common form of congenital intestinal atresia

A

Imperforate anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is autoimmune gastritis usually located

A

Body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the clinical presentations of right sided adenocarcinoma

A

Fatigue and weakness due to iron deficiency anemia, left-sided occult bleeding, changes in bowel habits and cramping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What E. coli infection is antibiotics not recommended for

A

EHEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the clinical triad seen with inflammatory polyps

A

Rectal bleeding, mucus discharge, inflammatory lesion of anterior rectal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the distribution of UC

A

Diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe the inflammation of crohn disease

A

Transmural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe osmotic diarrhea

A

Due to excessive osmotic forces exerted by unabsorbed luminal solutes’ abates during fasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some extra-GI manifestations of tuberous sclerosis

A

Mental retardation, epilepsy, facial angiofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What gene function is lost with peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

STK11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some post infection complications with yersinia

A

Reactive arthritis, Reiter syndrome, myocarditis, GN and thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most common pathogenic parasitic infection in humans

A

Guardians lambkins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the intestinal type of gastric carcinoma typically involve

A

Lesser curvature of stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are rose spots

A

Small, erythematous maculopapular lesions, seen on chest and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is cleft palate and lip due to

A

Failure of facial prominences to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is behcet syndrome due to

A

Immune complex vasculitis involving small vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the bowel region associated with ulcerative colitis

A

Colon only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is excessively produced (cytokine) in menetrier disease

A

TGF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of anemia can occur with intestinal cystodes

A

Megalobastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the cause of imperforate anus

A

Failure of cloacal diaphragm to involuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What type of gastric adenocarcinoma has signetrings

A

Diffuse type

66
Q

What type of diarrhea occurs with shigellosis

A

Bloody diarrhea

67
Q

Describe secretory diarrhea

A

Isotonic stool and persists during fasting

68
Q

What polyp syndrome is associated with congenital malformations, digital clubbing

A

Juvenile polyposis

69
Q

What TLR do flagellin activate

A

TLR5

70
Q

What should you thnk of with dark blue to brown macular on lips, nostrils, buccal mucosa, palmar surface of hands, genitalia and perianal region

A

Peutz Jeghers syndrome

71
Q

What is achalasia due to

A

Damaged ganglion cells in myenteric plexus

72
Q

What is teh most commmon cause of intussusception in adults

A

Tumor

73
Q

What are some complications of shigellosis

A

Reactive arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome

74
Q

What is a unique lesion in H. Pylori gastritis

A

Hyperplastic/inflammatory polyps

75
Q

What type of vaccine is used for rotavirus

A

Live attenuated vaccine

76
Q

Describe the gram of tropheryma whippelii

A

Gram positive actinomycetes

77
Q

What is a unique lesion in autoimmune gastritis

A

Neuroendocrine hyperplasia

78
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of norovirus

A

Nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, abdominal pain

79
Q

Describe exudative diarrhea

A

Due to inflammatory disease characterized by purulent, bloody stools that continue during fasting

80
Q

What is the predominant cell type in menetrier disease

A

Mucous

81
Q

What are some extraintestinal symptoms of yersinia infection of small intestine

A

Pharyngitis, arthralgia, erythema nodosum

82
Q

What deficiency that can lead to anemia is H. Pylori associated with

A

Iron deficiency

83
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in kids under 2yo

A

Intussusception

84
Q

What are the immuno markers for carcinoid tumors

A

Synaptophysin and chromogranin A

85
Q

Describe the shape and gram of shigella

A

Gram negative, unencapsulated, non-motile facultative anaerobes

86
Q

What does yersinia preferentially involve

A

Ileum, appendix, right colon

87
Q

Describe the glands in menetrier disease

A

Corkscrew-like appearance

88
Q

Where is H. Pylori gastritis usually located

A

Antrum

89
Q

What are complications of cholera infection

A

Dehydration, electrolyte imbalances

90
Q

What is the clinical presentation of MALToma

A

Dyspepsia and epigastric pain (hematemesis, Melena)

91
Q

What is mutated in autoimmune enteropathy

A

IPEX; due to germline mutation in FOXP3

92
Q

What autoantibodies are founded in IPEX (autoimmune enteropathy)

A

To enterocytes and goblet cells

93
Q

What part of the stomach do most gastric adenocarcinomas involve

A

Antrum

94
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with autoimmune gastritis

A

Vitamin B12

95
Q

What cells are dysfunctional in IPEX

A

T cells

96
Q

What mutation is sporadic intestinal type of gastric adenocarcinoma associated with

A

Mutations of Wnt

97
Q

Does smoking increase the risk of Crohns or UC

A

Crohns

98
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the GI tract

A

Adenocarcinoma

99
Q

What is the clinical presentation of duodenal atresia

A

Polyhydramnios, distinction of stomach and blind loop of duodenum, bilious vomiting

100
Q

What is the molecular defect in hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

DNA mismatch repair

101
Q

What is the bowel region associated with crohn disease

A

Ileum and or colon

102
Q

What viral factor induces epithelial apoptosis of rotavirus

A

NSP4

103
Q

What GI stomach ulcers occur in persons with intracranial disease

A

Cushing ulcer

104
Q

What is the most common site for squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth

A

Floor of the mouth

105
Q

What is the molecular defect in MYH-associated polyposis

A

DNA mismatch repair

106
Q

Describe the presentation (physical) of pleomorphic adenoma

A

Mobile, painless, circumscribed mass at the angle of the jaw

107
Q

Describe the lesions caused by CMV

A

Shallower ulcerations with characteristic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion within capillary endothelium and stromal cells

108
Q

Describe the toxins of ETEC

A

LT is similar to cholera; ST binds to guanylate cyclase and increases intracellular cGMP

109
Q

What is another name for hemagglutinin of cholera

A

Metalloproteinase

110
Q

What is the term for recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers and uveitis

A

Behcet syndrome

111
Q

What mutation is associated with hirschsprung disease

A

RET mutation

112
Q

What infectious enterocolitis activated Rho GTPases

A

Salmonella

113
Q

Where do the adult worms of schistomiasis reside

A

Within mesenteric veins

114
Q

What is the most common cause of intusseseption in kids

A

Lymphoid hyperplasia

115
Q

Exposure to what medications in 1st 2 weeks of life can increase risk of pyloric stenosis

A

Exposure to erythromycin or azithromycin

116
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Beeefy red tongue due to atrophic glossitis

117
Q

What is an extraintestinal manifestations of FAP

A

Congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

118
Q

What should you think of with bird beak sign on barium swallow

A

Achalasia

119
Q

Where is Peutz-Jeghers most common

A

Small intestine

120
Q

Wha are precursors for squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth

A

Leukoplakia and erythroplakia

121
Q

What is the risk factor for zollinger Ellison syndrome

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia

122
Q

What type of virus is rotavirus

A

Encapsulated segmented DS RNA

123
Q

What is the uncommon complication triad associated with shigellosis

A

Sterile reactive arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis

124
Q

What are the clinical presentations seen with left sided adenocarcinoma

A

Occult bleeding, changes in bowel habits or cramping and LLQ discomfort

125
Q

What does ETEC principally cause

A

Travelers diarrhea, secretory diarrhea

126
Q

What is the term for congenital failure of small bowel to canalize

A

Duodenal atresia

127
Q

What does the enterotoxin of cholera increase

A

CAMP

128
Q

What are some complications of salmonellosis

A

Sepsis, abscess

129
Q

What is thought to be the issue with traction diverticulum

A

Cricopharyngeal motor function

130
Q

What is the most common site of intestinal ischemia

A

Colon

131
Q

Describe the inflammation of ulcerative colitis

A

Limited to mucosa

132
Q

Where do pleomorphic adenomas most commonly occur

A

Parotid gland

133
Q

Where are hyperplastic polyps most commonly found

A

Left common

134
Q

Where do curling ulcers typically occur

A

Proximal duodenum

135
Q

What is the wall apperance of crohn disease

A

Thick

136
Q

What are complicated of campylobacter infection

A

Arthritis, Guillain-Barré syndrome

137
Q

What is the distribution of crohn disease

A

Skin lesions

138
Q

What should you think of with Necator duodenale and ancylostoma duodenale

A

Hook worms, iron deficiency anemia

139
Q

What malignancies are individuals with celiac disease more prone to

A

Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma, small intestinal adenocarcinoma

140
Q

What are some complications of pseudomembranous colitis (C. Difficile_

A

Relapse, megacolon

141
Q

What is the most common site of acquired diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

142
Q

Where is dieulafoy lesion most commonly found

A

Along lesser curvature of stomach, near gastroesophageal junction

143
Q

What is the term for when a segment of intestine, constricted by wave of peristalsis, telescopes into the immediately distal segment

A

Intussusception

144
Q

Is there toxic megacolon in crohns or UC

A

UC

145
Q

Where does menetrier disease usually occur

A

Body and fundus of stomach

146
Q

What are some risk factors associated with squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus

A

Alcohol, smoking, prior radiation therapy, HPV

147
Q

Describe the lesions caused by HSV

A

Punched out lesions

148
Q

What is the main symptom associated with esophageal mucosal webs

A

Non-progressive dysphagia associated with incompletely chewed food

149
Q

What should you think of with flask-like outpouchings

A

Sigmoid diverticulitis

150
Q

What is the histology seen with FAP

A

Tubular, villous typical adenocarcinoma

151
Q

What is the term for twisting of a loop of bowel about its mesenteric point of attachment

A

Volvulus

152
Q

What is the most common cause of ischemic colitis

A

Atherosclerosis of SMA

153
Q

What type of virus is norovirus

A

As RNA icosahydral virus

154
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of malabsorption

A

Diarrhea, flatus, abdominal pain, weight loss

155
Q

Describe the ulcers of crohn disease

A

Deep, knife-like

156
Q

Describe the ulcers of ulcerative colitis

A

Superficial, broad-based

157
Q

What should you think of with double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

158
Q

What is the presentation in infancy of abetalipoproteinemia

A

Failure to thrive, diarrhea, steatorrhea

159
Q

What is the term for linear/longitudinal lacerations associated with prolonged vomiting in alcoholics or bulimics

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

160
Q

What disorder is described as incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and aperistalsis of esophagus

A

Achalasia