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Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) > chapter 15/16 study questions > Flashcards

chapter 15/16 study questions Flashcards

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1
Q

examples of genotypic methods of identification

A

PCR and DNA sequencing

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2
Q

advantages of genotypic methods

A

affordable, fast, better patient outcome

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3
Q

agglutination is an __________ method

A

immunologic

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4
Q

examples of phenotypic

A

optimal pH for growth
enzymatic growth
susceptibility to tetracycline

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5
Q

currently, ______ methods are being used exclusively as a means to identify bacteria

A

genetic

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6
Q

what is not an advantage of genotypic methods

A

does not require sophisticated equipment of traingin

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7
Q

performing an assay for the presence of oxidase or determining susceptibility to antibiotics are _______ methods of bacterial identification

A

phenotypic

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8
Q

undesirable contaminant b/c of its large normal biota

A

saliva

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9
Q

common sampling sites

A

vein
mouth
throat
skin

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10
Q

aseptic technique to obtain a urine sample

A

catheter

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11
Q

washing the external urethra and collecting urine midstream is known as

A

clean catch

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12
Q

methods to collect saliva or mucus samples from oral and nasal cavities

A

expectoration
discharge by coughing
swabs

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13
Q

blood, tissue fluid, and CSF are considered

A

sterile

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14
Q

what is one of the most rapid ways of determining the general characteristics of a specimen

A

microscopic observation

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15
Q

best way to distinguish streptococcus from micrococcus

A

catalase assay

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16
Q

selective media should be used to enrich a patient sample for a suspected pathogen when _______

A

the pathogen is present in small numbers

the normal biota will grow faster then the pathogen

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17
Q

physiological reactions to nutrients and other substrates provide indirect evidence of the types of ________ expressed in a particular species

A

enzymes

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18
Q

best way to distinguish Neisseria from staphylococcus is

A

gram stain

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19
Q

The MGIT system is a phenotypic method used to detect

A

growth of mycobacterium tuberculosis

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20
Q

in differential media, the presence of an enzyme in an organism is often visualized by a change in

A

color of medium

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21
Q

biochemical testing to detect the presence of an enzyme is performed using

A

the enzyme substrate conjugated to a dye

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22
Q

tuberculosis needs MGIT system b/c

A

it is slow to grow in a lab

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23
Q

which microbes require the inoculation of cell culture to be cultivated in the lab?

A

Chlamydia
Influenza
Rickettsia

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24
Q

testing that is based on visualization of a specific antibody-antigen reaction, where the use of a known antigen can identify the presence of an unknown antibody, vice versa

A

serological testing

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25
Q

which of the following bacteria require the inoculation of specific animals for the microbes to be cultivated in the lab?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

Treponema tuberculosis

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26
Q

when the antigens are whole cells or organisms, antigen-antibody is observed as ________ in immunologic testing

A

agglutination

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27
Q

the formation of an insoluble aggregate when an antibody combines with a soluble antigen is termed

A

precipitation

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28
Q

what test matches with Weil-Felix test for rickettsial infection

A

agglutination

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29
Q

ABO blood typing is accomplished using a _______ test

A

agglutination

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30
Q

immunochromatography (lateral flow test) is often used for

A

point of care strep tests and rapid preg tests

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31
Q

technique that utilizes antigen-antibody reactions to cell parts such as flagella, cell wall capsules to group bacteria into categories

A

serotyping

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32
Q

immunologic method often used to differentiate between strains of salmonella, pneumococcus, streptococcus

A

serotyping

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33
Q

what diseases are diagnosed by determining antibody titer in the serum?

HINT: autoimmune diseases

A

lupus

rheumatoid arthritis

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34
Q

test that involves the separation of proteins in a gel, followed by immunoassay to detect the presence of specific protein antigens, is called

A

western blot test

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35
Q

in immunofluorescence testing, fluorescent ___ is combined with specific antibody to provide a sensitive test for the presence of a specific antigen or antibody

A

dye

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36
Q

test that uses fluorescent labeled antibodies to determine the presence of a specific microbe in a specimen, is called the ________ immunofluorescent test

A

direct

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37
Q

a test that employs an enzyme-antibody complex that can be used to produce a visual color change, indicating an antibody-antigen reaction, is called __________; is visualized with color change in substrate

A

ELISA

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38
Q

steps of Western Blot

A

electrophoresis of sample
transfer to a filter
incubation with radioactive or fluorescent labeled antibodies

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39
Q

Indirect ELISA detects ______ in a sample; DIRECT ELISA detects unknown ________ in a sample

A

antibody

antigen

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40
Q

what test is used to verify false positives in indirect ELISA test?

A

western blot

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41
Q

steps of indirect ELISA

A
  1. known antigen is adsorbed to surface of wall
  2. serum sample with unknown antibodies is added
  3. enzyme-antibody complex that is specific for Fc portion of antibody is added
  4. substrate for the enzyme is added
  5. color changes in well are observed
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42
Q

examples of in vivo test

A

allergen skin test

tuberculin test

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43
Q

which characteristic of an immunologic test insures that it will have a lot rate of false-positives?

A

specificity

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44
Q

indirect ELISA is commonly used to test for

A

helicobacter
hep a and c
rickettsias
HIV

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45
Q

PCR test that used fluorescent labeling during DNA amplification is

A

real time

rPCR

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46
Q

technique that matches complementary strands of nucleic acid to locate specific sites or types of nucleic acid is

A

hybidization

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47
Q

application of fluorescently labeled PROBES to intact cells within a pt specimen is known as _______ technique

A

FISH

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48
Q

microarrays for infectious disease diagnostics are chips that contain _____ from possible infectious agents

A

gene sequences

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49
Q

whole genome sequencing involves

A

sequencing nucleic acids from patient samples

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50
Q

PFGE advantage

A

accuracy in assessing microbial subtype

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51
Q

whole genome sequencing is particularly useful for rapid analysis of

A

drug resistant organisms

disease outbreaks

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52
Q

advantaged of labs on chips

A

can be used by technicians with little specialized training

require few supplies

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53
Q

________ is becoming common in many clinical laboratories for the identification of microbes b/c it can provide, rapid, precise, and cost-effective results

A

mass spec

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54
Q

lab on a chip tests

A

DNA and RNA sequencing and PCR

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55
Q

MALDI-TOF

A

mass spec

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56
Q

antibiotic testing (new testing method)

A

test host cells for seven genes in response to infection by bacteria (they express genes) BUT will NOT express genes for viruses

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57
Q

components of integ

A

hair
sweat and oil glands
skin
nails

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58
Q

bottom layer of cells in epidermis

A

stratum basale

bas= basement

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59
Q

list some components of dermis

A

nerves
blood vessels
lymphatic vessels
collagen fibers

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60
Q

separation of dermis and epidermis =

A

blister

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61
Q

___ charged antimicrobial peptides of the skin can disrupt the ___ charged membranes of bacteria to prevent infection

A

+

-

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62
Q

cells of stratum corneum are dead and packed with a protein called

A

keratin

63
Q

how are oil (sebum) gland secretions antimicrobial in nature?

A

release antimicrobial fatty acids as the oil breaks down

64
Q

primary type of tissue in the dermis?

hint: think collagen

A

connective

65
Q

the _____ has a dense microbial population

A

groin

66
Q

in addition to the skin, microbes can populate which of the following

A

glandular ducts

hair follicles

67
Q

_________ is an enzyme found in sweat that breaks down peptidoglycan found in bacterial cell walls

A

lysozyme

68
Q

describe S. aureus

A

nonmotile

destructiveness due to superantigens

69
Q

sweat has a ____ pH, and a _______ salt concentration = antimicrobial

A

low

high

70
Q

staphylococcus is found in

A

normal biota of many people

71
Q

strains of MRSA are usually resistant to ________ antibiotics

A

multiple

72
Q

under which conditions would S. aureus survive?

A

heating to 35C for 60 minutes

heating to 55C for 60 minutes

73
Q

S. aureus is (traits)

A

G +
coccus
grows in grape like clusters

74
Q

approx. __% of people have S. aureus in their normal skin biota

A

3-%

75
Q

MRSA infection qualities

A

skin tends to be raided, red, tender. localized lesions, often with pus and are hot to touch

76
Q

MRSA

A

can withstand high salt concentration
withstand extreme pH
very hardy, can remain viable for months in air

77
Q

S. aureus has become troublesome in hospitals b/c

A

remains viable after drying
is resistant to many disinfectants
is resistant to many antibiotics

78
Q

what enzyme is not produced by strains of S. aureus

A

streptokinase

79
Q

microbial medium _______ _______ agar is often used to isolate staphylococcus species because of its high salt content that mimics the skin

A

mannitol salt agar

80
Q

_____ is an enzyme that breaks down the hydrogen peroxide produced in oxidative metabolism

A

catalase

81
Q

list some enzymes expressed by strains of S. aureus

A 
Staphylokinase
DNase
Lipase
Hyaluronidase
Coagulase
82
Q

which test is used to diagnose MRSA?

A

PCR

83
Q

a diagnostic test for which of the following enzymes differentiates staphylococci from streptococci

A

catalase test

84
Q

current antibiotic tx of MRSA

A

vancomycin

85
Q

measles

A

syncytial; flat redness; main trans = resp droplets and direct contact; KOPLIK’S spots

86
Q

some practices that would be likely to spread MRSA

A

not sanitizing gym equipment

sharing a razor

87
Q

tx of MRSA may include

A

tx with more than one antibiotic

incision of the lesion to drain pus

88
Q

measles is caused by a

A

virus

89
Q

what is the cause of many deaths of measles world wide

A

low herd immunity

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (progressive neurological degeneration of cerebral cortex - complication of measles)

90
Q

initial s and s of measles

A

sore throat, dry cough, headache, conjunctivitis, lymphadenitis, and fever

91
Q

measles starts at the ______ and spreads to

A

head

whole body

92
Q

“slapped face” rash, spreads to limbs and trunk

A

fifth disease

93
Q

rash not always present

A

roseola

94
Q

in SSPE (measles) what areas of the body are degenerated

A

white matter, brain stem, cerebral cortex

95
Q

measles virus contacts and infects skin by which method

A

travelling through the blood stream

96
Q

the ______ virus tends to erase or diminish the immune system’s memory for other microbes

A

measles

97
Q

steps in pathogenesis of measles virus

A

the virus infects cells in the resp mucosa
virus is carried in the blood stream
virus infects cells in the skil

98
Q

what period is someone with measles not contagious

A

convalescent period

99
Q

what aspects of immunity are often disabled by measles

A

cell-mediated immunity

delayed-type hypersensitivity

100
Q

which antibody is detected in a patient with measles when ELISA is used?

A

IgM

101
Q

typical age for first dose of measles

A

12-15 months

102
Q

tx for measles may include vitamin

A

A

103
Q

rubella/german measles “little red” (think minor rash)

A
  • two doses of MMR confer protection for about 20 years
  • rash of pink macules and papules first appears on face, and progressed down trunk
  • resolving in about 3 days
  • adult rubella = joint inflammation and pain rather than rash
104
Q

what sign/symptom often differentiates postnatal rubella from adult rubella

A

mild rash

105
Q

tx ofr measles

A

vitamin A
reducing sx
replacing lost fluid

106
Q

normal modes of trans for fifth disease

A

resp droplets

direct contact

107
Q

defects of congenital rubella

A 
ocular lesions
deafness
cardiac abnorms
mental/physical retardation
miscarriage
108
Q

causative agent of rubella

A

Rubivirus

109
Q

rubella can spread through

A

resp secretions

urine

110
Q

diagnosis of rubella

A

ELISA

latex agglutination card

111
Q

common defect with congenital rubella

A

deafness

112
Q

coongential rubella effects on fetus

A

stop mitosis
induce apoptosis
damages vascular endothelium

113
Q

fifth disease rash

A

slapped face

confluent rash starting on the face and spreading to limbs and trunk

114
Q

rubella virus is shed during _______ phase and up to a week after rash appears

A

prodromal

115
Q

causative agent for fifth disease

A

Parvovirus-19

116
Q

desrcibe Roseola rash

A

if rash appears, it is usually preceded by fever

117
Q

roseola is usually caused by

A

Herpesvirus HHV-6

118
Q

primary victims of impetigo

A

preschoolers

119
Q

superficial bacterial infection that causes the skin to flake and peel off; highly contagious; caused by S. aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes or a mix

“honey colored scabs” itchy

A

impetigo

120
Q

complication associated with untreated impetigo

A

glomerulonephritis

121
Q

s. aureus impetigo toxins

A

exfoliative toxins A or B, coagulase, other enzymes (DNase, catalase, Staphylokinase…)

seen more often in adults and children

122
Q

streptococcus pyogenes impetigo virulence factors

A

Streptokinase, plasminogen-binding ability, hyaluronidase, M protein

seen more often in newborns

123
Q

S. pyogenes is a gram _____ bacterium that is _____-hemolytic on blood agar

A

+

beta

124
Q

what infections does S. pyogenes cause besides impetigo

A

streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat), scarlet fever, pneumonia, puerperal fever, necrotizing fasciitis, serious bloodstream infections, and poststreptococcal conditions such as rheumatic fever

125
Q

common places for impetigo lesions

A

face, extrems

126
Q

which skin regions are usually involved in cellulitis

A

dermis

subcutaenous tissue

127
Q

sx such as pain, tenderness, swelling , fever, and LYMPHANGITIS are characteristic of

A

cellulitis

128
Q

what do the exfoliative toxins A and B do in S. aureus impetigo infection

A

they attack cell to cell binding proteins in the epithelium

129
Q

what can cause cellulitis

A

S. pyogenes
S. aureus
opportunistic bacteria
Group b streptococcus

130
Q

most common age group to experience SSSS infections

A

infants

131
Q

what percent of adults are asymp of SSSS

A

30%

132
Q

where does S. aureus harbor on body

A

nasopharynx, axilla, perineum, and vagina

133
Q

s and s of SSSS

A

bullous lesions (caused by exfoliative toxins A and B)
desquamation
split in skin within epidermis

134
Q

SSSS is a ______ skin syndrome

A

dermolytic (damage/kills the skin)

135
Q

SSSS is most effectively diagnosed through histological examinatino of tissue from a _____

A

lesion

136
Q

s and s of chicken pox

A

centripetal lesions
superficial lesions
fever
itchy vesicles

137
Q

which diseases present as generalized rashes with fluid-filled lesions

A

small pox

chicken pox

138
Q

incubation period for chicken pox

A

10-20 days

139
Q

chickn pox usually lasts dor

A

4-7 days

140
Q

some cases of CP end up with complications leading to _______ (only 0.1% approx)

A

encephalitis

141
Q

adolescents and adults have the _____ number of CP lesions

A

highest

142
Q

shingles is characterized by an asymmetrical rash of the skin on the _____ or _______

A

trunk head

143
Q

sx of shingles

A

tender persistent vesicles

144
Q

Zostavax is intended fro adults aged ____ and over

A

60

145
Q

small pox vaccine is based on ________ virus

A

vaccinia

146
Q

cutaneous anthrax is normally transmitted by which of the following methods

A

direct contact with endospores

contact with infected animal hides

147
Q

t or f

Leishmania only multiplies in macrophages

A

true

148
Q

group of fungi responsible for a wide variety of skin and nail conditions

A

dermatophytes

149
Q

general signs and sx of ringworm infections

A

itchiness and skin/nail lesions

150
Q

causative agent for ringworm

A

vary with geographical region

151
Q

general term for fungal infections of skin, hair, or nails

A

mycoses

152
Q

what are not s and s of ringworm infections

A

macopapular exanthem
large pustular lesions
necrotic papules

153
Q

properties that promote pathogenesis of dermatophytes

A

they can suppress immune system and invade and digest keratin

154
Q

tinea versicolor is caused by

A

Malassezia furfur

Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) (13 decks)

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