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Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) > chapter 11 study questions > Flashcards

chapter 11 study questions Flashcards

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1
Q

invasion and multiplication of a pathogen in the human host is referrd to as

A

infection

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2
Q

________ can be characterized by any deviation from the healthy state

A

disease

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3
Q

pathologic state involving the disruption and destruction of tissues by microbes is referred to as _______ disease

A

infectious

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4
Q

microbes that are part of the normal microbiota are termed

A

colonists

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5
Q

laboratory cultivation _______-estimates the # and variety of microbes in the normal microbiota

A

under

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6
Q

true statements regarding the microbiota

A

our resident microbes produce enzymes that help us digest food
viruses are found in healthy human in large numbers

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7
Q

while the ______ found on one body site may differ from that found in another location, the ________ profile was similar between body locations

A

microbiota; protein

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8
Q

correct statements about microbiome in humans

A

comp of gut biota has an influence on obesity

healthy people have dangerous pathogens, in small amounts

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9
Q

examples of sites that harbor normal microbiota

A

lungs, mucous membranes, vagina, bladder, urethra, mouth

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10
Q

indicates a relationship in which resident microorganisms prevent the overgrowth of intruder microbes when competing for survival in a common enviro

A

microbial antagonism

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11
Q

which class are not generally discussed in the context of normal microbiota

A

viruses

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12
Q

body sites in which microbial DNA has been detected, but microbes have not been definitively observed

A

blood and brain

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13
Q

disease situations in which a person may be susceptible to infection and disease caused by members of the normal biota

A

poor hygiene practices allows E. coli to enter urinary tract
immune system is compromised by HIV
microbes enter the blood stream due to injury

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14
Q

what of an infant becomes colonized as it comes in contact with family members

A

skin, gastrointestinal tract, resp tract, genitourinary tract

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15
Q

broad concept that describes an organisms potential to cause infection or disease is called

A

pathogenicity

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16
Q

pathogen capable of causing disease in healthy person with normal immune defenses is referred to as

A

true pathogen

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17
Q

describes the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe

A

virulence

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18
Q

an infection caused by more than one microbes is

A

polymicrobial infection

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19
Q

the route a pathogen uses to get into the human host cell is called

A

portal of entry

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20
Q

a pathogen is a microbe whose relationship with its host is ________ and results in infection and ________

A

parasitic

disease

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21
Q

infection with a member of normal biota, rather than an agent from the outside, is a _________ infection

A

endogenous

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22
Q

infection originating from a source outside of the body

A

exogenous infection

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23
Q

t or f

some pathos can only cause disease if they enter a specific portal of entry

A

true

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24
Q

the route at which a pathogen enters a host

A
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25
Q

the gastro tract is the portal of entry for pathogens contained in ____ substances

A

ingested

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26
Q

an infectious dose is the

A

minimum number of microbial cells required to cause an infection

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27
Q

t or f

if the inoculum is much larger than the infectious dose, the onset of the disease can be extremely rapid

A

true

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28
Q

the process by which microbes gain a more stable foothold on host tissues is called __________

A

adhesion

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29
Q

a pathogen can indirectly damage its host by

A

inducing excessive immune response

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30
Q

a patho can DIRECTLY damage its host by

A

secretion of exoenzymes

secretion of toxins

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31
Q

secreted by microbes and breakdown and inflict damage on tissues, dissolve host defense barriers and promote spread of microbes to deeper tissues

A

exoenzymes
ie. mucinase (digests protective coating on mucous membranes)
hyaluronidase (digests hyaluronic acid that substance that cements animal cells together)
coagulase (causes clotting of blood or plasma)

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32
Q

a chemical called lipopolysaccharide (G-) cell walls; differs from exotoxins because it has a variety of systemic effects on tissues and organs ie. fever, diarrhea, hemorrhage

A

endotoxin

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33
Q

process by which microbes gain a more stable foothold at the portal of entry through interaction of their molecules with host cell receptors

A

adhesion

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34
Q

step three of infection

hint: phagocytes

A

surviving host defenses

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35
Q

substances produced by Streptococcus and Staphylococcus that are toxic to WBCs

A

leukocidins

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36
Q

three major ways in which microbes damage their host

A

directly through action of enzymes or toxins (endo and exo)

indirectly by inducing an inappropriate host response

epigenetic changes made to host cells by microbes ie. silencing genes

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37
Q

toxin that generally affects cells by damaging cell membrane and causing lysis or by disrupting intracellular function

A

exotoxins

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38
Q

microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue ie. boils, warts

A

localized infection

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39
Q

infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids - usually via blood stream -

ie. mumps, rubella, AIDS, syphilis

A

systemic infection

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40
Q

infectious agent spreads from a (usually asymptomatic) local site and is carried to other tissues

A

focal infection

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41
Q

a second infection caused by a different microbes which COMPLICATES a primary infection

ie. influenza complicated by penumonia

A

secondary

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42
Q

infection that comes on rapidly, with severe but short lived effects

A

acute infection

ie influenza

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43
Q

signs of inflammation

A

edema (accumulation of fluid in an afflicted tissue)

granulomas and abscesses (walled of collections of inflammatory cells and microbes in the tissues)

lymphadenitis (swollen lymph nodes)

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44
Q

increase in the level of white blood cells is

and decrease in level of WBCs is

A

leukocytosis

leukopenia

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45
Q

small numbers of bacteria or viruses are found in the blood

A

bacteremia and viremia

46
Q

asymptomatic or ________

A

subclinical

47
Q

a morbid complication that follows a disease

ie. polio can produce paralysis

A

sequela

48
Q

the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms; the agent is multiplying at the POE but has not yet caused enough damage to elicit sx

A

incubation period

49
Q

when the earliest notable symptoms of many infections appear such as feelings of malaise, discomfort, and muscle aches and upset stomach
; short period of 1-2 days

A

prodromal stage

50
Q

when infectious agent begins to multiply as high levels, exhibits greatest virulence, and becomes well established in its target tissue

A

acute phase

51
Q

phase when recovering, and pt’s strength and health gradually return, owing to the healing nature of the immune response

A

convalescence phase

52
Q

fifth phase only some infections have; when infectious agent lingers indefinitely after the patient is well OR the organism is gone but sx continue ie typhoid fever

A

continuation

53
Q

three examples of exoenzymes

A

hyaluronidase
mucinase
coagulase
streptokinase

54
Q

hemoLYSIN

A

toxin breaking down blood cells; causes release of Hemoglobin

55
Q

toxin that acts on the intestines

A

enterotoxins

56
Q

which type of toxin have effects on specific cell type

A

exotoxin

57
Q

microbial PROTEINS with a strong specificity for a target cell that exert extremely powerful, sometimes deadly effects on cells are called

A

exotoxins

58
Q

two properties of exotoxins

A

toxic in minute amounts

only toxic to specific cell types

59
Q

a toxin that is part of the outer membrane in a gram neg bacterial cell

A

endotoxin

60
Q

what appears when bacteria growing on blood agar produce hemolysins

A

green tinted zones in agar

61
Q

the massive drop in blood pressure that can result from the release of LPS in gram neg infections is called _________

A

septic shock

62
Q

LPS is located in the ______________ of the cell envelope of gram neg bacteria

A

outer membrane

63
Q

what is not a systemic effect of endotoxin release

A

increased BP; it would actually decrease if anything with shock

64
Q

endotoxic/septic shock is characterized by a massive drop in BP that can result from the release of LPS in gram neg infections

A

true

65
Q

two examples of systemic infections

A

AIDS

typhoid fever

66
Q

when a disease can be identified by a certain complex of signs and sx, it can be termed a

A

syndrome

67
Q

common sx of inflammation

A

pain, soreness, fever, and swelling

68
Q

represent collections of microbes and inflammatory cells that have been walled-off within the tissues

A

abscesses and granulomas

69
Q

is the swelling of one or more lymph nodes

A

lymphadenitis

70
Q

SIGNS of inflammation

A

granulomas, abscesses, edema, lymphadenitis

71
Q

a nonspecific response to tissue injury or infection that protects the host from further damage is called

A

inflammation

72
Q

SYMPTOMS of inflammation

A

pain soreness

73
Q

decrease in circulating WBCs

A

leukopenia

74
Q

abnormally large number of WBCs in the blood

A

leukocytosis

75
Q

route through which a pathogen exits from the host organism

A

portal of exit

76
Q

a state of inactive infection is called

A

latency

77
Q

the incubation period is characterized by

A

pathogen multiplication

78
Q

the earliest notable signs of many infections appear as vague feelings of discomfort during the short period known as the _______ stage

A

prodromal

79
Q

the primary habitat in the natural world in where a potential pathogen makes its home

A

reservoir

80
Q

a _________ is the individual or object from which an infection is actually acquired

A

transmitter

81
Q

t or f

in some cases the reservoir and the transmitter for an infectious agent are the same

A

true

82
Q

an individual who inconspicuously shelters a pathogen and spreads it to others without any notice is a

A

carrier

83
Q

uninfected medical and dental personnel handling materials that are heavily contaminated with patient secretions and blood can accidentally transfer infectious agents to other patients, acting as ________ carriers

A

passive

84
Q

a ________ carrier continues to be infectious during the recovery period

A

convalescent

85
Q

a carrier who spreads an infectious agent in the period before they develop sx of the disease

A

incubating carrier

86
Q

an infection indigenous to animals that is also transmissible to humans is called a

A

zoonosis

87
Q

a disease is ________ when an infected host can transmit the infectious agent to another host and establish infection in that host

A

communicable

88
Q

if the disease agent is highly communicable, especially through direct contact, the disease is considered to be

A

contagious

89
Q

a disease that does not arise from host to host transmission of the infectious agent is called

A

noncommunicable

90
Q

any inanimate object that can serve as a vehicle for the spread of disease when contacted by an infected individual is called a

A

fomite

91
Q

infectious diseases that are acquired or develop while being treated in a hospital or medical facility are called ____ infections

A

nosocomial

healthcare-related

92
Q

__________ transmission occurs when an agent is transferred from an infected person to another infected person without an intermediate object, substance, or space

A

contact

93
Q

what term refers to the agent that causes an infection and disease

A

etiological (etiology)

94
Q

what discipline involves the study of the frequency and distribution of the disease and other health related factors in defined populations

A

epidemiology

95
Q

a disease that must be brought to the attention of local, district, state, or national agencies by medical personnel aware of the condition, in accordance with the law, is a _________ disease

A

reportable disease

96
Q

an epidemiological term for “keeping track of trends in nonemergency times” as an aid to predict disease patterns is

A

surveillance

97
Q

name three reportable diseases in the US

A

anthrax
rabies
Lyme disease

98
Q

the agent that causes an infection and disease is most commonly referred to as the ________, or causative, agent

A

etiologic

99
Q

the total number of cases of a disease in a certain area at any given time is referred to as the _________ of the disease

A

prevalence

100
Q

term indicating a measure of new cases of a disease over a specific time period, indicating both the rate and risk of infection

A

incidence

101
Q

prevalence can be calculated as the (total number of cases in a population) divided by the (total number of people in population) times (_________)

A

100

102
Q

list three reportable diseases besides lymes, anthrax, and rabies

A

shigella, measles, HIV infection, gonorrhea

103
Q

an epidemic curve show what

A

the incidence of the disease plotted against time

104
Q

R0 factor (r naught)

A

measures susceptible people one infected person will spread the infection to

105
Q

the case fatality rate is a measure of

A

the number of people who die of the disease / the number of people infected

106
Q

the ______ case refers to the first patient found in an epidemiological investigation

A

index

107
Q

the number of persons afflicted with a certain illness is called the ______ rate

A

morbidity

108
Q

an infectious disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long period of time in a particular geographic locale

ie. Lyme disease is endemic to certain areas of the US where the tick vector is found

A

endemic

109
Q

if occasional cases of disease are reported at irregular intervals in random locales the disease is described as

A

sporadic

110
Q

a ________ occurs when the prevalence of a disease is greater than expected for a particular population

A

epidemic

111
Q

the spread of an epidemic across continents is a ______

A

pandemic

112
Q

the use of fecal transplants to treat patients with C. diff infection has been approved by the US FDA for

A

patients who do not respond to standard therapy

Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) (13 decks)

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